Posted By: Matthew 10vs8
Revelation 1:10 (KJB) - The Lord's Day - the 7th Day the Sabbath of the LORD thy God - 06/07/21 01:07 PM
Revelation 1:10 (KJB) - The Lord's Day - the 7th Day the Sabbath of the LORD thy God
Rev 1:10? I was in the Spirit on the Lord's day, and heard behind me a great voice, as of a trumpet,?
The "Lord's day" according to scripture, is the 7th day, the sabbath day of the Lord. Let's demonstrate that:
Genesis 2:1-3,4 - 'the seventh day', 'God', 'day', 'the LORD God' [? God [the LORD] ? day ?]
Exodus 16:23 - "to morrow [the seventh day] is the rest of the holy sabbath unto the LORD', 'to day' [? the LORD ? day ?]
Exodus 16:25 - 'to day [the seventh day]; for to day is a sabbath unto the LORD: to day' [.,. the LORD ? day ?]
Exodus 20:8-11 - 'the sabbath day', 'the seventh day is the sabbath of the LORD thy God', 'the sabbath day' [? the LORD ? day ?]
Exodus 31:15 - 'the seventh is the sabbath of rest, holy to the LORD ... the sabbath day' [? the LORD ? day ?]
Exodus 35:2,3 - 'the seventh day there shall be to you an holy day, a sabbath of rest to the LORD', 'the sabbath day' [? the LORD ? day ?]
Leviticus 23:3 - 'the seventh day is the sabbath of rest, an holy convocation; ye shall do no work therein: it is the sabbath of the LORD'
Deuteronomy 5:12,14 ? 'the LORD', 'the seventh day is the sabbath of the LORD thy God' [? the LORD ? day ?]
Psalms 92:1 - 'A Psalm or Song for the sabbath day. It is a good thing to give thanks unto the LORD'
Isaiah 56:6 - 'Also the sons of the stranger, that join themselves to the LORD, to serve him, and to love the name of the LORD, to be his servants, every one that keepeth the sabbath [day] from polluting it, and taketh hold of my covenant' (context new covenant) [? the LORD ? [day] ?]
Isaiah 58:13 - 'the sabbath ... my [the LORD's] holy day ... the holy [day] of the Lord' [? [the LORD's] ? day ?]
Isaiah 66:22,23 ? 'the LORD', 'one sabbath [day] to another, shall all flesh come to worship before me, saith the LORD' [? the LORD ? [day] ?]
Jeremiah 17:21 - 'saith the LORD... on the sabbath day' [? the LORD ? day ?]
Matthew 12:8 - 'the Son of man is Lord even of the sabbath day' [? the Lord ? day ?]
Mark 2:28 - 'the Son of man is Lord even of the sabbath day' [? the Lord ? day ?]
Luke 6:5 - 'the Son of man is Lord also of the sabbath [day]' [? the Lord ? [day] ?]
Revelation 1:10 - 'the Lord's day'
Some have said that "the Lord's day" of Revelation 1:10 is not any particular day of the week (seventh day or first day), but that it is to represent the eschatological "Day of the LORD", or "Judgment Day", but this is not possible from the context itself.
Revelation says that John while on the Isle of Patmos for (because of_ believing and living according to) the "word of God", and for "the testimony of Jesus Christ" (vss 1,9) was "in the Spirit" (Holy Spirit, which is who gave the vision to John, see vs 4, "the Seven spirits" (7 being the representative number of completeness, and ties into the language of the Sanctuary/Tabernacle/Temple of God as the 7 branch candlesticks, see vss 12,20) "on" (a particular day of the week (either 1,2,3,4,5,6,7) that John was presently experiencing to have been given this vision "the Lord's day".
Another reason that the phrase "the Lord's day" cannot refer to the eschatological "Day of the LORD" is because that which John sees in Revelation 1, does not refer to anything that deals with the eschatological events of "Day of the LORD", except for vs 7, which was yet future to John's day.? John sees and hears 'Jesus' (vss 10-20) this is true, but Jesus is not seen coming in the cloud of glory, but is seen "in the midst of the seven candlesticks" (vs 13), which is in the Holy Place of the Heavenly Temple (Hebrews 8:5; 9:23; Revelation 11:19, 15:5), and even dressed, not as KING of Kings and LORD of Lords (Revelation 19:11-16), but as a HighPriest is dressed (vss 13-15) which means that Jesus was still then ministering in Heaven, while the Gospel was still going forward that men might be saved.? When Jesus changes garments to being dressed as KING of Kings and LORD of Lords, coming with the clouds (angels) of Heaven in the fullness of glory, the Gospel is no longer effective, and His ministration there in Heaven is over.
Another reason that the phrase "the Lord's day" cannot refer to the eschatological "Day of the LORD" is because John is not merely shown the "future", but as it is said in the very context of Revelation 1 - he is shown the past, present and future:
For instance Revelation 1:7, shows the future coming of Jesus:
Rev 1:7? Behold, he cometh with clouds; and every eye shall see him, and they also which pierced him: and all kindreds of the earth shall wail because of him. Even so, Amen.
Yet that was not all.? Consider:
Rev 1:19? Write the things which thou hast seen, and the things which are, and the things which shall be hereafter;
[1] past - thou hast seen
[2] present - the things which are
[3] future - the things which shall be hereafter
So, John was definitely not "in" or "on" the "Day of the LORD" (which was still future to his own day, and yea even ours), when receiving the vision.
So, just a recap.
[1] Jesus's dress precludes "the Lord's day" from being "the Day of the LORD".
[2] Jesus' location precludes "the Lord's day" from being "the Day of the LORD".
[3] the immediate context of what John was shown precludes "the Lord's day" from being "the Day of the LORD".
Let's consider a fourth reason.? The language itself.
Revelation 1:10:
Rev 1:10? I was in the Spirit on the Lord's day, and heard behind me a great voice, as of a trumpet,
See also the GNT TR, and GNT TR+ (E-Sword Modules) (this website really needs to install the koine Greek, and other language modules).
