Is the Hell Doctrine depicted in the TYPE (Laws of Moses)?

Posted By: Elle

Is the Hell Doctrine depicted in the TYPE (Laws of Moses)? - 06/08/11 11:37 AM

NJK asked an important question and I think it deserves a thread of it’s own.
Originally Posted By: NJK
Elle, as I had asked/posed/requested to/from you in Post #132876, (as it also came to my attention in a recent Doug Batchelor sermon comment against “predestination” [31:49-33:47]):
Since the Bible clearly states that ‘God is not willing that anyone should perish’ (Matt 18:14; 2 Pet 3:9), then why do so many, even the vast majority, do die in clearly unsaved, even either explicitly or implictly ‘God cursing’ states (= John 3:16b’s “not believing”). Indeed God’s many judgements against wicked people cement that “lost death state” fact.


We read the Bible and mold our views to the light we currently have. So our view of predestination as Doug Batchelor express can only reflect our current understanding which overall we believe that the vast majority will burn in a literal lake of fire as written in Rev 20.

But I will appeal to you, that any understanding or view we currently possess or hear from others have to be tested against the TYPE that God gave to mankind in the Pentateuch.

In it lays all the foundation of God’s mind & heart concerning the plan of salvation. The prophets are tested according to this type and if they do not speak accordingly, then they are to be discarded as False prophets. When a Prophets speak and prophecy, it will always be an application of the Type. Prophets are not the TYPE and do not lay up new TYPE. God speak to them indirectly via dreams and visions whereas what was spoken to Moses was a clear direct statement as God explained to Aaron and Myriam in Num 12:6 "And he said, Hear now my words: If there be a prophet among you, [I] the LORD will make myself known unto him in a vision, [and] will speak unto him in a dream. 7. My servant Moses [is] not so, who [is] faithful in all mine house. 8. With him will I speak mouth to mouth, even apparently, and not in dark speeches; and the similitude of the LORD shall he behold: wherefore then were ye not afraid to speak against my servant Moses? "

God gaved to mankind ONE TYPE and there’s no other, and it is found in the Pentateuch.
Originally Posted By: egw
Now, if never before we should see that where there is a type there is also an antitype, and that WHERE THERE IS NO TYPE, THERE IS NO TRUTH. 1TG 46:15

I agree with EGW when she said, if there’s no TYPE there’s no truth. So the the TYPE is given to us so we can know the Truth.

Question : Do we have a TYPE in the Law of Moses to backup what we currently assume in regards to “the vast majority to die”? Or in another word, is the Hell fire doctrine Truth? In that doctrine we assumed that the lake of fire is literal? Why shouldn’t it be taken figuratively?

Let’s exercise to search from the foundation where God gave us His truth.
Posted By: Mountain Man

Re: Is the Hell Doctrine depicted in the TYPE (Laws of Moses)? - 06/08/11 07:15 PM

1. The altar of burnt offering links sin, sinners, and hellfire.
2. Unpardoned sinners were led out of the camp with the scapegoat on the day of atonement.
Posted By: NJK Project

Re: Is the Hell Doctrine depicted in the TYPE (Laws of Moses)? - 06/09/11 12:53 AM

Limiting types to only the law of Moses is, as confirmed by exegesis, not accurate as even God’s dealings with, and the experiences of, Israel recorded in those books, as well as the rest of the OT, even NT with NT Israel, serves as types and examples (e.g., Early Rain, 70 A.D. destruction). E.g, 1 Cor 10:11 (“example” Greek typikos #5917a; cf. the uses of #5917b hyptypikos in e.g., 1 Cor 10:6; Rom 5:14; 1 Thess 1:7; 2 Thess 3:9; 1 Tim 4:12; Tit 2:7; 1 Pet 5:3).

I see that there are plenty of examples and legislations in the OT and 5 first books that the fate of those who will continue in sin will not only be an eternal consequence of death, but given the many alternative “humane” (i.e., painless) ways that I person could be put to death (e.g., secretly poisoning them just before they go to sleep), will also involve physical suffering along with inculcated mental anguish. (Just think of the anguish of seeing hundreds of people holding stones that they will soon hurl on you and as it won’t instantly kill you, you will physically feel each blow. Indeed they’ll only stop when it is manifest that you have finally, actually, died)

Also Jesus and other NT Writers understood the destruction of Sodom and Gomorrah as a type of God’s final judgement on the wicked. (Lu 17:28-30; 2 Peter 2:6 = “a figure”; cf. Jude 1:7 “exhibited as a /[carbon copy]proof”; cf. Heb 8:5; 9:23 “copy”; James 5:10)

God’s other judgements in the Bible, some of them, when He directly did them, and no mercy was to be granted, by fire, and which were actually more severe when more light was available and rejected are also examples of the final judgement. (Cf. Luke 12:47, 48).
Posted By: Rosangela

Re: Is the Hell Doctrine depicted in the TYPE (Laws of Moses)? - 06/09/11 10:46 PM

Quote:
Or in another word, is the Hell fire doctrine Truth? In that doctrine we assumed that the lake of fire is literal? Why shouldn’t it be taken figuratively?

In which way? Are you thinking in terms of people dying the second death but not by fire?
Posted By: Daryl

Re: Is the Hell Doctrine depicted in the TYPE (Laws of Moses)? - 06/15/11 05:53 PM

Bumping this, as I am looking for Elle's response to your question.

Originally Posted By: Rosangela
Quote:
Or in another word, is the Hell fire doctrine Truth? In that doctrine we assumed that the lake of fire is literal? Why shouldn’t it be taken figuratively?

In which way? Are you thinking in terms of people dying the second death but not by fire?
Posted By: Kevin H

Re: Is the Hell Doctrine depicted in the TYPE (Laws of Moses)? - 06/16/11 06:30 PM

I have been wanting to visit this site, yes, hell fire is in the types of the law of Moses, but more than just types, it is some of the most detailed and clearist texts about hell fire in the entire scriptures, and we run into trouble when we don't use these text to interpet the later texts. I need to look up even more references, but one very important one is Deuteronomy 4: 24 For the Lord They God is a consuuming fire, even a jealous God.

We find the fire on the burning bush. The saved will be like the bush, living in the fire but not consumed by it (while the lost are consummed by it)

The Pillar of fire by night is hell fire

The fire on Mt. Sinai when God gave the 10 commandaments is hell fire

Exodus 24:9-11 Moses Aaron, Nadab and Abihu and 70 elders entered hell fire, but not the full force as they must not have seen God's face, since Moses wanting to see even more in Exodus 33 and 34 33:20 says And he said, Thou canst not see my face: for there shall no man see me, and live.

Through Santification we grow to the point where we can see God's face and live in heaven. At the end everyone, both the saved and the lost see the same thing that Moses saw from the cleft of the rock, except that we get to see God's face as well with the resulting consequenses of either being regenerated through Christ or expirencing this from a non-regenerated perspective.

Yes, the lake of fire is literal and symbolic, but we have made it something that is not what the Pentituch taught. We turn it into lava or what we get when we light a match and have it sepperate from God. This fire is a symbol of the literal, visible pressence of God in person. It is seeing Jesus not veiled by humanity.

It is not a place of torcture, some kind of divine spanking where God takes folk and roasts them and toasts them and they die in a big barbecue. God has been hiding, letting us only expirence enough of him to stay alive, and sometimes, like with prophets, a bit more, but as Moses was not yet able to see God's face and live, so God hid him in the cleft of the rock. God has limited his glory to where it would not kill us. At the end it will not be limited and veiled. We will either be consumed by this fire, or we will be like the bush in the fire but not consummed and Moses only that we will be able to see God's face.

Moses is and Aaron will enjoy the expirence of Exodus 24 again, but sadly it appears that Nadab and Abihu has changed for the worst and when they return to the Exodus 24 expirence they will find their response very different than it was in Exodus 24.
I hope this helps.
Posted By: NJK Project

Re: Is the Hell Doctrine depicted in the TYPE (Laws of Moses)? - 06/16/11 07:15 PM

Kevin H, without going into specific details, given my, (according to my understanding), paramount Bible and SOP examples below, I don’t find your exposition above, in most parts, or as an entire whole, to be Biblically accurate/correct.

E.g., How does it reconcile with e.g., Jesus’ statement in Luke 12:47-50; and the (moreover, visionary) statements in the SOP such as:

Originally Posted By: SOP GC 673
"Every battle of the warrior is with confused noise, and garments rolled in blood; but this shall be with burning and fuel of fire." "The indignation of the Lord is upon all nations, and His fury upon all their armies: He hath utterly destroyed them, He hath delivered them to the slaughter." "Upon the wicked He shall rain quick burning coals, fire and brimstone and an horrible tempest: this shall be the portion of their cup." Isaiah 9:5; 34:2; Psalm 11:6, margin. Fire comes down from God out of heaven. The earth is broken up. The weapons concealed in its depths are drawn forth. Devouring flames burst from every yawning chasm. The very rocks are on fire. The day has come that shall burn as an oven. The elements melt with fervent heat, the earth also, and the works that are therein are burned up. Malachi 4:1; 2 Peter 3:10. The earth's surface seems one molten mass--a vast, seething lake of fire. It is the time of the judgment and perdition of ungodly men--"the day of the Lord's vengeance, and the year of recompenses for the controversy of Zion." Isaiah 34:8. {GC 672.2}

The wicked receive their recompense in the earth. Proverbs 11:31. They "shall be stubble: and the day that cometh shall burn them up, saith the Lord of hosts." Malachi 4:1. Some are destroyed as in a moment, while others suffer many days. All are punished "according to their deeds." The sins of the righteous having been transferred to Satan, he is made to suffer not only for his own rebellion, but for all the sins which he has caused God's people to commit. His punishment is to be far greater than that of those whom he has deceived. After all have perished who fell by his deceptions, he is still to live and suffer on. In the cleansing flames the wicked are at last destroyed, root and branch--Satan the root, his followers the branches. The full penalty of the law has been visited; the demands of justice have been met; and heaven and earth, beholding, declare the righteousness of Jehovah. {GC 673.1}

While the earth was wrapped in the fire of destruction, the righteous abode safely in the Holy City. Upon those that had part in the first resurrection, the second death has no power. While God is to the wicked a consuming fire, He is to His people both a sun and a shield. Revelation 20:6; Psalm 84:11.


The destruction of Sodom and Gomorrah is also an explicitly associated type of Hell, i.e., God’s Final Judgement on the wicked (Luke 17:28-30; 2 Peter 2:6 = “a figure”; cf. Jude 1:7) that does not point to something figurative.

Also it must be kept in mind that the use of fire is basically out of a concrete necessity to purify the earth of sin and sinners. Just like God needed to use a “violent wind” to forcefully bury the many bodies of humans and animals after the flood (PP 107.4-108.2), in order to avoid a disease outbreak, He will likewise need to expunge sin from the earth. (And, as normative with fire, it is the “smoke” from that burning that will linger in the universe for a while after that Rev 14:10, 11 e.g., the lingering smoke after the 9/11 WTC destruction, and also, in a “nuclear winter” scenario (i.e., following the detonation of many nuclear bombs over large cities, it is actually the smoke from the (instant) burning of various tangible flammable things in that city (e.g., buildings, vegetation, etc) that produce this ‘sunlight-obstructing cloud of smoke’.)

