I was following the bible reading at church when I noticed a difference in meaning in what was read, versus what I saw in my bible, the KJV. Speaking of marriage at the Resurrection in Mark 12, see the subtle change as Jesus was talking about the 'living' who have been resurrected not the 'dead rising' on their own, compare KJV versus NIV:

KJV
24And Jesus answering said unto them, Do ye not therefore err, because ye know not the scriptures, neither the power of God?
25For when they shall rise from the dead, they neither marry, nor are given in marriage; but are as the angels which are in heaven.
26And as touching the dead, that they rise: have ye not read in the book of Moses, how in the bush God spake unto him, saying, I am the God of Abraham, and the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob?
27He is not the God of the dead, but the God of the living: ye therefore do greatly err.

NIV
24 Jesus replied, “Are you not in error because you do not know the Scriptures or the power of God? 25 When the dead rise, they will neither marry nor be given in marriage; they will be like the angels in heaven. 26 Now about the dead rising—have you not read in the Book of Moses, in the account of the burning bush, how God said to him, ‘I am the God of Abraham, the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob’[d]? 27 He is not the God of the dead, but of the living. You are badly mistaken!”

The twist is at verse 25 which in NIV says 'When the dead rise,' which leaves it open and can be the dead floating around on their own, so the dead rising on their own then seems to be included when you continue on verse 26 'Now about the dead rising—'

If you look at KJV it says 'WHEN they shall rise FROM the dead' so it clearly points to the ressurection when they are back with the LIVING not when people are dead....

The KJV is clear then in verse 26'And as touching the dead, that they rise: '
He is referring to the false belief of the dead that they rise, and in this he meant on their own, so thus the point he is making makes sense:
"...have ye not read in the book of Moses, how in the bush God spake unto him, saying, I am the God of Abraham, and the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob?
27He is not the God of the dead,..."

He is not the God of the dead, people do not rise at death but at the resurrection and thats what he was pointing to.......its very subtle....

What are your thoughts......?

Not sure I see what you're seeing. Jesus is confirming the resurrection.

Jesus is answering a question on the dead which by this time the Jews had pick up the pagan idea that the dead rise and float around as spirits or ghosts. In KJV you can see the question 26"And as touching the dead, that they rise:" in other words on the the question of the dead the answers is that God is the God of the living. So it makes it clear that the dead are raised to be living beings, at the ressurection. It does not leave the door open as NIV does, to the false belief of immortality of the soul, with is subtle shift to a statement ....26 "Now about the dead rising." So it makes it seem to say the God of the 'dead that rise' so you can believe in ghosts, spirits of the dead which look over their friends and family, souls that rise like with the Witch of Endor bring up what looked like Samuel for Saul to seek counsel with.

Oh, I see what you mean. But don't people also believe the spirits of the dead have risen and are, therefore, alive? If the dead have not yet risen and remain dead in the grave, wouldn't that mean God is the God of the dead?

No, that was Christs point. What I get is that to God, you are sleeping and HE can raise you to life, you never die a eternal death when in Gods hand... He looks at it much like when you are not conscious as when you sleep, as Christ describe about Lazarus. But if you believe in the pagan belief of immortality of the soul YOU basically raise yourself after you die and float around as a spirit, God is not a part of it.

It seems to me that Luke’s more expansive quoting of Christ on this statement here in Luke 20:38, probably out of Luke’s repeatedly demonstrated concern to make things clear and plain for his pointed reader, the Most Excellent Theophilus (probably a non-Christian Roman Official), resolves this issue as he includes: “for all live to Him”. That is a conclusion that many present from Christ’s opposers admitted was the truth (vs. 39).

So apparently here, ‘God is God of the living’ because He refers to the dead as if they were alive. However, as seen with Moses and certain resurrected OT saints at Christ’s resurrection, (which are probably the 24 elders in Heaven), and as there is ‘no knowledge of God in the grave’, God still need to resurrect these dead in order to have communications and companionship with them.

This is thus all much like us speaking of someone who has died in the present tense. Nothing to those past experiences can be added to now, but those past deeds, statements and experiences are mentioned and thought of with enduring expressions and considerations today. Indeed as seen in Luke narrative, that explanation by Jesus was made to explain why God had said to Moses at the Burning Bush that ‘He was the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob, although these had been dead for then ca. 400+ years.

John 3:36 weighs in heavily on this topic.

Blessings,

Green Cochoa.

Interesting way of looking at it. Wonder how they would respond to it? Doubt they think they raise themselves.