Rev 1:10? I wasG1096 inG1722 the SpiritG4151 onG1722 theG3588 Lord'sG2960 day,G2250 andG2532 heardG191 behindG3694 meG3450 a greatG3173 voice,G5456 asG5613 of a trumpet,G4536
The word "Lord's" (translit. koine Greek "kuriake") is an Adjective - Dative - Singular - Feminine.
This means, in context, it is being used as a 'possessive' ("of", see 1 Corinthians 11:20, "the Lord's supper"), which means the "day" in context belongs to "the Lord".? It is literally "the Lord's (belonging to) day".
This means, that the "day" in context is uniquely "the Lord's" out of all the 7 days of the week, for the day under consideration is that which exists within the week, as a day which repeats weekly.
This is extremely important, as those who incorrectly assume it to mean "the first [day] of the week" in lieu of Jesus' resurrection, cannot get a weekly occurrence out of a one-time event, in fulfilment of typology of the Firstfruit/Wavesheaf in Leviticus 23:9-14, as made known in 1 Corinthians 15:20,23..
This is not as the phrase "day of the Lord" ([h]emera kyriou) which is written in the genitive masculine case (see 2 Peter 3:10, etc, and also so called septuaginta uses).
In Isaiah 58:13 we read of "the Lord's holy day", which refers to the seventh day of the week, the sabbath of the Lord.
In the rest of Isaiah, when he refers, by inspiration of the Holy Ghost, to "the Day of the LORD", it is always in a differing phrase and context. See:
Isaiah 2:12, 13:6,9, 34:8
Others say it like this:
"the day of the LORD"
Jeremiah 46:10
Lamentations 2:22
Ezekiel 13:5, 30:3
Joel 1:15, 2:1,11,31, 3:14
Amos 5:18,20
Obadiah 1:15
Zephaniah 1:7,8,14,18, 2:2,3, 14:1
Malachi 4:5
Acts 2:20
1 Corinthians 5:5
2 Corinthians 1:14
1 Thessalonians 5:2
2 Peter 3:10
"the day of their calamity"
Deuteronomy 32:35
"the day of vengeance"
Proverbs 6:34
"the day of the LORD's anger"
Lamentations 2:22
"day of the LORD's vengeance"
Isaiah 34:8
"the day of vengeance of our God"
Isaiah 61:2
"the day of vengeance"
Isaiah 63:4
"the day of the LORD's wrath"
Zephaniah 1:18
"Day of God"
2 Peter 3:12
"great day of God Almighty"
Revelation 16:14
The Day Of The LORD:
Deuteronomy 31:17-18,?1 Samuel 3:12, 8:18, 1 Kings 22:25, 22:35, 2 Chronicles 18:24, 18:34, Job 3:3-4, 21:30, Psalms 110:5, Isaiah 2:11-12, 17, 20,3:7, 3:18, 4:1-2, 5:30, 7:18, 21, 23, 10:20, 27, 32, 11:10-11, 16, 12:1, 4, 13:6, 9, 13, 17:4, 7, 9, 19:18-19,21, 23-24, 20:6, 22:12, 20,25, 23:15, 24:21, 25:9, 26:1, 27:1-2, 12-13, 28:5, 19, 29:18 30:23, 25, 31:7, 34:8, 52:6, 58:5, 61:2, 63:4, 66:8, Jeremiah?1:10, 4:9, 25:33, 30:8, 31:6, 39:17, 49:22, 26, Lamentations 1:12, 2:1, 21-22, Ezekiel 7:7, 12, 19, 13:5, 22:24, 24:27, 27:27, 29:21, 30:3, 9, 18, 38:14, 19, 39:11, 22, 48:35, Hosea 1:5, 11, 2:16, 18, 21, 5:9, 9:5?, Joel 1:15, 2:1-2, 11, 2:31, 3:14, 18, Amos 1:14, 2:16, 3:14, 5:18, 20, 8:3, 9-10, 13, 9:11, Obadiah 1:8, 15, Micah 2:4, 3:6, 4:6, 5:10, 7:11-12, Nahum 3:17, Habakkuk 3:16, Zephaniah 1:7, 8, 9, 10, 14, 15, 16, 18, 2:2-3, 3:8, 11, 16, Zechariah 2:11, 3:9, 10, 9:16, 11:11, 12:3, 4, 6, 8, 9, 12, 13:1, 2, 4, 14:1, 3, 14:4, 6, 7, 8, 9, 13, 20, 21, Malachi 3:2, 17, 4:1, 3, 5, Matthew 7:22, 10:15, 11:22, 24, 12:36, 24:36, 50, 25:13, Mark 6:11,13:32, Luke 6:23, 10:12, 17:24, 30, 31, 21:34, John 6:39, 40, 44, 54, 8:56, 11:24, 14:20, 16:23, 26, Romans 2:5, 16, 13:12, 1 Corinthians 1:8, 3:13, 5:5,?2 Corinthians 1:14, Philippians 1:6, 10, 2:16, 1 Thessalonians 5:2, 4, 2 Thessalonians 1:10, 2:2, 3, 2 Timothy 1:12, 18, 4:8, Hebrews 10:25, James 5:5, 1 Peter 2:12, 2 Peter 2:9, 3:7, 10, 12,?1 John 4:17, Jude 1:6, and Revelation 6:17, 16:14, 18:8.