All this to say that God is not using fire merely for reasons of being as hurtful as possible, but because there is a tangible purifying necessity which He has to deal with and this is the best way to do so. However, He does also justly deal with the tangible reality of His wrath on sin and sinners at that time.
Posted By: Kevin H

Re: Is the Hell Doctrine depicted in the TYPE (Laws of Moses)? - 06/17/11 10:30 AM

May I make reference to the last line of your quote from Mrs. White which is the essence: While God is to the wicked a consuming fire, He is to His people both a sun and a shield. Revelation 20:6; Psalm 84:11.

She also says "The Glory of him that is love will destroy the wicked"

Dr. Kenneth Hart from Loma Linda has a wonderful complatation of all he could find of what Mrs. White says about it. It is amazing how much she does have to say and the direction that it goes to.

Also read in Desire of Ages "It is Finished"

Once you start to notice this theam in Mrs. White you find that she is full of allusions towards the view of hell that we find in the Pentituch.

Yes, Sodom and Gomorrah is a type, but we find the other passessages the anti-type. God, God's beauty, God's love, God's glory is the eternal fire.
Posted By: NJK Project

Re: Is the Hell Doctrine depicted in the TYPE (Laws of Moses)? - 06/17/11 04:05 PM

Originally Posted By: Kevin H
May I make reference to the last line of your quote from Mrs. White which is the essence: While God is to the wicked a consuming fire, He is to His people both a sun and a shield. Revelation 20:6; Psalm 84:11.

She also says "The Glory of him that is love will destroy the wicked"


This is particularly my point in regards to having proper exegesis. EGW has just made a detailed exposition on the literalness in the destruction of the wicked, all summarized in her statement as depicted to her by God in vision: “while the earth was wrapped in the fire of destruction”, however you seemingly are not taking this into consideration to maintain this previous claim that:

Originally Posted By: Kevin H
the lake of fire is literal and symbolic, but we have made it something that is not what the Pentituch taught. We turn it into lava or what we get when we light a match and have it sepperate from God. This fire is a symbol of the literal, visible pressence of God in person. It is seeing Jesus not veiled by humanity.


You are incorrectly using that last statement to paint the previous literal statements, when that is not to be the exegetical case. The certain is always to define the less certain. So in this case, it is thus seen that the “glory of God” are being made in figurative/proverbial/theological terms, yet, as the Bible and SOP clearly reveal, the effectuation of this “figure” will be manifested in literal/tangible elements, in this case fire. So these “glory of God” statements are only indicative of “why” this destruction will take place (cf. e.g., Isa 48:9-11; 42:8) and not concretely to “how” and “by what means” it will be realized.

Originally Posted By: Kevin H
Dr. Kenneth Hart from Loma Linda has a wonderful complatation of all he could find of what Mrs. White says about it. It is amazing how much she does have to say and the direction that it goes to.


Do you have a specific link to that material, presumably, from his website?

Originally Posted By: Kevin H
Also read in Desire of Ages "It is Finished"


In a related discussion, I have done an exposition on that entire chapter. See here (Post #132171). (Further comments are made in followup posts). I there also do not see/agree that this is either the tangible way in which God does this destruction, nor that such a “self-combustible” destruction is achievable in these 6000+ years of GC during which God’s counterbalancing presence, through His Spirit, has prevented the full maturing/blooming of sin to that needed “critical mass” stage.

Originally Posted By: Kevin H
Once you start to notice this theam in Mrs. White you find that she is full of allusions towards the view of hell that we find in the Pentituch.


In those plausible Pentateuch examples of “Hell fire” (which I actually merely see as ‘God’s control over fire that He uses’) that you cite, namely: the burning bush; the pillar of fire by night; the fire on Mt. Sinai during 10C; an actual, literal fire was used. The fact that it did not consume what it was lighted upon is merely due to the fact that God was causing it not to be consumed. Indeed, and contrary to what you had said, the wicked will varyingly live in Hell’s fire for a while, until God deems that they have paid the full penalty for their sins. Then they will be, at different times, consumed by that literal fire.

And “seeing the face of God” and/or “His (frontal) Glory” is symbolic of more clearly understanding God. (Cf. here (Post #131957) and in Post #132171). And only those who have lived righteous lives and have no remaining sins on their ledger, can have this fuller revelation/understanding and not have nothing to be held accountable. That concept is repeatedly seen in judicial settings, where a person may be cleared as innocent of their accusation(s) if they had acted in genuine ignorance of what the law was and/or did not actually do that wrong. (That “innocence” is what occurs when Jesus’s blood is allowed to be applied to the sinner).

Originally Posted By: Kevin H
Yes, Sodom and Gomorrah is a type, but we find the other passessages the anti-type. God, God's beauty, God's love, God's glory is the eternal fire.


The actual effectuation of Hell is the only anti-type to Hell. I.e., what it will actually be. Everyhting else is a type. (God’s “control of fire” when He makes use of it is a distinct issue). Passages which speak of ‘God’s beauty, love and glory’ are merely figurative indications as to why (i.e., what will justify) God will tangibly light that final Hell fire. Indeed it is because of His Beauty, Love (for the righteous), and Glory that the universe must ultimately be thoroughly purged from sin and sinners. Still, in doing this, God has to deal with concrete realities, and that is why the element of “fire” is the best option to do so, indeed for the same “realistic/tangible” reason why a Physical War was needed to, in a self-determined, objective manner, resolve the issue in Heaven and determine then who would occupy Heaven as a headquarter.*

*That decision is seen to be even more just and fair when it is taken into due/realistic consideration that they Devil and the cast out Angels literally have absolutely no place to live in this universe. (Perhaps only occasionally resting on asteroids until they disintegrate.) The Devil is called the prince and power of the air because he does have to constantly fly around the universe. So God afforded him a fair chance to have a concrete domain.
Posted By: Kevin H

Re: Is the Hell Doctrine depicted in the TYPE (Laws of Moses)? - 06/18/11 05:19 AM

I understand much of the other to be Mrs. White's use of symbolic writing, maybe even from her sources, for a running natative and the phrases you see as symbolic I understand as her giving what the symbolic language symbolizes.

Now this has been a debate in the church since before we were born. Elder, I think his last name is Fifefield taught this. He was a friend of Mrs. White's and we do not have record of her correcting his error, but her in such as those phrases you see as more symbolic and I see her as explaining the symbolism, she appears to use her ideas. Lynn Harper Wood developed this in the 1920s. Paul Heubech was one of Wood's students and would teach this. Edwin Heppenstall could not decide between the two views. A number of our leading theologians in the 1950s held this view including some who contributed to the SDABC. And even before Adventism, while I have not seen enought to convince me, I've seen evidence and heard people argue that William Tyndal had a similar if not same view of hell fire as Fifefield, Wood, Heubech and others taught. We need to keep studying and be fair to our understanding of the Bible and Mrs. White.
Posted By: NJK Project

Re: Is the Hell Doctrine depicted in the TYPE (Laws of Moses)? - 06/18/11 06:32 AM

Originally Posted By: Kevin H
I understand much of the other to be Mrs. White's use of symbolic writing, maybe even from her sources, for a running natative and the phrases you see as symbolic I understand as her giving what the symbolic language symbolizes.


I can’t figure out what you mean here. Please restate it.

Originally Posted By: Kevin H
Now this has been a debate in the church since before we were born. Elder, I think his last name is Fifefield taught this. He was a friend of Mrs. White's and we do not have record of her correcting his error, but her in such as those phrases you see as more symbolic and I see her as explaining the symbolism, she appears to use her ideas. Lynn Harper Wood developed this in the 1920s. Paul Heubech was one of Wood's students and would teach this. Edwin Heppenstall could not decide between the two views. A number of our leading theologians in the 1950s held this view including some who contributed to the SDABC. And even before Adventism, while I have not seen enought to convince me, I've seen evidence and heard people argue that William Tyndal had a similar if not same view of hell fire as Fifefield, Wood, Heubech and others taught. We need to keep studying and be fair to our understanding of the Bible and Mrs. White.


As for this history of this other view in the SDA Church, I determining truth by in depth current studies and not by such “traditional” understandings. Indeed I have corrected many things through the exegetical ways, that even my own (late 1990's) Andrews University teachers had taught me. The Bible, as it exegetically reads, is my final authority, followed by the direct revelations of EGW. So it would not surprise me if her own views are set right by it, as it occurs in several instances. (By the way you can find George Fifield’s “Character of God” work here. His work had been referred to me by Tom in my discussion on this subject with him, in that other thread.)
Posted By: Elle

Re: Is the Hell Doctrine depicted in the TYPE (Laws of Moses)? - 06/18/11 02:10 PM

Originally Posted By: Mountain Man
1. The altar of burnt offering links sin, sinners, and hellfire.
The burnt offering(the daily, and other burnt offerings made with other offerings like sin offerings) represented Jesus… Could you elaborate how you see this linking sin, sinners, and hellfire?

Originally Posted By: Mountain Man
2. Unpardoned sinners were led out of the camp with the scapegoat on the day of atonement.

First of all, the red heifer which represented Jesus, was killed and burnt outside the camp. So it was not only the sinners that were sent outside the camp.

Num 19: 2 “:2 This is the ordinance of the law which the LORD hath commanded, saying, Speak unto the children of Israel, that they bring thee a red heifer without spot, wherein is no blemish, and upon which never came yoke: 3 And ye shall give her unto Eleazar the priest, that he may bring her forth without the camp, and one shall slay her before his face:”

The Scapegoat of Lev 16

Concerning the scapegoat. The Scapegoat is misunderstood. I have posted Doug Goslin study at #Post 124209 here . At first I had misunderstood the meaning of the misunderstood scapegoat and thought that Jesus was Azazel, when according to the Masoretic Text, Jesus was the 2nd goat sent alive FOR Azazel, which I explain this below.

This became clear to me of my misunderstanding when some months ago, I decided to check the Hebrew literal translation of Lev 16:10. Here is what I discovered.

The Literal Hebrew translation of Lev 16:10

Before hand, let me explain in brief that there are two works of Christ to atone for the sins of the world.

1. Justification : accomplish/symbolized by His death
2. Sanctification: accomplish/symbolized by His ressurection and His work in us and His work in destroying the works of the Devil.

The death and resurection of Jesus depicts this two works. This works was reveal in the TYPE with the 2 doves ritual(one dead, the other alive).(Lev 14) The same is depicted in the TYPE with the 2 goats ritual(one dead, the other alive) (Lev. 16).

First of all you have to acknowledge that these two goats were both without blemish for the lot could of fell on either. Right there one of these goats couldn't represent Lucifer, for he is filled with blemish. Both of these animals were without blemish because both represented Christ and His two works to atone for the world.

Lev 16:10 "But the goat, on which the lot fell [to be the] (for) scapegoat, shall be presented alive before the Lord, to make an atonement with him, and to let him go [for a ] (to) scapegoat into the wilderness. "

Notice what I have put in bracket and highlight in red the inaccuracy of the translation. What is in parenthese and in green is what the litteral translation in the original text would say. Do look at the masoretic text with strong code available at www. scripture4all.org. I have their free software download on my computer, which is more detail than the one online. So I'm referring to their software.

Basically the translation error(& bias) is that the second goat was for Azazel and not to be Azazel.

Let me paraphrase from the literal text by only giving the literal translation provided by this software where I will supply the strong codes with it. Please go check the Masoretic text yourself at Scripture4All Link if you really want to be objective about this and know the truth about God's plan of salvation.