In Latin (Jerome's), we see it similarly used in Exodus 20 (Latin is without the definite article, as Latin does not use definite articles):
Rev 1:10? fui in spiritu in dominica die et audivi post me vocem magnam tamquam tubae
Exo 20:8? memento ut diem sabbati sanctifices
Exo 20:9? sex diebus operaberis et facies omnia opera tua
Exo 20:10? septimo autem die sabbati Domini Dei tui non facies omne opus tu et filius tuus et filia tua servus tuus et ancilla tua iumentum tuum et advena qui est intra portas tuas
Exo 20:11? sex enim diebus fecit Dominus caelum et terram et mare et omnia quae in eis sunt et requievit in die septimo idcirco benedixit Dominus diei sabbati et sanctificavit eum
Which is akin to Genesis' "God's day":
Gen 2:1? igitur perfecti sunt caeli et terra et omnis ornatus eorum
Gen 2:2? conplevitque Deus die septimo opus suum quod fecerat et requievit die septimo ab universo opere quod patrarat
Gen 2:3? et benedixit diei septimo et sanctificavit illum quia in ipso cessaverat ab omni opere suo quod creavit Deus ut faceret
Whereas the differing apocalyptic day, "the day of the Lord" in Latin is "dies Domini" as in Zephaniah 1:14:
Zep 1:14? iuxta est dies Domini magnus iuxta et velox nimis vox diei Domini amara tribulabitur ibi fortis
In Isaiah 58:13, we read of a "day" that "the Lord" specifically calls "my day":
Isa 58:13? If thou turn away thy foot from the sabbath, from doing thy pleasure on my holy day; and call the sabbath a delight, the holy of the LORD, honourable; and shalt honour him, not doing thine own ways, nor finding thine own pleasure, nor speaking thine own words:
In many translations of Isaiah 58:13 we read that the 7th day, the sabbath of the Lord, is said to be "the Lord's holy day", with the word holy being another adjective, while the "Lord's" is possessive. - Isaiah 58:13 - see Bible Gateway's translation listing. - https://www.biblegateway.com/verse/en/Isaiah%2058%3A13
Thus when reading Isaiah 58:13 with simple pronoun substitution, it would read "... the ... [Lord's] day ...", just as it does in Exodus 20:8-11.
Exo 20:8? Remember the sabbath day, to keep it holy.
Exo 20:9? Six days shalt thou labour, and do all thy work:
Exo 20:10? But the seventh day is the sabbath of the LORD thy God: in it thou shalt not do any work, thou, nor thy son, nor thy daughter, thy manservant, nor thy maidservant, nor thy cattle, nor thy stranger that is within thy gates:
Exo 20:11? For in six days the LORD made heaven and earth, the sea, and all that in them is, and rested the seventh day: wherefore the LORD blessed the sabbath day, and hallowed it.
In Genesis we see why this day is uniquely "Gods'", or "the Lord's" day, for in it God rested.? This is the reason Jesus could say:
Mat 12:8? For the Son of man is Lord even of the sabbath day.
For in that He created in Genesis, and rested, Colossians 1:16.
Further, we can see some honest persons, among the many commentators that like to simply assume their a priori into the text, or to place future definition back into the text, from non-scriptural materials.
Peter Pett's commentary makes this accurate note:
"... Sunday is not called ?the Lord?s day? (he kyriake hemera) anywhere in Scripture ..." .
Dr. Thomas Constable likewise states the same truth:
"... The New Testament writers never called Sunday the Lord"s day elsewhere in Scripture. ..." .
Richard Chenevix Trench has stated on record, and accurately that:
"... ?Some have assumed, from this passage, that ἡμέρα κυριακή was a designation of Sunday already familiar among Christians. This, however, seems a mistake ..." .
Likewise, Foy E Wallace states:
"... It is not a reference to the first day of the week ..." .
The context shows that the "day" spoken of, in each texts presented is "the LORD('s)". John as a physical Jew, who was following the Messiah (Jesus), thus a Christian, was on the Isle of Patmos, for what reason?
Rev 1:2 Who bare record of the word of God, and of the testimony of Jesus Christ, and of all things that he saw.
Rev 1:9 I John, who also am your brother, and companion in tribulation, and in the kingdom and patience of Jesus Christ, was in the isle that is called Patmos, for the word of God, and for the testimony of Jesus Christ.​
It is even given in other places:
Rev_6:9 And when he had opened the fifth seal, I saw under the altar the souls of them that were slain for the word of God, and for the testimony which they held:
Rev_20:4 And I saw thrones, and they sat upon them, and judgment was given unto them: and I saw the souls of them that were beheaded for the witness of Jesus, and for the word of God, and which had not worshipped the beast, neither his image, neither had received his mark upon their foreheads, or in their hands; and they lived and reigned with Christ a thousand years.​
Please notice those two things in connection with the seal of God and the counterfeit (aka, Mark of the Beast.
What is this "word of God" and the "testimony/witness of Jesus"? We do not have to in any way guess, for John tells us in parallel fashion:
Rev 12:17 And the dragon was wroth with the woman, and went to make war with the remnant of her seed, which keep the commandments of God, and have the testimony of Jesus Christ.​
This is found way back in the OT:
Deu_4:2 Ye shall not add unto the word which I command you, neither shall ye diminish ought from it, that ye may keep the commandments of the LORD your God which I command you.​
So, when John references "the Lord's day", it is in the context of "the word of God", which are God's Commandments. Well, which commandment then? Again, we do not have to guess, for John tells us:
Rev 14:7 Saying with a loud voice, Fear God, and give glory to him; for the hour of his judgment is come: and worship him that made heaven, and earth, and the sea, and the fountains of waters.
Rev 14:12 Here is the patience of the saints: here are they that keep the commandments of God, and the faith of Jesus.​
What specific commandment, was John citing? The 4th Commandment, specifically, Exodus 20:11,
Exo 20:11 For in six days the LORD made heaven and earth, the sea, and all that in them is, and rested the seventh day: wherefore the LORD blessed the sabbath day, and hallowed it.​
The whole Commandment:
Exo 20:8 Remember the sabbath day, to keep it holy.
Exo 20:9 Six days shalt thou labour, and do all thy work:
Exo 20:10 But the seventh day is the sabbath of the LORD thy God: in it thou shalt not do any work, thou, nor thy son, nor thy daughter, thy manservant, nor thy maidservant, nor thy cattle, nor thy stranger that is within thy gates:
Exo 20:11 For in six days the LORD made heaven and earth, the sea, and all that in them is, and rested the seventh day: wherefore the LORD blessed the sabbath day, and hallowed it.​
That little word "of" is possessive. Thus when God speaks, by His own voice, the He (the LORD) has chosen a specific (definite article) "day", it is thus "the LORD('s) ... day", being His sabbath, the 7th day, from the foundation of the world in Genesis 2:1-3,4, where therein it is "God('s; the LORD's) ... day".