Lev 16:10 "But the goat, on which the lot fell over-him (5921) for-goat-of-departure (5799) shall be presented alive before the Lord, to make an atonement with him and to-send-away-of[/i] (7971) him (853) to-goat-of-departure (5799) the-wilderness-ward (4057)"

Above is the literal translation of the Hebrew are in bold and italic font. As you can see the goat that the lot fell on was FOR the scapegoat. It was not the scapegoat itself. And in the later half of the text, that goat (that the lot fell on) was sent away TO the scapegoat in the wilderness.

This was fufilled when Jesus was baptised(=death of 1st goat for the Lord) and then the Holy Spirit(the fit man) led him(live 2nd goat for Azazel) in the wilderness to be tempted by Satan(Azazel).
Posted By: Daryl

Re: Is the Hell Doctrine depicted in the TYPE (Laws of Moses)? - 06/25/11 04:56 AM

bump

Here I go bumping this again to keep it in the active list of topics to be read and responded to.
Posted By: Elle

Re: Is the Hell Doctrine depicted in the TYPE (Laws of Moses)? - 07/03/11 12:42 AM

I'm bumping this in case this got burried and you haven't read my reply to you MM.

Originally Posted By: Elle
Originally Posted By: Mountain Man
1. The altar of burnt offering links sin, sinners, and hellfire.
The burnt offering(the daily, and other burnt offerings made with other offerings like sin offerings) represented Jesus… Could you elaborate how you see this linking sin, sinners, and hellfire?

Originally Posted By: Mountain Man
2. Unpardoned sinners were led out of the camp with the scapegoat on the day of atonement.

First of all, the red heifer which represented Jesus, was killed and burnt outside the camp. So it was not only the sinners that were sent outside the camp.

Num 19: 2 “:2 This is the ordinance of the law which the LORD hath commanded, saying, Speak unto the children of Israel, that they bring thee a red heifer without spot, wherein is no blemish, and upon which never came yoke: 3 And ye shall give her unto Eleazar the priest, that he may bring her forth without the camp, and one shall slay her before his face:”

The Scapegoat of Lev 16

Concerning the scapegoat. The Scapegoat is misunderstood. I have posted Doug Goslin study at #Post 124209 here . At first I had misunderstood the meaning of the misunderstood scapegoat and thought that Jesus was Azazel, when according to the Masoretic Text, Jesus was the 2nd goat sent alive FOR Azazel, which I explain this below.

This became clear to me of my misunderstanding when some months ago, I decided to check the Hebrew literal translation of Lev 16:10. Here is what I discovered.

The Literal Hebrew translation of Lev 16:10

Before hand, let me explain in brief that there are two works of Christ to atone for the sins of the world.

1. Justification : accomplish/symbolized by His death
2. Sanctification: accomplish/symbolized by His ressurection and His work in us and His work in destroying the works of the Devil.

The death and resurection of Jesus depicts this two works. This works was reveal in the TYPE with the 2 doves ritual(one dead, the other alive).(Lev 14) The same is depicted in the TYPE with the 2 goats ritual(one dead, the other alive) (Lev. 16).

First of all you have to acknowledge that these two goats were both without blemish for the lot could of fell on either. Right there one of these goats couldn't represent Lucifer, for he is filled with blemish. Both of these animals were without blemish because both represented Christ and His two works to atone for the world.

Lev 16:10 "But the goat, on which the lot fell [to be the] (for) scapegoat, shall be presented alive before the Lord, to make an atonement with him, and to let him go [for a ] (to) scapegoat into the wilderness. "

Notice what I have put in bracket and highlight in red the inaccuracy of the translation. What is in parenthese and in green is what the litteral translation in the original text would say. Do look at the masoretic text with strong code available at www. scripture4all.org. I have their free software download on my computer, which is more detail than the one online. So I'm referring to their software.

Basically the translation error(& bias) is that the second goat was for Azazel and not to be Azazel.

Let me paraphrase from the literal text by only giving the literal translation provided by this software where I will supply the strong codes with it. Please go check the Masoretic text yourself at Scripture4All Link if you really want to be objective about this and know the truth about God's plan of salvation.

Lev 16:10 "But the goat, on which the lot fell over-him (5921) for-goat-of-departure (5799) shall be presented alive before the Lord, to make an atonement with him and to-send-away-of[/i] (7971) him (853) to-goat-of-departure (5799) the-wilderness-ward (4057)"

Above is the literal translation of the Hebrew are in bold and italic font. As you can see the goat that the lot fell on was FOR the scapegoat. It was not the scapegoat itself. And in the later half of the text, that goat (that the lot fell on) was sent away TO the scapegoat in the wilderness.

This was fufilled when Jesus was baptised(=death of 1st goat for the Lord) and then the Holy Spirit(the fit man) led him(live 2nd goat for Azazel) in the wilderness to be tempted by Satan(Azazel).
Posted By: Daryl

Re: Is the Hell Doctrine depicted in the TYPE (Laws of Moses)? - 07/10/11 12:22 AM

bump

As this is about to drop from the seven days active topics list, I am bumping this again.
Posted By: NJK Project

Re: Is the Hell Doctrine depicted in the TYPE (Laws of Moses)? - 07/10/11 01:15 AM

Perhaps, as I had Biblically pointed out in Post #134293, (which is still unanswered), this ‘Law of Moses (Gen-Deu) constraint’ is indeed an artificial (i.e., non-hermeneutical) one, and so this is effectively merely like, and just as futile as, ‘trying to disprove a negative’.
Posted By: Elle

Re: Is the Hell Doctrine depicted in the TYPE (Laws of Moses)? - 07/16/11 07:48 PM

MM, I would appreciate a respond if you can.

Originally Posted By: Elle
I'm bumping this in case this got burried and you haven't read my reply to you MM.

Originally Posted By: Elle
Originally Posted By: Mountain Man
1. The altar of burnt offering links sin, sinners, and hellfire.
The burnt offering(the daily, and other burnt offerings made with other offerings like sin offerings) represented Jesus… Could you elaborate how you see this linking sin, sinners, and hellfire?

Originally Posted By: Mountain Man
2. Unpardoned sinners were led out of the camp with the scapegoat on the day of atonement.

First of all, the red heifer which represented Jesus, was killed and burnt outside the camp. So it was not only the sinners that were sent outside the camp.

Num 19: 2 “:2 This is the ordinance of the law which the LORD hath commanded, saying, Speak unto the children of Israel, that they bring thee a red heifer without spot, wherein is no blemish, and upon which never came yoke: 3 And ye shall give her unto Eleazar the priest, that he may bring her forth without the camp, and one shall slay her before his face:”

The Scapegoat of Lev 16

Concerning the scapegoat. The Scapegoat is misunderstood. I have posted Doug Goslin study at #Post 124209 here . At first I had misunderstood the meaning of the misunderstood scapegoat and thought that Jesus was Azazel, when according to the Masoretic Text, Jesus was the 2nd goat sent alive FOR Azazel, which I explain this below.

This became clear to me of my misunderstanding when some months ago, I decided to check the Hebrew literal translation of Lev 16:10. Here is what I discovered.

The Literal Hebrew translation of Lev 16:10

Before hand, let me explain in brief that there are two works of Christ to atone for the sins of the world.

1. Justification : accomplish/symbolized by His death
2. Sanctification: accomplish/symbolized by His ressurection and His work in us and His work in destroying the works of the Devil.

The death and resurection of Jesus depicts this two works. This works was reveal in the TYPE with the 2 doves ritual(one dead, the other alive).(Lev 14) The same is depicted in the TYPE with the 2 goats ritual(one dead, the other alive) (Lev. 16).

First of all you have to acknowledge that these two goats were both without blemish for the lot could of fell on either. Right there one of these goats couldn't represent Lucifer, for he is filled with blemish. Both of these animals were without blemish because both represented Christ and His two works to atone for the world.

Lev 16:10 "But the goat, on which the lot fell [to be the] (for) scapegoat, shall be presented alive before the Lord, to make an atonement with him, and to let him go [for a ] (to) scapegoat into the wilderness. "

Notice what I have put in bracket and highlight in red the inaccuracy of the translation. What is in parenthese and in green is what the litteral translation in the original text would say. Do look at the masoretic text with strong code available at www. scripture4all.org. I have their free software download on my computer, which is more detail than the one online. So I'm referring to their software.

Basically the translation error(& bias) is that the second goat was for Azazel and not to be Azazel.

Let me paraphrase from the literal text by only giving the literal translation provided by this software where I will supply the strong codes with it. Please go check the Masoretic text yourself at Scripture4All Link if you really want to be objective about this and know the truth about God's plan of salvation.

Lev 16:10 "But the goat, on which the lot fell over-him (5921) for-goat-of-departure (5799) shall be presented alive before the Lord, to make an atonement with him and to-send-away-of[/i] (7971) him (853) to-goat-of-departure (5799) the-wilderness-ward (4057)"

Above is the literal translation of the Hebrew are in bold and italic font. As you can see the goat that the lot fell on was FOR the scapegoat. It was not the scapegoat itself. And in the later half of the text, that goat (that the lot fell on) was sent away TO the scapegoat in the wilderness.

This was fufilled when Jesus was baptised(=death of 1st goat for the Lord) and then the Holy Spirit(the fit man) led him(live 2nd goat for Azazel) in the wilderness to be tempted by Satan(Azazel).
Posted By: Elle

Re: Is the Hell Doctrine depicted in the TYPE (Laws of Moses)? - 07/17/11 02:51 AM

Originally Posted By: NJK Project
Limiting types to only the law of Moses is, as confirmed by exegesis, not accurate as even God’s dealings with, and the experiences of, Israel recorded in those books, as well as the rest of the OT, even NT with NT Israel, serves as types and examples (e.g., Early Rain, 70 A.D. destruction). E.g, 1 Cor 10:11 (“example” Greek typikos #5917a; cf. the uses of #5917b hyptypikos in e.g., 1 Cor 10:6; Rom 5:14; 1 Thess 1:7; 2 Thess 3:9; 1 Tim 4:12; Tit 2:7; 1 Pet 5:3).

In this reply, I will only focuss on establishing the principle of the TYPE, and when time permits, I will address your specific examples which all refers to the TYPE.

There’s only one basic Type and the antitype that is fulfilled can be fulfilled in one era, or in another. Also it can re-occur in different era or several times in one era. No matter how many times the antitype occurs down the line, all point back to the foundational Type. There’s only one foundation or one TYPE of the plan of salvation and it was given to Moses in the Pantateuch. It is from the TYPE that we can define if a person claiming to be a prophet is true or not.

Defining a true prophet – Isa 8:20
How can we know if someone claiming to be a Prophet is true or not? There’s only one way,

Isa 8:20 “To the law and to the testimony: if they speak not according to this word, [it is] because [there is] no light in them.”
In Isa 8:20 we have two main word to consider.

#1. Law = 8451 = Torah => “a precept or statute, especially Decalogue or Pentateuch.
It's root word is 3384, yarah (to flow as water (i.e. to rain); transitively, to lay or throw (especially an arrow, i.e. to shoot); figuratively, to point out (as if by aiming the finger), to teach.)

Torah is mainly used to mean all the Laws of Moses giving at Mt. Sinai. It is translated 219 times as Law referring to the whole law of Moses. It is also used to refer to a single law as the Feast of Unleavened Bread(Ex 13:9); the Passover(Ex 12:49); law of burnt offering(Le 6:9; 7:7,etc). It also refers to the decisions of Moses(Ex 18:16,20); for the content of the book of the convenant(Ex 24:12). I know we SDAs have always used this to mean the Decalogue. If I recalled I found maybe 1 or 2 texts used for that purpose; however, the decalogue is part of the Laws of Moses just as much as the other single laws.

#2 Testimony -- 8584 - tecuwdah => attestation, i.e. a precept, usage.
from 5749 = witness = uwd => “to duplicate or repeat; by implication, to protest, testify (as by reiteration); intensively, to encompass, restore (as a sort of reduplication).

The meaning of tecuwdah hear means a testimony—eg. a custom. By someone who affirms that it is true(in their attestation) by repeating the rule of conduct(the precept) as a custom. This is also known as a disciple who are living according to the Laws of Moses will be a testimony to all.

tecuwdah is used 3 times in the Bible
Is 8:16 " Bind up the testimony, seal the law among my disciples."
Ruth 4:7 " Now this was the manner in former time in Israel concerning redeeming and concerning changing, for to confirm all things; a man plucked off his shoe, and gave it to his neighbour: and this was a testimony in Israel. 8. Therefore the kinsman said unto Boaz, Buy it for thee. So he drew off his shoe."

Deut 18 and 13 defines how to know if a person is a true prophet or not. Deut 13 adds the feature, "because he has counseled rebellion against the Lord your God."
Originally Posted By: Deut 13
(1) If there arise among you a prophet, or a dreamer of dreams, and giveth thee a sign or a wonder, (2) And the sign or the wonder come to pass, whereof he spake unto thee, saying, Let us go after other gods, which thou hast not known, and let us serve them; (3) Thou shalt not hearken unto the words of that prophet, or that dreamer of dreams: for the LORD your God proveth you, to know whether ye love the LORD your God with all your heart and with all your soul. (4) Ye shall walk after the LORD your God, and fear him, and [/u]keep his commandments[/u], and obey his voice, and ye shall serve him, and cleave unto him.

The primary concern was about prophets attempting to get people to serve other gods (vs. 2). It is not a matter if the signs and a wonder comes to pass as we SDAs defines a true prophets or not. Deut 13:1,2 says that a false prophets sign and wonders may come to pass. Verse 3 God takes credit for sending the false prophets for the purpose in testing you if you will follow him(do his laws) or not(v.4). It is a test so we might see the state of our own heart and come to repentance.

So the measure of if a person is a true prophet or not is if he speaks according to the laws which was given to Moses. Wonders and signs is not what defines a prophets, but rather if they promote LAWLESSNESS.

Deut 13:5 And that prophet, or that dreamer of dreams, shall be put to death; because he hath spoken to turn you away from the LORD your God, which brought you out of the land of Egypt, and redeemed you out of the house of bondage, to thrust thee out of the way which the LORD thy God commanded thee to walk in. So shalt thou put the evil away from the midst of thee.

Such a prophet is to be put to death, not because their signs didn’t come to pass, but because of his lawless teaching. Jesus referred to this law when he said in Mat 7:22 “Many will say to Me on that day, 'Lord, Lord, did we not prophesy in Your name, and in Your name cast out demons, and in your name perform many miracles?' (23) And then I will declare to them, 'I never knew you; depart from me, you who practice lawlessness" [anomia].

anomia is from the word nomos, "law." Lawlessness was the big problem in the Old Testament, and persist still today.

Moses more than a Prophet

Moses was the figure of Christ who received face to face the word of God. There’s no other man or woman on this earth beside Christ that God spoke face to face like Moses. Even God set Moses above any prophets by saying Num 12: 6 “ And he said, Hear now my words: If there be a prophet among you, I the LORD will make myself known unto him in a vision, and will speak unto him in a dream. (7) My servant Moses is not so, who is faithful in all mine house. (8) With him will I speak mouth to mouth, even apparently, and not in dark speeches; and the similitude of the LORD shall he behold: wherefore then were ye not afraid to speak against my servant Moses?

All prophets are to be measured against the Laws given to Moses which is the TYPE of the plan of salvation of what is to come. Plainly, if there’s no Type there is no truth like EGW said.
Posted By: NJK Project

Re: Is the Hell Doctrine depicted in the TYPE (Laws of Moses)? - 07/17/11 12:11 PM

Interesting exposition on the Law and the Testimony, Elle. I still see that this is simply defined as The Law (indeed the books of Moses) and the Testimony, everything else that is derived from those works. In fact the work of a prophet of God was to bring “Testimonies” from God which were to lead the people of God back to the proper observance of God Law, as given in the books of Moses. In fact that is how the Testimonies given to EGW worked as they were to people lead back to the Bible.

In regards to the Hell Doctrine, the books of Moses are filled with examples of God using fire to execute judgement on rebellious people, burning them alive. When God does something it becomes a sort of binding “Case Law”, even if it is only Him who can or will do it. The legislated capital punishment act of stoning also involved great suffering and was a slow death. It is the combination of these two punishment execution acts, as well as other elements in those acts that are found in the Final Hell Fire judgement, as depicted in vision (i.e., a testimony) to both John the Revelator and EGW, let alone Jesus’ many statements on this in the Gospels.

I personally think, like Paul, that anything that is found in Scripture (i.e., beyond the books of Moses, is profitable for Doctrine (2 Tim 3:16) as I see that it has already passed the test of being a valid “testimony”. Since God inspired all Bible writers, then what they word is defaultly, generally speaking, indeed a “testimony”.

So, I think this all satisfies your “type” requirement and the final judgement will be as described in the Bible and SOP - the supernatural mental and physical suffering and then burning up of the wicked. (In fact I see the fire aspect as mostly/practically a tangible necessity to rid the earth of all such tangible traces of sin, just like God need a violent wind to bury all of the strewn dead bodies after the flood judgement PP 107.4.)

I also think that the “Plan of Salvation” is distinct from God “Ministry of Wrath” under which the Hell Reality falls.
Posted By: Mountain Man

Re: Is the Hell Doctrine depicted in the TYPE (Laws of Moses)? - 07/17/11 06:24 PM

Originally Posted By: Elle
MM, I would appreciate a respond if you can. I'm bumping this in case this got burried and you haven't read my reply to you MM:

M: The altar of burnt offering links sin, sinners, and hellfire.

E: The burnt offering(the daily, and other burnt offerings made with other offerings like sin offerings) represented Jesus… Could you elaborate how you see this linking sin, sinners, and hellfire?

Yes, it represents Jesus’ sacrifice on our behalf. It also represents the fate of sinners in hellfire. Jesus took our sins upon Himself and suffered in our place. However, He stopped short of perishing forever in the flames of perdition. Satan is the scapegoat, and as the scapegoat he will suffer in the lake of fire with the sins and second death of the saved.

Quote:
M: Unpardoned sinners were led out of the camp with the scapegoat on the day of atonement.

E: First of all, the red heifer which represented Jesus, was killed and burnt outside the camp. So it was not only the sinners that were sent outside the camp.

Num 19: 2 “:2 This is the ordinance of the law which the LORD hath commanded, saying, Speak unto the children of Israel, that they bring thee a red heifer without spot, wherein is no blemish, and upon which never came yoke: 3 And ye shall give her unto Eleazar the priest, that he may bring her forth without the camp, and one shall slay her before his face:”

The Scapegoat of Lev 16

Concerning the scapegoat. The Scapegoat is misunderstood. I have posted Doug Goslin study at #Post 124209 here . At first I had misunderstood the meaning of the misunderstood scapegoat and thought that Jesus was Azazel, when according to the Masoretic Text, Jesus was the 2nd goat sent alive FOR Azazel, which I explain this below.

This became clear to me of my misunderstanding when some months ago, I decided to check the Hebrew literal translation of Lev 16:10. Here is what I discovered.

The Literal Hebrew translation of Lev 16:10

Before hand, let me explain in brief that there are two works of Christ to atone for the sins of the world.

1. Justification : accomplish/symbolized by His death
2. Sanctification: accomplish/symbolized by His ressurection and His work in us and His work in destroying the works of the Devil.

The death and resurection of Jesus depicts this two works. This works was reveal in the TYPE with the 2 doves ritual(one dead, the other alive).(Lev 14) The same is depicted in the TYPE with the 2 goats ritual(one dead, the other alive) (Lev. 16).

First of all you have to acknowledge that these two goats were both without blemish for the lot could of fell on either. Right there one of these goats couldn't represent Lucifer, for he is filled with blemish. Both of these animals were without blemish because both represented Christ and His two works to atone for the world.

Lev 16:10 "But the goat, on which the lot fell [to be the] (for) scapegoat, shall be presented alive before the Lord, to make an atonement with him, and to let him go [for a ] (to) scapegoat into the wilderness. "

Notice what I have put in bracket and highlight in red the inaccuracy of the translation. What is in parenthese and in green is what the litteral translation in the original text would say. Do look at the masoretic text with strong code available at www. scripture4all.org. I have their free software download on my computer, which is more detail than the one online. So I'm referring to their software.

Basically the translation error(& bias) is that the second goat was for Azazel and not to be Azazel.

Let me paraphrase from the literal text by only giving the literal translation provided by this software where I will supply the strong codes with it. Please go check the Masoretic text yourself at Scripture4All Link if you really want to be objective about this and know the truth about God's plan of salvation.

Lev 16:10 "But the goat, on which the lot fell over-him (5921) for-goat-of-departure (5799) shall be presented alive before the Lord, to make an atonement with him and to-send-away-of[/i] (7971) him (853) to-goat-of-departure (5799) the-wilderness-ward (4057)"

Above is the literal translation of the Hebrew are in bold and italic font. As you can see the goat that the lot fell on was FOR the scapegoat. It was not the scapegoat itself. And in the later half of the text, that goat (that the lot fell on) was sent away TO the scapegoat in the wilderness.

This was fufilled when Jesus was baptised(=death of 1st goat for the Lord) and then the Holy Spirit(the fit man) led him(live 2nd goat for Azazel) in the wilderness to be tempted by Satan(Azazel).