The "word of God" = God's commandments (see the parallelism):
Isa_1:10 Hear the word of the LORD, ye rulers of Sodom; give ear unto the law of our God, ye people of Gomorrah.​
and the "testimony of Jesus" is the Spirit of prophecy (Revelation 19:10), and as found all throughout scripture:
2Ki_17:13 Yet the LORD testified against Israel, and against Judah, by all the prophets, and by all the seers, saying, Turn ye from your evil ways, and keep my commandments and my statutes, according to all the law which I commanded your fathers, and which I sent to you by my servants the prophets.
Psa_19:7 The law of the LORD is perfect, converting the soul: the testimony of the LORD is sure, making wise the simple.
Psa_78:5 For he established a testimony in Jacob, and appointed a law in Israel, which he commanded our fathers, that they should make them known to their children
Pro_29:18 Where there is no vision, the people perish: but he that keepeth the law, happy is he.
:
Isa_8:16 Bind up the testimony, seal the law among my disciples.
Isa_8:20 To the law and to the testimony: if they speak not according to this word, it is because there is no light in them.
Lam_2:9 Her gates are sunk into the ground; he hath destroyed and broken her bars: her king and her princes are among the Gentiles: the law is no more; her prophets also find no vision from the LORD.
Eze_7:26 Mischief shall come upon mischief, and rumour shall be upon rumour; then shall they seek a vision of the prophet; but the law shall perish from the priest, and counsel from the ancients.
Mat_22:40 On these two commandments hang all the law and the prophets.
Rom_3:21 But now the righteousness of God without the law is manifested, being witnessed by the law and the prophets;​
Therefore, notice again the connection of the Apostle and prophet John, who receives a "vision", in connection with keeping God's commandments, and was resting specifically on "the LORD's day":
Rev 1:10 I was in the Spirit on the Lord's day, and heard behind me a great voice, as of a trumpet,​
The Law (Lord's day) and the testimony (spirit of prophecy) again are witnessed therein in its proper context.
It always speaks of the 7th day the sabbath of the LORD, His holy day.
Line upon line, and no need for a single non-scriptural source to re-define by the man of sin's tradition.
Some have said that "the Lord's day" is simply unique, and that if John (in Revelation 1:10) had meant "sabbath" he would have written "sabbath". This is actually presumption, based upon a false a priori, about what certain individuals themselves think the Holy Ghost/Spirit ought to have inspired John to write. Beware, that is a very dangerous path to take. They also say that "sabbath" is always called "sabbath" in the NT.
Actually, No. The "sabbath" is called "sabbath" in the NT, that is for certain:
Matthew 12:1,2,5,8,10,11,12, 24:20, 28:1;
Mark 1:21, 2:23,24,27,28, 3:2,4, 6:2, 7:6-9, 15:42, 16:1;
Luke 4:16,31, 6:1,2,5,6,7,9, 13:10,14,15,16, 14:1,3,5, 23:54,56;
John 5:9,10,16,18, 7:22,23, 9:14,16, 12:1 (calculated), 19:31;
Acts 1:2, 13:14,27,42,44, 15:21, 16:13, 17:2, 18:4;​
Yet, it is also called God's "rest":
Hebrews 3:11,18, 4:1,3,4,5,8,9,10,11​
It is also called "the seventh day":
Hebrews 4:4​
It is called "the seventh":
Hebrews 4:4​
It is also referred to as being "according to the commandment":
Luke 23:56​
It is also referred to as the culmination of the 7 day week:
Matthew 28:1(a) - (Transliterated) oye de sabbatwn
Matthew 28:1(b) - (Transliterated) eiV mian sabbatwn
Mark 16:2 - (Transliterated) kai lian prwi ths mias sabbatwn
Mark 16:9 - (Transliterated) anastas de prwi prwth sabbatou
Luke 24:1 - (Transliterated) th de mia twn sabbatwn
John 20:1 - (Transliterated) th de mia twn sabbatwn
John 20:19 - (Transliterated) th mia twn sabbatwn
Acts 20:7 - (Transliterated) en de th mia twn sabbatwn
1 Corinthians 16:2 - (Transliterated) kata mian sabbatwn​
It is also referred to as "the day (that is approaching in the week (also the great Cosmic final day, dual use)"
Hebrews 10:25​
All of which terms are also used in the OT, as the OT and NT are in perfect harmony.
The Phrase "the Lord's day" is found in use in the OT, as shown from Isaiah 58:13, etc. John is not making up any novel (new) idea, but the Holy Ghost is inspiring and citing from the OT scriptures, as is done all over Revelation 1. Called an "epanados" or Chiasm:
(1) Isaiah 55:4 --> Revelation 1:5 (Witness)
(2) Daniel 7:13 --> Revelation 1:7 (Coming with Clouds of angels)
(3) Zechariah 12:10-14 --> Revelation 1:7 (Pierced and Wail)
(4) Isaiah 41:4,6 --> Revelation 1:8 (I AM)
(5) Isaiah 58:13 --> Revelation 1:10 (The Lord's day)
(4) Isaiah 41:4,6 --> Revelation 1:11 (I AM)​
(3) Zechariah 4:2 --> Revelation 1:12 (Candlestick, Sanctuary, Holy Place)​
(2) Daniel 7:9,13,22 --> Revelation 1:13-15 (Priest)​
(1) Isaiah 49:2 --> Revelation 1:16 (Sharp Sword)​
Revelation 1:10 is simply citing Isaiah 58:13 in the midst of the parallelism from the OT.
Isaiah 58:13
KJB - "... my [context, the LORD's] holy day ..."
CJB - ?... Adonai?s holy day ..."
ERV - "... the Lord?s special day ..."
EXB - ?... the Lord?s holy day ..."
GW - "... the Lord?s holy day ..."
ICB - ?... the Lord?s holy day ..."
ISV - "... the Lord?s holy day ..."
TLB - "... the Lord?s holy day ..."
MSG - "... God?s holy day ..."
NOG - "... Yahweh?s holy day ..."
NABRE - "... the Lord?s holy day ..."
NCV - "... the Lord?s holy day ..."
NET - "... the Lord?s holy day ..."
NIRV - "... the Lord?s holy day ..."
NIV - "... the Lord?s holy day ..."
NIVUK - "... the Lord?s holy day ..."
NLT - "... the Lord?s holy day ..."
TPT - "... Yahweh?s holy day ..."
Rev 1:10? I was in the Spirit on the Lord's day, and heard behind me a great voice, as of a trumpet,?
The "Lord's day" according to scripture, is the 7th day, the sabbath day of the Lord. Let's demonstrate that:
Genesis 2:1-3,4 - 'the seventh day', 'God', 'day', 'the LORD God' [? God [the LORD] ? day ?]
Exodus 16:23 - "to morrow [the seventh day] is the rest of the holy sabbath unto the LORD', 'to day' [? the LORD ? day ?]
Exodus 16:25 - 'to day [the seventh day]; for to day is a sabbath unto the LORD: to day' [.,. the LORD ? day ?]
Exodus 20:8-11 - 'the sabbath day', 'the seventh day is the sabbath of the LORD thy God', 'the sabbath day' [? the LORD ? day ?]
Exodus 31:15 - 'the seventh is the sabbath of rest, holy to the LORD ... the sabbath day' [? the LORD ? day ?]
Exodus 35:2,3 - 'the seventh day there shall be to you an holy day, a sabbath of rest to the LORD', 'the sabbath day' [? the LORD ? day ?]
Leviticus 23:3 - 'the seventh day is the sabbath of rest, an holy convocation; ye shall do no work therein: it is the sabbath of the LORD'
Deuteronomy 5:12,14 ? 'the LORD', 'the seventh day is the sabbath of the LORD thy God' [? the LORD ? day ?]
Psalms 92:1 - 'A Psalm or Song for the sabbath day. It is a good thing to give thanks unto the LORD'
Isaiah 56:6 - 'Also the sons of the stranger, that join themselves to the LORD, to serve him, and to love the name of the LORD, to be his servants, every one that keepeth the sabbath [day] from polluting it, and taketh hold of my covenant' (context new covenant) [? the LORD ? [day] ?]
Isaiah 58:13 - 'the sabbath ... my [the LORD's] holy day ... the holy [day] of the Lord' [? [the LORD's] ? day ?]
Isaiah 66:22,23 ? 'the LORD', 'one sabbath [day] to another, shall all flesh come to worship before me, saith the LORD' [? the LORD ? [day] ?]
Jeremiah 17:21 - 'saith the LORD... on the sabbath day' [? the LORD ? day ?]
Matthew 12:8 - 'the Son of man is Lord even of the sabbath day' [? the Lord ? day ?]
Mark 2:28 - 'the Son of man is Lord even of the sabbath day' [? the Lord ? day ?]
Luke 6:5 - 'the Son of man is Lord also of the sabbath [day]' [? the Lord ? [day] ?]
Revelation 1:10 - 'the Lord's day'
Some have said that "the Lord's day" of Revelation 1:10 is not any particular day of the week (seventh day or first day), but that it is to represent the eschatological "Day of the LORD", or "Judgment Day", but this is not possible from the context itself.
Revelation says that John while on the Isle of Patmos for (because of_ believing and living according to) the "word of God", and for "the testimony of Jesus Christ" (vss 1,9) was "in the Spirit" (Holy Spirit, which is who gave the vision to John, see vs 4, "the Seven spirits" (7 being the representative number of completeness, and ties into the language of the Sanctuary/Tabernacle/Temple of God as the 7 branch candlesticks, see vss 12,20) "on" (a particular day of the week (either 1,2,3,4,5,6,7) that John was presently experiencing to have been given this vision "the Lord's day".
Another reason that the phrase "the Lord's day" cannot refer to the eschatological "Day of the LORD" is because that which John sees in Revelation 1, does not refer to anything that deals with the eschatological events of "Day of the LORD", except for vs 7, which was yet future to John's day.? John sees and hears 'Jesus' (vss 10-20) this is true, but Jesus is not seen coming in the cloud of glory, but is seen "in the midst of the seven candlesticks" (vs 13), which is in the Holy Place of the Heavenly Temple (Hebrews 8:5; 9:23; Revelation 11:19, 15:5), and even dressed, not as KING of Kings and LORD of Lords (Revelation 19:11-16), but as a HighPriest is dressed (vss 13-15) which means that Jesus was still then ministering in Heaven, while the Gospel was still going forward that men might be saved.? When Jesus changes garments to being dressed as KING of Kings and LORD of Lords, coming with the clouds (angels) of Heaven in the fullness of glory, the Gospel is no longer effective, and His ministration there in Heaven is over.
Another reason that the phrase "the Lord's day" cannot refer to the eschatological "Day of the LORD" is because John is not merely shown the "future", but as it is said in the very context of Revelation 1 - he is shown the past, present and future:
For instance Revelation 1:7, shows the future coming of Jesus:
Rev 1:7? Behold, he cometh with clouds; and every eye shall see him, and they also which pierced him: and all kindreds of the earth shall wail because of him. Even so, Amen.
Yet that was not all.? Consider:
Rev 1:19? Write the things which thou hast seen, and the things which are, and the things which shall be hereafter;
[1] past - thou hast seen
[2] present - the things which are
[3] future - the things which shall be hereafter
So, John was definitely not "in" or "on" the "Day of the LORD" (which was still future to his own day, and yea even ours), when receiving the vision.
So, just a recap.
[1] Jesus's dress precludes "the Lord's day" from being "the Day of the LORD".
[2] Jesus' location precludes "the Lord's day" from being "the Day of the LORD".
[3] the immediate context of what John was shown precludes "the Lord's day" from being "the Day of the LORD".
Let's consider a fourth reason.? The language itself.
Revelation 1:10:
Rev 1:10? I was in the Spirit on the Lord's day, and heard behind me a great voice, as of a trumpet,
See also the GNT TR, and GNT TR+ (E-Sword Modules) (this website really needs to install the koine Greek, and other language modules).
Rev 1:10? I wasG1096 inG1722 the SpiritG4151 onG1722 theG3588 Lord'sG2960 day,G2250 andG2532 heardG191 behindG3694 meG3450 a greatG3173 voice,G5456 asG5613 of a trumpet,G4536
The word "Lord's" (translit. koine Greek "kuriake") is an Adjective - Dative - Singular - Feminine.