Here's what Ellen wrote about the red heifer:

Quote:
The children of Israel were anciently commanded to make an offering for the entire congregation, to purify them from ceremonial defilement. For the sacrifice a red heifer was offered, representing the more perfect offering that should redeem from the pollution of sin. This was an occasional sacrifice for the purification of all those who had necessarily or accidentally touched the dead. All who came in contact with death in any way were considered ceremonially unclean. Thus the minds of the Hebrews were forcibly impressed with the fact that death came in consequence of sin, and therefore is a representative of sin. The one heifer, the one ark, the one brazen serpent, impressively point to the one great offering, the sacrifice of Christ. {RH, January 9, 1883 par. 2}

This heifer was to be red without spot, which was a symbol of blood. It must be without blemish, and one that had never borne a yoke. Here again Christ was typified. The Son of God came voluntarily to accomplish the work of atonement. There was no obligatory yoke upon him, for he was independent and above all law. The angels, as God's intelligent messengers, were under the yoke of obligation; no personal sacrifice of theirs could atone for the guilt of fallen man. Christ alone was free from the claims of the law to undertake the redemption of the sinful race. He had power to lay down his life and to take it up again. "Who being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God." {RH, January 9, 1883 par. 3}

Yet this glorious being loved the poor sinner, and took upon himself the form of a servant, that he might suffer and die in man's behalf. Jesus might have remained at his Father's right hand, wearing his kingly crown and royal robes. But he chose to exchange all the riches, honor, and glory of Heaven for the poverty of humanity, and his station of high command for the horrors of Gethsemane and the humiliation and agony of Calvary. He became a man of sorrows and acquainted with grief, that, by his baptism of suffering and blood, he might purify and redeem a guilty world. "Lo, I come," was the joyful assent, "to do thy will O God!" {RH, January 9, 1883 par. 4}

The sacrificial heifer was conducted without the camp, and slain in the most solemn manner. Thus Christ suffered without the gates of Jerusalem, for Calvary was outside the city walls. This was to show that Christ did not die for the Hebrews alone, but for all mankind. He proclaims to a fallen world that he has come to be their Redeemer, and urges them to accept the salvation which he offers. {RH, January 9, 1883 par. 5}

The heifer having been slain, the priest, clothed in pure white garments, took the blood in his hands as it issued from the body of the victim, and cast it toward the temple seven times. Thus Christ in his own spotless righteousness, after shedding his precious blood, entered into the heavenly sanctuary to minister in the sinner's behalf. And there the crimson current is brought into the service of reconciling God to man. "And having a high priest over the house of God, let us draw near with a true heart, in full assurance of faith, having our hearts sprinkled from an evil conscience, and our bodies washed with pure water." {RH, January 9, 1883 par. 6}

The body of the heifer was burned to ashes, which signified a whole and ample sacrifice. The ashes were then gathered up by a person uncontaminated by contact with the dead, and laid up in a clean place without the camp. When the ceremony of cleansing was to be performed, these were placed in a vessel containing water from a running stream. This clean and pure person then took a cedar stick with scarlet cloth and a bunch of hyssop and sprinkled the contents of the vessel upon the tent and the persons therein. This ceremony was repeated several times in order to be thorough, and was done as a purification from sin. {RH, January 9, 1883 par. 7}

I'm not sure I understand what you're saying about the scapegoat. Do you agree with Ellen in the following passages:

Quote:
Once a year, on the great Day of Atonement, the priest entered the most holy place for the cleansing of the sanctuary. The work there performed completed the yearly round of ministration. On the Day of Atonement two kids of the goats were brought to the door of the tabernacle, and lots were cast upon them, "one lot for the Lord, and the other lot for the scapegoat." Verse 8. The goat upon which fell the lot for the Lord was to be slain as a sin offering for the people. And the priest was to bring his blood within the veil and sprinkle it upon the mercy seat and before the mercy seat. The blood was also to be sprinkled upon the altar of incense that was before the veil. {GC 419.1}

"And Aaron shall lay both his hands upon the head of the live goat, and confess over him all the iniquities of the children of Israel, and all their transgressions in all their sins, putting them upon the head of the goat, and shall send him away by the hand of a fit man into the wilderness: and the goat shall bear upon him all their iniquities unto a land not inhabited." Verses 21, 22. The scapegoat came no more into the camp of Israel, and the man who led him away was required to wash himself and his clothing with water before returning to the camp. {GC 419.2}

Important truths concerning the atonement are taught by the typical service. A substitute was accepted in the sinner's stead; but the sin was not canceled by the blood of the victim. A means was thus provided by which it was transferred to the sanctuary. By the offering of blood the sinner acknowledged the authority of the law, confessed his guilt in transgression, and expressed his desire for pardon through faith in a Redeemer to come; but he was not yet entirely released from the condemnation of the law. On the Day of Atonement the high priest, having taken an offering from the congregation, went into the most holy place with the blood of this offering, and sprinkled it upon the mercy seat, directly over the law, to make satisfaction for its claims. Then, in his character of mediator, he took the sins upon himself and bore them from the sanctuary. Placing his hands upon the head of the scapegoat, he confessed over him all these sins, thus in figure transferring them from himself to the goat. The goat then bore them away, and they were regarded as forever separated from the people. {GC 420.1}

It was seen, also, that while the sin offering pointed to Christ as a sacrifice, and the high priest represented Christ as a mediator, the scapegoat typified Satan, the author of sin, upon whom the sins of the truly penitent will finally be placed. When the high priest, by virtue of the blood of the sin offering, removed the sins from the sanctuary, he placed them upon the scapegoat. When Christ, by virtue of His own blood, removes the sins of His people from the heavenly sanctuary at the close of His ministration, He will place them upon Satan, who, in the execution of the judgment, must bear the final penalty. The scapegoat was sent away into a land not inhabited, never to come again into the congregation of Israel. So will Satan be forever banished from the presence of God and His people, and he will be blotted from existence in the final destruction of sin and sinners. {GC 422.2}

In the typical service the high priest, having made the atonement for Israel, came forth and blessed the congregation. So Christ, at the close of His work as mediator, will appear, "without sin unto salvation" (Hebrews 9:28), to bless His waiting people with eternal life. As the priest, in removing the sins from the sanctuary, confessed them upon the head of the scapegoat, so Christ will place all these sins upon Satan, the originator and instigator of sin. The scapegoat, bearing the sins of Israel, was sent away "unto a land not inhabited" (Leviticus 16:22); so Satan, bearing the guilt of all the sins which he has caused God's people to commit, will be for a thousand years confined to the earth, which will then be desolate, without inhabitant, and he will at last suffer the full penalty of sin in the fires that shall destroy all the wicked. Thus the great plan of redemption will reach its accomplishment in the final eradication of sin and the deliverance of all who have been willing to renounce evil. {GC 485.3}

Now the event takes place foreshadowed in the last solemn service of the Day of Atonement. When the ministration in the holy of holies had been completed, and the sins of Israel had been removed from the sanctuary by virtue of the blood of the sin offering, then the scapegoat was presented alive before the Lord; and in the presence of the congregation the high priest confessed over him "all the iniquities of the children of Israel, and all their transgressions in all their sins, putting them upon the head of the goat." Leviticus 16:21. In like manner, when the work of atonement in the heavenly sanctuary has been completed, then in the presence of God and heavenly angels and the hosts of the redeemed the sins of God's people will be placed upon Satan; he will be declared guilty of all the evil which he has caused them to commit. And as the scapegoat was sent away into a land not inhabited, so Satan will be banished to the desolate earth, an uninhabited and dreary wilderness. {GC 658.1}
Posted By: Elle

Re: Is the Hell Doctrine depicted in the TYPE (Laws of Moses)? - 07/18/11 11:37 AM

Originally Posted By: MountainMan
Yes, it represents Jesus’ sacrifice on our behalf.

Tx for your reply Mike. I’m glad you brought it up because I think you brought a very important starting point. Can we all establish some quick common knowledge first about Jesus sacrifice/death on the cross before we move on to the other points you brought up.

1. Jesus sacrifice & death on the Cross

a. Jesus sacrifice was “ the propitiation for our sins: and not for ours only, but also for [the sins of] the whole world.” 1Jo 2:2 Do you agree that Christ died for ours and the sins of the whole world?

b. What death did Jesus died on the cross? 1st or 2nd?

c. When we repent we die to sin, and get baptized into his death(Rm 6:3). Then what death do we die when we get baptist? 1st or 2nd?

d. Since Christ didn’t physically burn on the cross, nor did we when we died into Christ death, then could you explain where is the fire?
Posted By: NJK Project

Re: Is the Hell Doctrine depicted in the TYPE (Laws of Moses)? - 07/18/11 12:36 PM

Perhaps Elle, my post on The Sacrifice of Christ may be helpful here.

My view on this issue is, on top of Christ enduring a tremendous battle of the will, indeed from Gethsemane, He was suffering the physical and also mental anguish of the Hell Judgement that God will make all of the wicked suffer by supernaturally keeping them alive in the fires of Hell for an individually set time. The “Second Death” is actually a drawn out death, however the end result is “normative” death, with no notion/knowledge/feeling of anything then.
Posted By: APL

Re: Is the Hell Doctrine depicted in the TYPE (Laws of Moses)? - 07/20/11 06:47 PM

Originally Posted By: EGW???
Now, if never before we should see that where there is a type there is also an antitype, and that WHERE THERE IS NO TYPE, THERE IS NO TRUTH. 1TG 46:15

Please, can someone tell me where this is found in the writings of EGW? I found it in a sermon by a Davidian SDA minister, but it was his words, not EGW's. "1TG" = Vol. 1, Timely Greetings. Not an EGW publication. See: http://www.shepherds-rod-message.org/1tg/1tg47.html

What am I missing???
Posted By: APL

Re: Is the Hell Doctrine depicted in the TYPE (Laws of Moses)? - 07/20/11 07:00 PM

Originally Posted By: NJK Project
Perhaps Elle, my post on The Sacrifice of Christ may be helpful here.

My view on this issue is, on top of Christ enduring a tremendous battle of the will, indeed from Gethsemane, He was suffering the physical and also mental anguish of the Hell Judgement that God will make all of the wicked suffer by supernaturally keeping them alive in the fires of Hell for an individually set time. The “Second Death” is actually a drawn out death, however the end result is “normative” death, with no notion/knowledge/feeling of anything then.


Oh - For what purpose would God keep people supernaturally alive to suffer? Punishment? As a warning to future generations that hey, if you break God's law, He will supernaturally burn you alive for as long as you deserve! That will keep people in line. Scared straight! This punishment can't be for the sinner, as they will eventually die. This punishment must be for the living as a warning. frown

This idea violates EGW own comment on punishment.
Originally Posted By: EGW
We are not to regard God as waiting to punish the sinner for his sin. The sinner brings the punishment upon himself. His own actions start a train of circumstances that bring the sure result. Every act of transgression reacts upon the sinner, works in him a change of character, and makes it more easy for him to transgress again. By choosing to sin, men separate themselves from God, cut themselves off from the channel of blessing, and the sure result is ruin and death. {1MR 131.1}
Or are you saying, the sure result is supernatural torture from above? Perhaps I've completely mis-read what you are saying... I hope so.
Posted By: NJK Project

Re: Is the Hell Doctrine depicted in the TYPE (Laws of Moses)? - 07/20/11 09:07 PM

APL, you have indeed completely misread what I said and also what the Biblical & SOP teaching is on the “wrath of God” and “ministry of Wrath” doctrine. Look it up on your own. I have not said at all that ‘God is gleefully waiting to do this to sinner’. This is only your misconstruing. It is God’s strange act and it is indeed, as I theologically understand it, for the benefit of the redeemed, who will continue to be free moral being who can sin in the future if they so choose, who will see what sinning against God justly and naturally deserves; but first and foremost it is to exact the just wrath of God upon sin and sinners. Jesus incurred that wrath for all who accept His sacrifice, but those who reject it will have to incur it upon themselves.

When you will explain how a human being can live for “days” in a lake of fire, then you will have explained away my factually descriptive life sustaining, “supernatural” action here. I have dealt with this issue in detail in this commonly posted in thread (e.g,, Post #131390ff), surprised you missed it, so you can read my views on it there.
Posted By: Elle

Re: Is the Hell Doctrine depicted in the TYPE (Laws of Moses)? - 07/21/11 01:43 AM

Originally Posted By: APL
Originally Posted By: EGW???
Now, if never before we should see that where there is a type there is also an antitype, and that WHERE THERE IS NO TYPE, THERE IS NO TRUTH. 1TG 46:15

Please, can someone tell me where this is found in the writings of EGW? I found it in a sermon by a Davidian SDA minister, but it was his words, not EGW's. "1TG" = Vol. 1, Timely Greetings. Not an EGW publication. See: http://www.shepherds-rod-message.org/1tg/1tg47.html

What am I missing???

Tx APL for pointing this out. I ask specifically if this quote was EGW as I couldn't find it also when this quote came out on another forum on Adventist Online . The person that quoted it answered me with a bunch of EGW quotes and then said the following concerning that quote
Originally Posted By: Types and Antitypes by iamrobhualdjr
"This line "Now, if never before we should see that where there is a type there is also an antitype, and that WHERE THERE IS NO TYPE, THERE IS NO TRUTH. 1TG 46:15" is quoted from the Timely Greetings{TG} volume 1.. Timely greetings are one of the messages of the mighty angel that unite his voice with the third..".

So if this is a Sheperd Rod quote then I misunderstood his answer and I wrongly assumed it was from one of EGW publication that is not available online.

So my mistake and I am deeply sorry for misinforming everyone.

Again APL I appreciate for bringing this up as I really do not want to misinformed anyone.
Posted By: NJK Project

Re: Is the Hell Doctrine depicted in the TYPE (Laws of Moses)? - 07/21/11 02:23 AM

I can understandly see how you were brought to that wrong assumption Elle. It can and has happened to most people. (Case in point, the widely claimed SDA assumption that the Library of Congress itself had said the Desire of Ages was its best book on the life of Christ - see here).

How, now, does that correction affect your foundational view here of: ‘Law of Moses types being a requirement for all doctrines’?
Posted By: Elle

Re: Is the Hell Doctrine depicted in the TYPE (Laws of Moses)? - 07/21/11 04:53 AM

Originally Posted By: NJK Project
I can understandly see how you were brought to that wrong assumption Elle. It can and has happened to most people. (Case in point, the widely claimed SDA assumption that the Library of Congress itself had said the Desire of Ages was its best book on the life of Christ - see here).

How, now, does that correction affect your foundational view here of: ‘Law of Moses types being a requirement for all doctrines’?

Nope! smile

I see my link in my post above got messed up. Correct link on Adventist Online here :
Posted By: NJK Project

Re: Is the Hell Doctrine depicted in the TYPE (Laws of Moses)? - 07/21/11 06:07 AM

My question actually was “how...”, not ‘does...?’ So it does not affect your view either way??! That does not seem to be exegetically responsible, nor logically sequitur, to me, especially given your topic opening statement which I saw was only theologically plausible because of that assumed EGW statement (it was further odd to me that you were actually quoting the SOP in support):

Originally Posted By: Elle Post #134263
God gaved to mankind ONE TYPE and there’s no other, and it is found in the Pentateuch.
Originally Posted By: egw
Now, if never before we should see that where there is a type there is also an antitype, and that WHERE THERE IS NO TYPE, THERE IS NO TRUTH. 1TG 46:15

I agree with EGW when she said, if there’s no TYPE there’s no truth. So the the TYPE is given to us so we can know the Truth.

Question : Do we have a TYPE in the Law of Moses to backup what we currently assume in regards to “the vast majority to die”? Or in another word, is the Hell fire doctrine Truth? In that doctrine we assumed that the lake of fire is literal? Why shouldn’t it be taken figuratively?

Let’s exercise to search from the foundation where God gave us His truth.


I however did not see that it applied as you had claimed, as “types” are found throughout the Bible and not just in the books of Moses, among my other mentioned reasons in this thread.

So what then/now is your Scriptural or SOP “foundation”/support for that hermeneutical requirement??
Posted By: Elle

Re: Is the Hell Doctrine depicted in the TYPE (Laws of Moses)? - 07/21/11 12:37 PM

Originally Posted By: NJK Project
My question actually was “how...”, not ‘does...?’ So it does not affect your view either way??! That does not seem to be exegetically responsible, nor logically sequitur, to me, especially given your topic opening statement which I saw was only theologically plausible because of that assumed EGW statement (it was further odd to me that you were actually quoting the SOP in support)


How does it effect my view? ---> absolutly has no effect for it was not my foundation. The Bible is my foundation for all truth. It’s been like this for two years now. I provided that “supposively” EGW quote because most of you take EGW’s words to interpret for you the Bible and is your foundation. I like that quote because it was short, simple and right to the point. However, I wasn’t aware that it wasn’t EGW and that’s what I appologized for saying that it was and misinforming everyone. EGW has provided many others more lenghty ones which I have read on the forums posted by others. I did save up a few, but I don’t want to get into it using EGW to prove or disprove. The Bible is what the Lord has given us and Is sufficient.

This generation and most of all the generations since God spoke at Mt Sinai the Laws to Moses, men has depended on man to tell them what God had said. That’s the biggest flaw with the Israelites even when Moses himself was the man chosen.

There are special blessings to dig for yourself in scriptures and learn to hear God speak to you personally. This is what binds your soul to the Lord – hearing God for yourself. This is what 1Jn 2:27 says ” But the anointing which ye have received of him abideth in you, and ye need not that any man teach you: but as the same anointing teacheth you of all things, and is truth, and is no lie, and even as it hath taught you, ye shall abide in him. This is what people are being robbed from when they depend on second hand teachings.

Now concerning the Laws of Moses to be the foundation of all truth. It always been. I have already provided a short study of it in Post #135199 . There’s much more plus the test of a prophet which is based on the law. What other law is there beside what is given to Moses which we all call “The Laws of Moses”. These are proven LAWS, approved and supported by Jesus Himself, and not mere theories or speeches of prophets that needs to be tested against the Law and views are limited and is spoken to via dark speeches.

Just the fact that it is call LAWs-- it is proof that it is the foundation. And it’s not only the laws that is pronounced at the foot of Sinai or given on the mountain top. The laws are written everywhere in the 5 books of Moses including Genesis. Paul says that the Law(Law of Moses) is Spiritual and we all know that it is prophetic. It is our duty to come to know their spiritual and prophetic meanings so to come to know God's mind and heart in regards to the plan of salvation and how He rules and subdue people in His Kingdom that is soon coming.

Even Jesus used the Law of Moses to teach the disciples for 40 days. He also used the writings of the prophets which are prophetic application of the Law and are not the law itself.

Knowing the Laws of Moses is the most essential foundation we need first before trying to understand the Prophets or other writings. We have neglected that study for we have been taught that these laws are nailed to the cross and is not relevant to us today.

So here we’ve been doubled robbed (1)having man interpret Scriptures (2)deprived of studying the only foundation of all truth.

Posted By: Elle

Re: Is the Hell Doctrine depicted in the TYPE (Laws of Moses)? - 07/21/11 01:16 PM

Originally Posted By: Elle
Originally Posted By: MountainMan
Yes, it represents Jesus’ sacrifice on our behalf.

Tx for your reply Mike. I’m glad you brought it up because I think you brought a very important starting point. Can we all establish some quick common knowledge first about Jesus sacrifice/death on the cross before we move on to the other points you brought up.

1. Jesus sacrifice & death on the Cross

a. Jesus sacrifice was “ the propitiation for our sins: and not for ours only, but also for [the sins of] the whole world.” 1Jo 2:2 Do you agree that Christ died for ours and the sins of the whole world?

b. What death did Jesus died on the cross? 1st or 2nd?

c. When we repent we die to sin, and get baptized into his death(Rm 6:3). Then what death do we die when we get baptist? 1st or 2nd?

d. Since Christ didn’t physically burn on the cross, nor did we when we died into Christ death, then could you explain where is the fire?


MM I would of liked you answering these questions. Anyway for the sake to get this discussion moving forward I will comment only on (d) for today. It's ok to not want to answer MM. Please don't feel obliged.

Jesus nor any sacrificial animals (all representing Jesus) were burn alive -- They were all SACRIFICED beforehand. There's just two people(if my memory is correct) in the OT that were burned, and both these instances they were stoned prior to being burned.

Stoning was how people in the OT were put to death. No one ever were killed alive in a fire.

So our challenge here is
(1) to understand the spiritual meaning of stoning
(2) and the meaning of fire in the sacrifices and elsewhere
Posted By: NJK Project

Re: Is the Hell Doctrine depicted in the TYPE (Laws of Moses)? - 07/21/11 07:02 PM

Originally Posted By: Elle
How does it effect my view? ---> absolutly has no effect for it was not my foundation....


Thanks that in itself actually sequiturly answers my question which then let’s me consider that your further points are to the point/issue at hand and not askew.

Originally Posted By: Elle
The Bible is what the Lord has given us and Is sufficient.


My view is that God has also given us the writings of EGW and when her statements are not direct revelations, which I see as being on par with the Bible’s own direct revelation (i.e., ‘thus says the Lord’ and prophecies) then EGW’s writings have to first be thoroughly exegetically tested to see if they are accurate.

Originally Posted By: Elle
This generation and most of all the generations since God spoke at Mt Sinai the Laws to Moses, men has depended on man to tell them what God had said. That’s the biggest flaw with the Israelites even when Moses himself was the man chosen.


When these explaining men are God’s appointed people such as Spirit-led Bible writers, then I see no “problem” in that. In the case of the Israelites and Moses, e.g., when God spoke from Sinai, it was because the people were spiritually unready to hear directly from God that they asked Moses to instead speak to them. Spiritually speaking, the same thing occurred with EGW and SDA’s, even to this day. Unfortunately, EGW was not exegetically perfect, and so in some areas she was in error as the Bible corrected her.

Originally Posted By: Elle
There are special blessings to dig for yourself in scriptures and learn to hear God speak to you personally. This is what binds your soul to the Lord – hearing God for yourself. This is what 1Jn 2:27 says ” But the anointing which ye have received of him abideth in you, and ye need not that any man teach you: but as the same anointing teacheth you of all things, and is truth, and is no lie, and even as it hath taught you, ye shall abide in him. This is what people are being robbed from when they depend on second hand teachings.


From my previous responses in our discussion in Adventist Online, I categorically do not see your derived understanding of 1 John 2:27.

Originally Posted By: Elle
Just the fact that it is call LAWs-- it is proof that it is the foundation. And it’s not only the laws that is pronounced at the foot of Sinai or given on the mountain top. The laws are written everywhere in the 5 books of Moses including Genesis. Paul says that the Law(Law of Moses) is Spiritual and we all know that it is prophetic. It is our duty to come to know their spiritual and prophetic meanings so to come to know God's mind and heart in regards to the plan of salvation and how He rules and subdue people in His Kingdom that is soon coming.


From what I understand, these first 5 books were generally called the law of Moses for short, but the “Law” only applied to Laws found in the majority in these books, e.g., major parts of Exodus; a little portion of Numbers, most, if not all of Leviticus and parts of Deuteronomy. The books of Genesis and Job are merely Historical, though as the first of Biblical Histories, they have a significant foundational aspect, but not necessarily a Law.

Originally Posted By: Elle
Now concerning the Laws of Moses to be the foundation of all truth. It always been. I have already provided a short study of it in Post #135199 . There’s much more plus the test of a prophet which is based on the law. What other law is there beside what is given to Moses which we all call “The Laws of Moses”. These are proven LAWS, approved and supported by Jesus Himself, and not mere theories or speeches of prophets that needs to be tested against the Law and views are limited and is spoken to via dark speeches.


As seen in my response in Post #135208 I did not find your exposition in Post 135199 to be actually exegetically convincing. To me any experience is to be tested against the Law and the Testimonies, and Moses was the first benchmark of both. So, in regards to the Testimonies, any other prophet who passes these tests, can then be used to measure future experiences against. E.g. the physical experiences of the Prophet Daniel served to validate the prophetic experience of EGW.

Originally Posted By: Elle
Even Jesus used the Law of Moses to teach the disciples for 40 days. He also used the writings of the prophets which are prophetic application of the Law and are not the law itself.


Where does the Bible say/reveal this??

Originally Posted By: Elle
Knowing the Laws of Moses is the most essential foundation we need first before trying to understand the Prophets or other writings.