This means, in context, it is being used as a 'possessive' ("of", see 1 Corinthians 11:20, "the Lord's supper"), which means the "day" in context belongs to "the Lord".? It is literally "the Lord's (belonging to) day".
This means, that the "day" in context is uniquely "the Lord's" out of all the 7 days of the week, for the day under consideration is that which exists within the week, as a day which repeats weekly.
This is extremely important, as those who incorrectly assume it to mean "the first [day] of the week" in lieu of Jesus' resurrection, cannot get a weekly occurrence out of a one-time event, in fulfilment of typology of the Firstfruit/Wavesheaf in Leviticus 23:9-14, as made known in 1 Corinthians 15:20,23..
This is not as the phrase "day of the Lord" ([h]emera kyriou) which is written in the genitive masculine case (see 2 Peter 3:10, etc, and also so called septuaginta uses).
In Isaiah 58:13 we read of "the Lord's holy day", which refers to the seventh day of the week, the sabbath of the Lord.
In the rest of Isaiah, when he refers, by inspiration of the Holy Ghost, to "the Day of the LORD", it is always in a differing phrase and context. See:
Isaiah 2:12, 13:6,9, 34:8
Others say it like this:
"the day of the LORD"
Jeremiah 46:10
Lamentations 2:22
Ezekiel 13:5, 30:3
Joel 1:15, 2:1,11,31, 3:14
Amos 5:18,20
Obadiah 1:15
Zephaniah 1:7,8,14,18, 2:2,3, 14:1
Malachi 4:5
Acts 2:20
1 Corinthians 5:5
2 Corinthians 1:14
1 Thessalonians 5:2
2 Peter 3:10
"the day of their calamity"
Deuteronomy 32:35
"the day of vengeance"
Proverbs 6:34
"the day of the LORD's anger"
Lamentations 2:22
"day of the LORD's vengeance"
Isaiah 34:8
"the day of vengeance of our God"
Isaiah 61:2
"the day of vengeance"
Isaiah 63:4
"the day of the LORD's wrath"
Zephaniah 1:18
"Day of God"
2 Peter 3:12
"great day of God Almighty"
Revelation 16:14
The Day Of The LORD:
Deuteronomy 31:17-18,?1 Samuel 3:12, 8:18, 1 Kings 22:25, 22:35, 2 Chronicles 18:24, 18:34, Job 3:3-4, 21:30, Psalms 110:5, Isaiah 2:11-12, 17, 20,3:7, 3:18, 4:1-2, 5:30, 7:18, 21, 23, 10:20, 27, 32, 11:10-11, 16, 12:1, 4, 13:6, 9, 13, 17:4, 7, 9, 19:18-19,21, 23-24, 20:6, 22:12, 20,25, 23:15, 24:21, 25:9, 26:1, 27:1-2, 12-13, 28:5, 19, 29:18 30:23, 25, 31:7, 34:8, 52:6, 58:5, 61:2, 63:4, 66:8, Jeremiah?1:10, 4:9, 25:33, 30:8, 31:6, 39:17, 49:22, 26, Lamentations 1:12, 2:1, 21-22, Ezekiel 7:7, 12, 19, 13:5, 22:24, 24:27, 27:27, 29:21, 30:3, 9, 18, 38:14, 19, 39:11, 22, 48:35, Hosea 1:5, 11, 2:16, 18, 21, 5:9, 9:5?, Joel 1:15, 2:1-2, 11, 2:31, 3:14, 18, Amos 1:14, 2:16, 3:14, 5:18, 20, 8:3, 9-10, 13, 9:11, Obadiah 1:8, 15, Micah 2:4, 3:6, 4:6, 5:10, 7:11-12, Nahum 3:17, Habakkuk 3:16, Zephaniah 1:7, 8, 9, 10, 14, 15, 16, 18, 2:2-3, 3:8, 11, 16, Zechariah 2:11, 3:9, 10, 9:16, 11:11, 12:3, 4, 6, 8, 9, 12, 13:1, 2, 4, 14:1, 3, 14:4, 6, 7, 8, 9, 13, 20, 21, Malachi 3:2, 17, 4:1, 3, 5, Matthew 7:22, 10:15, 11:22, 24, 12:36, 24:36, 50, 25:13, Mark 6:11,13:32, Luke 6:23, 10:12, 17:24, 30, 31, 21:34, John 6:39, 40, 44, 54, 8:56, 11:24, 14:20, 16:23, 26, Romans 2:5, 16, 13:12, 1 Corinthians 1:8, 3:13, 5:5,?2 Corinthians 1:14, Philippians 1:6, 10, 2:16, 1 Thessalonians 5:2, 4, 2 Thessalonians 1:10, 2:2, 3, 2 Timothy 1:12, 18, 4:8, Hebrews 10:25, James 5:5, 1 Peter 2:12, 2 Peter 2:9, 3:7, 10, 12,?1 John 4:17, Jude 1:6, and Revelation 6:17, 16:14, 18:8.
In Latin (Jerome's), we see it similarly used in Exodus 20 (Latin is without the definite article, as Latin does not use definite articles):
Rev 1:10? fui in spiritu in dominica die et audivi post me vocem magnam tamquam tubae
Exo 20:8? memento ut diem sabbati sanctifices
Exo 20:9? sex diebus operaberis et facies omnia opera tua
Exo 20:10? septimo autem die sabbati Domini Dei tui non facies omne opus tu et filius tuus et filia tua servus tuus et ancilla tua iumentum tuum et advena qui est intra portas tuas
Exo 20:11? sex enim diebus fecit Dominus caelum et terram et mare et omnia quae in eis sunt et requievit in die septimo idcirco benedixit Dominus diei sabbati et sanctificavit eum
Which is akin to Genesis' "God's day":
Gen 2:1? igitur perfecti sunt caeli et terra et omnis ornatus eorum
Gen 2:2? conplevitque Deus die septimo opus suum quod fecerat et requievit die septimo ab universo opere quod patrarat
Gen 2:3? et benedixit diei septimo et sanctificavit illum quia in ipso cessaverat ab omni opere suo quod creavit Deus ut faceret
Whereas the differing apocalyptic day, "the day of the Lord" in Latin is "dies Domini" as in Zephaniah 1:14:
Zep 1:14? iuxta est dies Domini magnus iuxta et velox nimis vox diei Domini amara tribulabitur ibi fortis
In Isaiah 58:13, we read of a "day" that "the Lord" specifically calls "my day":
Isa 58:13? If thou turn away thy foot from the sabbath, from doing thy pleasure on my holy day; and call the sabbath a delight, the holy of the LORD, honourable; and shalt honour him, not doing thine own ways, nor finding thine own pleasure, nor speaking thine own words:
In many translations of Isaiah 58:13 we read that the 7th day, the sabbath of the Lord, is said to be "the Lord's holy day", with the word holy being another adjective, while the "Lord's" is possessive. - Isaiah 58:13 - see Bible Gateway's translation listing. - https:/
Thus when reading Isaiah 58:13 with simple pronoun substitution, it would read "... the ... [Lord's] day ...", just as it does in Exodus 20:8-11.
Exo 20:8? Remember the sabbath day, to keep it holy.
Exo 20:9? Six days shalt thou labour, and do all thy work:
Exo 20:10? But the seventh day is the sabbath of the LORD thy God: in it thou shalt not do any work, thou, nor thy son, nor thy daughter, thy manservant, nor thy maidservant, nor thy cattle, nor thy stranger that is within thy gates:
Exo 20:11? For in six days the LORD made heaven and earth, the sea, and all that in them is, and rested the seventh day: wherefore the LORD blessed the sabbath day, and hallowed it.
In Genesis we see why this day is uniquely "Gods'", or "the Lord's" day, for in it God rested.? This is the reason Jesus could say:
Mat 12:8? For the Son of man is Lord even of the sabbath day.
For in that He created in Genesis, and rested, Colossians 1:16.
Further, we can see some honest persons, among the many commentators that like to simply assume their a priori into the text, or to place future definition back into the text, from non-scriptural materials.
Peter Pett's commentary makes this accurate note:
"... Sunday is not called ?the Lord?s day? (he kyriake hemera) anywhere in Scripture ..." .
Dr. Thomas Constable likewise states the same truth:
"... The New Testament writers never called Sunday the Lord"s day elsewhere in Scripture. ..." .
Richard Chenevix Trench has stated on record, and accurately that:
"... ?Some have assumed, from this passage, that ἡμέρα κυριακή was a designation of Sunday already familiar among Christians. This, however, seems a mistake ..." .
Likewise, Foy E Wallace states:
"... It is not a reference to the first day of the week ..." .
The context shows that the "day" spoken of, in each texts presented is "the LORD('s)". John as a physical Jew, who was following the Messiah (Jesus), thus a Christian, was on the Isle of Patmos, for what reason?
Rev 1:2 Who bare record of the word of God, and of the testimony of Jesus Christ, and of all things that he saw.
Rev 1:9 I John, who also am your brother, and companion in tribulation, and in the kingdom and patience of Jesus Christ, was in the isle that is called Patmos, for the word of God, and for the testimony of Jesus Christ.​
It is even given in other places:
Rev_6:9 And when he had opened the fifth seal, I saw under the altar the souls of them that were slain for the word of God, and for the testimony which they held:
Rev_20:4 And I saw thrones, and they sat upon them, and judgment was given unto them: and I saw the souls of them that were beheaded for the witness of Jesus, and for the word of God, and which had not worshipped the beast, neither his image, neither had received his mark upon their foreheads, or in their hands; and they lived and reigned with Christ a thousand years.​
Please notice those two things in connection with the seal of God and the counterfeit (aka, Mark of the Beast.
What is this "word of God" and the "testimony/witness of Jesus"? We do not have to in any way guess, for John tells us in parallel fashion:
Rev 12:17 And the dragon was wroth with the woman, and went to make war with the remnant of her seed, which keep the commandments of God, and have the testimony of Jesus Christ.​
This is found way back in the OT:
Deu_4:2 Ye shall not add unto the word which I command you, neither shall ye diminish ought from it, that ye may keep the commandments of the LORD your God which I command you.​
So, when John references "the Lord's day", it is in the context of "the word of God", which are God's Commandments. Well, which commandment then? Again, we do not have to guess, for John tells us:
Rev 14:7 Saying with a loud voice, Fear God, and give glory to him; for the hour of his judgment is come: and worship him that made heaven, and earth, and the sea, and the fountains of waters.
Rev 14:12 Here is the patience of the saints: here are they that keep the commandments of God, and the faith of Jesus.​
What specific commandment, was John citing? The 4th Commandment, specifically, Exodus 20:11,
Exo 20:11 For in six days the LORD made heaven and earth, the sea, and all that in them is, and rested the seventh day: wherefore the LORD blessed the sabbath day, and hallowed it.​
The whole Commandment:
Exo 20:8 Remember the sabbath day, to keep it holy.
Exo 20:9 Six days shalt thou labour, and do all thy work:
Exo 20:10 But the seventh day is the sabbath of the LORD thy God: in it thou shalt not do any work, thou, nor thy son, nor thy daughter, thy manservant, nor thy maidservant, nor thy cattle, nor thy stranger that is within thy gates:
Exo 20:11 For in six days the LORD made heaven and earth, the sea, and all that in them is, and rested the seventh day: wherefore the LORD blessed the sabbath day, and hallowed it.​
That little word "of" is possessive. Thus when God speaks, by His own voice, the He (the LORD) has chosen a specific (definite article) "day", it is thus "the LORD('s) ... day", being His sabbath, the 7th day, from the foundation of the world in Genesis 2:1-3,4, where therein it is "God('s; the LORD's) ... day".