I see that this Law understanding has been done in many ways through other subsequent prophets in the Bible, including Jesus. (E.g., Matt 5-7). So I do not see a need to dichotomize the Bible, but to study all of it when trying to understand a doctrine. Indeed it has been my experience that when I first understand the more clear prophetic revelations and explanations in the Bible beyond the books of Moses, I can then more readily understand what a Law had meant. Case in point, when I first understood the teaching of Hell in the Bible and SOP, I was then able to see how it was also incorporated in the Sanctuary Service of Israel. This “whole” and less Theologically remote approach is better for me in Bible Study.

Originally Posted By: Elle
We have neglected that study for we have been taught that these laws are nailed to the cross and is not relevant to us today.


My understanding, based upon the writing of God’s Chosen Apostle and Prophet, and no doubt not by accident, an expert in the Law of Moses, Paul, that the Law contained in ordinances is what was nailed to the cross. I.e., do you still sacrifices Lambs each year, indeed even if you may observe the Biblical Passover Festival?? And as exegetically borne out in 2books by Samuele Bacchiocchi on the Spring and Fall Feasts of Israel, as the Bible says, observice those feasts days in the New Covenant Era is purely optional, however I will say that instead of observing Catholic and even secular Feasts, we should indeed be observing those Biblical Feasts days in an New Covenant Christian context. Also observing their precise calender timing can’t hurt as they do have to have a regular time each year, so why not the Biblical one.
Posted By: NJK Project

Re: Is the Hell Doctrine depicted in the TYPE (Laws of Moses)? - 07/21/11 07:04 PM

Originally Posted By: Elle
Jesus nor any sacrificial animals (all representing Jesus) were burn alive -- They were all SACRIFICED beforehand. There's just two people(if my memory is correct) in the OT that were burned, and both these instances they were stoned prior to being burned.

Stoning was how people in the OT were put to death. No one ever were killed alive in a fire.

So our challenge here is
(1) to understand the spiritual meaning of stoning
(2) and the meaning of fire in the sacrifices and elsewhere


Succinctly said, my own Doctrinal/Theological view on the suffering and death tot be involved in hell is that (in case of stoning and then burning - please do cite the reference for those 2 examples):

-Just like it was to be worthy Israelites who were to do the stoning, the redeem will be the one who will mete out what the varying physical torment punishment of the wicked will be. Stoning, as a slow and painful, fully conscious killing process, was indeed a most mentally anguishing form of death, just like the torment in hell fire will be. Frankly there is not enough stone to hurl at the wicked then, so keeping them alive in the fires of Hell will have to do.
-stoning eventually brought death as will Hell Fire torment, however then only when the full sin suffering punishment is complete
-the burning of a death body after stoning (if that was the case, I don’t personally recall so) was for purification reasons for the land of Israel, as will the burning up of the wicked for the Earth.

So if you wanted a “type” of the antitype Hell in the Law of Moses, I think that you’ve got one here.
Posted By: Elle

Re: Is the Hell Doctrine depicted in the TYPE (Laws of Moses)? - 08/20/11 01:33 PM

Quote:
Elle : The Bible is what the Lord has given us and Is sufficient.

NJK : My view is that God has also given us the writings of EGW and when her statements are not direct revelations, which I see as being on par with the Bible’s own direct revelation (i.e., ‘thus says the Lord’ and prophecies) then EGW’s writings have to first be thoroughly exegetically tested to see if they are accurate.

The Lord told us to test all things a brother or sister tells us according to Deut 13 & 18. Even though they say “Thus says the Lord”. A true Prophet will speak according to the Laws given to Moses. Jesus did speak accordingly and even came to fulfill the laws.

Quote:
Elle : Just the fact that it is call LAWs-- it is proof that it is the foundation. And it’s not only the laws that is pronounced at the foot of Sinai or given on the mountain top. The laws are written everywhere in the 5 books of Moses including Genesis. Paul says that the Law(Law of Moses) is Spiritual and we all know that it is prophetic. It is our duty to come to know their spiritual and prophetic meanings so to come to know God's mind and heart in regards to the plan of salvation and how He rules and subdue people in His Kingdom that is soon coming.

NJK : From what I understand, these first 5 books were generally called the law of Moses for short, but the “Law” only applied to Laws found in the majority in these books, e.g., major parts of Exodus; a little portion of Numbers, most, if not all of Leviticus and parts of Deuteronomy. The books of Genesis and Job are merely Historical, though as the first of Biblical Histories, they have a significant foundational aspect, but not necessarily a Law.

It is because of our current lack of understanding of how God works, we do not see how the whole 5 books are Laws. For instance, the book of Genesis is considered a law, for God established the first experiences of the people on earth to lay down the laws on how He will work in following generations ‘till Jesus 2nd coming. God is always consistent in his ways and judgments. We can see patern which are based on laws. Also much is reveal about the appointed time God’s laws are fulfilled in the book of Genesis. These can be found by careful studies of the book of Genesis by knowing that all of the laws given to Moses are spiritual and prophetic in meaning.

I have gave you a glimpse of how God used the life of Abraham with his two sons -- (1)Ishmael = wild ass=Israel=sons of Flesh, (2)Issaac=sons of Faith ) -- to establish the outline of the plan of salvation which Jesus(Jhn 3) and Paul(1Cr 15:44,46; Gal 4:23) explained the principle/law of order (The Natural is first, then the Spiritual is second). See Post #132621 under the Title The Type in Abraham’s two Sons

Quote:
Elle : Now concerning the Laws of Moses to be the foundation of all truth. It always been. I have already provided a short study of it in Post #135199 . There’s much more plus the test of a prophet which is based on the law. What other law is there beside what is given to Moses which we all call “The Laws of Moses”. These are proven LAWS, approved and supported by Jesus Himself, and not mere theories or speeches of prophets that needs to be tested against the Law and views are limited and is spoken to via dark speeches.

NJK : As seen in my response in Post #135208 I did not find your exposition in Post 135199 to be actually exegetically convincing. To me any experience is to be tested against the Law and the Testimonies, and Moses was the first benchmark of both. So, in regards to the Testimonies, any other prophet who passes these tests, can then be used to measure future experiences against. E.g. the physical experiences of the Prophet Daniel served to validate the prophetic experience of EGW.

A similar physical experience of Daniel is not a test to validate if the prophet is a true prophet or not, according to the Law of False prophet in Deut 13. Even if what a false prophet says or the sign or wonder comes to pass …. All these are not the tests of a true prophet. Deut 13:1-3 says false prophets sign or wonder can come to pass.

Deut 13:1 “If there arise among you a prophet, or a dreamer of dreams, and giveth thee a sign or a wonder, (2) And the sign or the wonder come to pass, whereof he spake unto thee, saying, Let us go after other gods, which thou hast not known, and let us serve them; (3) Thou shalt not hearken unto the words of that prophet, or that dreamer of dreams: for the LORD your God proveth you, to know whether ye love the LORD your God with all your heart and with all your soul. (4) Ye shall walk after the LORD your God, and fear him, and keep his commandments, and obey his voice, and ye shall serve him, and cleave unto him. (5) And that prophet, or that dreamer of dreams, shall be put to death; because he hath spoken to turn you away from the LORD your God, which brought you out of the land of Egypt, and redeemed you out of the house of bondage, to thrust thee out of the way which the LORD thy God commanded thee to walk in. So shalt thou put the evil away from the midst of thee.

In verse 3, the Lord says the reason why He sends false prophets so to test us so we can see our own heart if we will follow the Lord or not.

In verse 4 & 5, the test of a true Prophet is if they speak according to the Laws where God gaved us all His commandments in the way which we should walk.
Quote:
Elle : Even Jesus used the Law of Moses to teach the disciples for 40 days. He also used the writings of the prophets which are prophetic application of the Law and are not the law itself.

NJK : Where does the Bible say/reveal this??

Luk 24:44 “And he (Jesus) “said unto them, These are the words which I spake unto you, while I was yet with you, that all things must be fulfilled, which were written in the law of Moses, and in the prophets, and in the psalms, concerning me.

24:45 Then opened he their understanding, that they might understand the scriptures,


Also the disciples of Jesus followed His example by using the Law of Moses and the prophets to persuades any man.

Act 28:23 “And when they had appointed him a day, there came many to him into [his] lodging; to whom he expounded and testified the kingdom of God, persuading them concerning Jesus, both out of the law of Moses, and [out of] the prophets, from morning till evening.
Quote:
Elle : Knowing the Laws of Moses is the most essential foundation we need first before trying to understand the Prophets or other writings.

NJK : I see that this Law understanding has been done in many ways through other subsequent prophets in the Bible, including Jesus. (E.g., Matt 5-7). So I do not see a need to dichotomize the Bible, but to study all of it when trying to understand a doctrine. Indeed it has been my experience that when I first understand the more clear prophetic revelations and explanations in the Bible beyond the books of Moses, I can then more readily understand what a Law had meant. Case in point, when I first understood the teaching of Hell in the Bible and SOP, I was then able to see how it was also incorporated in the Sanctuary Service of Israel. This “whole” and less Theologically remote approach is better for me in Bible Study.

I do agree that a prophetic fullfillment can lead us to understand better a law, however, it is more effective to first understand the law by which clearly reveals and establish the fundamentals ways of the Lord by which He opperates.

In science, we might observe a phenomenon which is an execution of a unknown law. It takes lots of experimentings, trials and errors to arrive to the fundamental of the law that govern what we observe. But it is only once we understand the law that we can applied this understanding to any events afterwards. The Lord did not reveal to man all the laws in scientific mathematic form by which took milleniums to discover, however, He did give us His Laws to Moses for us, so we can start from a strong fundation from the beginning in understanding His heart and mind in the science of the restoration of man and all things.

Starting from an understanding of the Laws of Moses is the way to proceed before listening or reading any prophets. For we are call to test any prophets(or existing doctrines) which only can be done by first knowing the laws of Moses.
Posted By: Elle

Re: Is the Hell Doctrine depicted in the TYPE (Laws of Moses)? - 08/27/11 11:31 AM

God’s Justice vs. Man’s Justice

Quote:
Elle : God's judgments that He showed us in the Law of Moses are Righteous Judgments based on Mercy which restore the offender by making him pay restitution to the victim.

The punitive Judgment of this WORLD and in the anihilation doctrine does not (1)restore the offender nor does it (2)bring restitution to the victim. Therefore Justice is not served.

geoffm : Justice not served? The wages of sin is death.
I can accept Christs death for me and live and justice is served.
If I do not accept Christs death for me, then I have to pay the wages of sin, death myself. In both cases justice is served.

So you are saying that it is because of your choice you are saved? When you’ll “be in heaven” you can boast that you’ve made it because you chose Christ whereas the other 90% of the population is not because they simply didn’t chose Him. So salvation hinges on your choice. Right? And according to your definition of justice, this is very good.

The law says “An eye for an eye” (Ex. 21:24) -- meaning the judgment imposed by the judge must always fit the crime--no more, no less—though monetary compensation could be made as the equivalent of an eye. The law makes justice the first priority with the purpose (1) to correct the sinner and (2) restore the broken relationship with his victim by RESTITUTION by imposing the law to the offender. So if you steal one dollar, you got to pay two dollars back to the victim(Ex. 21:24). This is Justice.

However, we discards what the law says and replace it with our own ideas saying that stealing even one dollar is punishable by burning/torture in the hell fire until totally anihaliated – your burning & torturing time is in proportion to the amount of your sins.