The "word of God" = God's commandments (see the parallelism):
Isa_1:10 Hear the word of the LORD, ye rulers of Sodom; give ear unto the law of our God, ye people of Gomorrah.​
and the "testimony of Jesus" is the Spirit of prophecy (Revelation 19:10), and as found all throughout scripture:
2Ki_17:13 Yet the LORD testified against Israel, and against Judah, by all the prophets, and by all the seers, saying, Turn ye from your evil ways, and keep my commandments and my statutes, according to all the law which I commanded your fathers, and which I sent to you by my servants the prophets.
Psa_19:7 The law of the LORD is perfect, converting the soul: the testimony of the LORD is sure, making wise the simple.
Psa_78:5 For he established a testimony in Jacob, and appointed a law in Israel, which he commanded our fathers, that they should make them known to their children
Pro_29:18 Where there is no vision, the people perish: but he that keepeth the law, happy is he.
:
Isa_8:16 Bind up the testimony, seal the law among my disciples.
Isa_8:20 To the law and to the testimony: if they speak not according to this word, it is because there is no light in them.
Lam_2:9 Her gates are sunk into the ground; he hath destroyed and broken her bars: her king and her princes are among the Gentiles: the law is no more; her prophets also find no vision from the LORD.
Eze_7:26 Mischief shall come upon mischief, and rumour shall be upon rumour; then shall they seek a vision of the prophet; but the law shall perish from the priest, and counsel from the ancients.
Mat_22:40 On these two commandments hang all the law and the prophets.
Rom_3:21 But now the righteousness of God without the law is manifested, being witnessed by the law and the prophets;​
Therefore, notice again the connection of the Apostle and prophet John, who receives a "vision", in connection with keeping God's commandments, and was resting specifically on "the LORD's day":
Rev 1:10 I was in the Spirit on the Lord's day, and heard behind me a great voice, as of a trumpet,​
The Law (Lord's day) and the testimony (spirit of prophecy) again are witnessed therein in its proper context.
It always speaks of the 7th day the sabbath of the LORD, His holy day.
Line upon line, and no need for a single non-scriptural source to re-define by the man of sin's tradition.
Some have said that "the Lord's day" is simply unique, and that if John (in Revelation 1:10) had meant "sabbath" he would have written "sabbath". This is actually presumption, based upon a false a priori, about what certain individuals themselves think the Holy Ghost/Spirit ought to have inspired John to write. Beware, that is a very dangerous path to take. They also say that "sabbath" is always called "sabbath" in the NT.
Actually, No. The "sabbath" is called "sabbath" in the NT, that is for certain:
Matthew 12:1,2,5,8,10,11,12, 24:20, 28:1;
Mark 1:21, 2:23,24,27,28, 3:2,4, 6:2, 7:6-9, 15:42, 16:1;
Luke 4:16,31, 6:1,2,5,6,7,9, 13:10,14,15,16, 14:1,3,5, 23:54,56;
John 5:9,10,16,18, 7:22,23, 9:14,16, 12:1 (calculated), 19:31;
Acts 1:2, 13:14,27,42,44, 15:21, 16:13, 17:2, 18:4;​
Yet, it is also called God's "rest":
Hebrews 3:11,18, 4:1,3,4,5,8,9,10,11​
It is also called "the seventh day":
Hebrews 4:4​
It is called "the seventh":
Hebrews 4:4​
It is also referred to as being "according to the commandment":
Luke 23:56​
It is also referred to as the culmination of the 7 day week:
Matthew 28:1(a) - (Transliterated) oye de sabbatwn
Matthew 28:1(b) - (Transliterated) eiV mian sabbatwn
Mark 16:2 - (Transliterated) kai lian prwi ths mias sabbatwn
Mark 16:9 - (Transliterated) anastas de prwi prwth sabbatou
Luke 24:1 - (Transliterated) th de mia twn sabbatwn
John 20:1 - (Transliterated) th de mia twn sabbatwn
John 20:19 - (Transliterated) th mia twn sabbatwn
Acts 20:7 - (Transliterated) en de th mia twn sabbatwn
1 Corinthians 16:2 - (Transliterated) kata mian sabbatwn​
It is also referred to as "the day (that is approaching in the week (also the great Cosmic final day, dual use)"
Hebrews 10:25​
All of which terms are also used in the OT, as the OT and NT are in perfect harmony.
The Phrase "the Lord's day" is found in use in the OT, as shown from Isaiah 58:13, etc. John is not making up any novel (new) idea, but the Holy Ghost is inspiring and citing from the OT scriptures, as is done all over Revelation 1. Called an "epanados" or Chiasm:
(1) Isaiah 55:4 --> Revelation 1:5 (Witness)
(2) Daniel 7:13 --> Revelation 1:7 (Coming with Clouds of angels)
(3) Zechariah 12:10-14 --> Revelation 1:7 (Pierced and Wail)
(4) Isaiah 41:4,6 --> Revelation 1:8 (I AM)
(5) Isaiah 58:13 --> Revelation 1:10 (The Lord's day)
(4) Isaiah 41:4,6 --> Revelation 1:11 (I AM)​
(3) Zechariah 4:2 --> Revelation 1:12 (Candlestick, Sanctuary, Holy Place)​
(2) Daniel 7:9,13,22 --> Revelation 1:13-15 (Priest)​
(1) Isaiah 49:2 --> Revelation 1:16 (Sharp Sword)​
Revelation 1:10 is simply citing Isaiah 58:13 in the midst of the parallelism from the OT.
Isaiah 58:13
KJB - "... my [context, the LORD's] holy day ..."
CJB - ?... Adonai?s holy day ..."
ERV - "... the Lord?s special day ..."
EXB - ?... the Lord?s holy day ..."
GW - "... the Lord?s holy day ..."
ICB - ?... the Lord?s holy day ..."
ISV - "... the Lord?s holy day ..."
TLB - "... the Lord?s holy day ..."
MSG - "... God?s holy day ..."
NOG - "... Yahweh?s holy day ..."
NABRE - "... the Lord?s holy day ..."
NCV - "... the Lord?s holy day ..."
NET - "... the Lord?s holy day ..."
NIRV - "... the Lord?s holy day ..."
NIV - "... the Lord?s holy day ..."
NIVUK - "... the Lord?s holy day ..."
NLT - "... the Lord?s holy day ..."
TPT - "... Yahweh?s holy day ..."