That is not divine justice as defined in the law. That is only purposeless punishment imposed by carnally-minded men who claim to know better than God the true meaning of justice.
Posted By: Harold Fair

Re: Is the Hell Doctrine depicted in the TYPE (Laws of Moses)? - 08/27/11 04:41 PM

Doesn't anyone read, really read and understand, everyone's favorite text? John 3:16. There is a hugh IF in there.
Posted By: Elle

Re: Is the Hell Doctrine depicted in the TYPE (Laws of Moses)? - 08/27/11 05:37 PM

Originally Posted By: Harold Fair
Doesn't anyone read, really read and understand, everyone's favorite text? John 3:16. There is a hugh IF in there.

??? There's no huge "IF" nor a small one in that text ??? it says "whosoever believeth" in the KJV. If you translate literally that text it says "that(hina) every(pas) the(ho) one-believing(pisteuo)"

Do not add things that is not in the Bible.
Posted By: Rosangela

Re: Is the Hell Doctrine depicted in the TYPE (Laws of Moses)? - 08/27/11 06:42 PM

Quote:
The law makes justice the first priority with the purpose (1) to correct the sinner

What happens when the sinner is an incorrigible one?
Posted By: Mountain Man

Re: Is the Hell Doctrine depicted in the TYPE (Laws of Moses)? - 08/27/11 07:11 PM

Jesus satisfied the just and loving death demands of law and justice on our behalf. The law no longer condemns us. We no longer deserve to die. In Jesus, we are saved and secure.
Posted By: Elle

Re: Is the Hell Doctrine depicted in the TYPE (Laws of Moses)? - 08/27/11 07:52 PM

Originally Posted By: Rosangela
Quote:
The law makes justice the first priority with the purpose (1) to correct the sinner

What happens when the sinner is an incorrigible one?

???? You do not believe in God’s power and His abilities in bringing “ all men to be saved, and to come unto the knowledge of the truth. ” 1 Tim 2:4

As He has vowed in AV Isa 45:23 “ I have sworn by myself, the word is gone out of my mouth [in] righteousness, and shall not return, That unto me every knee shall bow, every tongue shall swear…25 ... all the seed of Israel be justified, and shall glory ”. This vow God has made is a promise of what He will Accomplish . It is not dependable on our abilities or what we will do, but on God’s abilities and what He will do and He will bring us all into glorification as He has vowed.

To say what you said above implies the following :
(1)God is not capable to fulfill His vow
(2)Thus God is a liar
(3)God’s love has no power to influence us and convert us.
(4)God did a lousy job in creating us for His design is not capable to respond to God’s love.

God is able, is not a liar, His love has power and what He has created is able to respond to Him. No problem there. The real problem is we are finite beings and have come to wrong interpretations of the Bible because we do not understand the LAW. Let’s look what the law says first and try to see where and what we have mist out.
Posted By: Harold Fair

Re: Is the Hell Doctrine depicted in the TYPE (Laws of Moses)? - 08/27/11 08:05 PM

I am afraid you aren't reading what I am reading. "Whosoever believeth" means IF you believe. IF you don't believe, you don't get life everlasting.
Posted By: Elle

Re: Is the Hell Doctrine depicted in the TYPE (Laws of Moses)? - 08/27/11 08:32 PM

Originally Posted By: Harold Fair
I am afraid you aren't reading what I am reading. "Whosoever believeth" means IF you believe. IF you don't believe, you don't get life everlasting.

I am afraid you do not know/understand God's power and that's why you hear and read an "IF" that is not there. That text is a statement not a condition.

It is because you do not believe that God is able to bring us all into belief as He has vowed in Is 45:23-25 and many other texts you need to add an "IF" there to make some sense out of it.

You(and most of us, including I-- who has just discovered this recently) do not know/understand the plan of salvation depicted in the 3 Feasts in the Law. A lot of the scriptures in the NT talk about the firstfruits. But there are two other harvests. The 3 harvests are ALL Harvested. Also the law of Jubilee is a major one to understand that explains redemption, forgiveness and mercy according to God's mind and His intention in His plan.

All these laws combined is what brings True Divine Justice according to God’s Law and not according to man’s interpretation of justice.
Posted By: Rosangela

Re: Is the Hell Doctrine depicted in the TYPE (Laws of Moses)? - 08/27/11 09:29 PM

Quote:
Quote:
Quote:
The law makes justice the first priority with the purpose (1) to correct the sinner

What happens when the sinner is an incorrigible one?


???? You do not believe in God’s power and His abilities in bringing “ all men to be saved, and to come unto the knowledge of the truth. ” 1 Tim 2:4

As He has vowed in AV Isa 45:23 “ I have sworn by myself, the word is gone out of my mouth [in] righteousness, and shall not return, That unto me every knee shall bow, every tongue shall swear…25 ... all the seed of Israel be justified, and shall glory ”. This vow God has made is a promise of what He will Accomplish . It is not dependable on our abilities or what we will do, but on God’s abilities and what He will do and He will bring us all into glorification as He has vowed.

To say what you said above implies the following :
(1)God is not capable to fulfill His vow
(2)Thus God is a liar
(3)God’s love has no power to influence us and convert us.
(4)God did a lousy job in creating us for His design is not capable to respond to God’s love.

God is able, is not a liar, His love has power and what He has created is able to respond to Him. No problem there. The real problem is we are finite beings and have come to wrong interpretations of the Bible because we do not understand the LAW. Let’s look what the law says first and try to see where and what we have mist out.

Elle,
1) There was the death penalty in the law of Moses for incorrigible sinners.

2) God's love respects our free will. Satan and His angels are incorrigible sinners; why isn't God able to save them? Jesus said in no unclear terms that there would be those to whom He would have to say: "Depart from Me, you cursed, into the everlasting fire prepared for the devil and his angels" (Matt. 25:41).
Posted By: Elle

Re: Is the Hell Doctrine depicted in the TYPE (Laws of Moses)? - 08/28/11 12:12 AM

Originally Posted By: Rosangela
1) There was the death penalty in the law of Moses for incorrigible sinners.

2) God's love respects our free will. Satan and His angels are incorrigible sinners; why isn't God able to save them? Jesus said in no unclear terms that there would be those to whom He would have to say: "Depart from Me, you cursed, into the everlasting fire prepared for the devil and his angels" (Matt. 25:41).

1) To be specific, it was the stoning that brought death. Now this brings two questions that relates to this topic.

a) Why does some law's verdict a define restitution, whereas some others laws the verdict is stoning to death? Isn’t only breaking one little law, the same as breaking all of them? James 2:10

b)The letter of the law says “stoning” to death which is important for us to know. However, we need to go beyond the literal surface reading and seek to also know the spirit of the law which is God’s intent and perspective.

What is the spiritual meaning of stoning? As I have already ask in the “ Is the Hell Doctrine depicted in the Law of Moses this question that maybe you would care to answer it here. Only by answering this question, might lead to shed some light to what is the meaning of death here.

2)Freewill is another man-made mis-conception that is not biblical and I have expanded quite broadly in this discussion . Concerning Mat 25:41 to properly understand what Jesus is talking about there’s two words that needs to be biblically define :

a) fire—could be the same as in the lake of fire and
b) everlasting (eonian in NT and Olam in OT).
Posted By: Daryl

Re: Is the Hell Doctrine depicted in the TYPE (Laws of Moses)? - 08/28/11 01:28 AM

Elle,

I am not certain what you are saying in your posts.

Are you saying that everybody will be saved and that nobody will be lost?
Posted By: Elle

Re: Is the Hell Doctrine depicted in the TYPE (Laws of Moses)? - 08/28/11 01:43 AM

Originally Posted By: Daryl F
Elle,

I am not certain what you are saying in your posts.

Are you saying that everybody will be saved and that nobody will be lost?

Daryl, I have said and implied this many times in other threads. Via my personal studies this past 1.5 year this is what I understand. However, what I think I know and what I say has no weight. Let's all look what the Law of Moses says.
Posted By: Rosangela

Re: Is the Hell Doctrine depicted in the TYPE (Laws of Moses)? - 08/28/11 01:53 AM

Quote:
a) Why does some law's verdict a define restitution, whereas some others laws the verdict is stoning to death? Isn’t only breaking one little law, the same as breaking all of them? James 2:10

I believe the main factor here is motivation - the death penalty was for willful, premeditated sins.

Quote:
b)The letter of the law says “stoning” to death which is important for us to know. However, we need to go beyond the literal surface reading and seek to also know the spirit of the law which is God’s intent and perspective.

The way the sinner died does not matter. Not always was stoning used. Sometimes God ordered the sword to be used (Ex 32:27) - not to mention that sometimes God Himself did the killing (like in the case of Nadab and Abihu).

Quote:
Freewill is another man-made mis-conception that is not biblical and I have expanded quite broadly in this discussion . Concerning Mat 25:41 to properly understand what Jesus is talking about there’s two words that needs to be biblically define :

a) fire—could be the same as in the lake of fire and
b) everlasting (eonian in NT and Olam in OT).

What Jesus is talking about is that some men, in the same way as the devil and his angels, won't be saved.


Posted By: Daryl

Re: Is the Hell Doctrine depicted in the TYPE (Laws of Moses)? - 08/28/11 01:59 AM

What specifically are you referring to as the Law of Moses?

In other words, can you break it down and tell me/us what all is considered to be a part of as in contained in the Law of Moses?

Are the Ten Commandments separate from the Law of Moses?

I hope you understand my questions.
Posted By: Daryl

Re: Is the Hell Doctrine depicted in the TYPE (Laws of Moses)? - 08/28/11 09:41 PM

As it doesn't seem I am going to receive an answer to my questions, I need to see if I can find my own answer, therefore, I will do some research and come back to this thread later.
Posted By: Daryl

Re: Is the Hell Doctrine depicted in the TYPE (Laws of Moses)? - 08/28/11 10:15 PM

My google search found this interesting site:

Moses' Law Vs. God's Ten Commandment Law

I am now in the process of reading from that site.
Posted By: Daryl

Re: Is the Hell Doctrine depicted in the TYPE (Laws of Moses)? - 08/28/11 10:26 PM

After reading through this, which law are we under today? Is it the Law of Moses or is it the Law of God (10 Commandments)?

Which law comes under God's Justice? Is it the Law of Moses or is it the Law of God (10 Commandments)?
Posted By: Daryl

Re: Is the Hell Doctrine depicted in the TYPE (Laws of Moses)? - 08/28/11 10:37 PM

Time for me to answer my own latest questions.

It was and remains my understanding that the Law of Moses ended at Calvary, therefore, God's Justice isn't based on the Law of Moses, but is rather based on the Law of God, or more specifically His Ten Commandments.
Originally Posted By: From http://www.preparingforeternity.com/mosevs10.htm
Moses' law was the temporary, ceremonial law of the Old Testament. It regulated the priesthood, sacrifices, rituals, meat and drink offerings, etc., all of which foreshadowed the cross. This law was added "till the seed should come," and that seed was Christ (Galatians 3:16, 19). The ritual and ceremony of Moses' law pointed forward to Christ's sacrifice. When He died, this law came to an end, but the Ten Commandments (God's law) "stand fast for ever and ever." Psalm 111:7,8.
There are two laws that are made crystal clear in the following verses below. Daniel 9:10 is talking about God's law and verse 11 is talking about Moses' law:

Daniel 9:10
We did not listen to you, O LORD our God, when you told us to live according to the laws which you gave us through your servants the prophets.
11 All Israel broke your laws and refused to listen to what you said. We sinned against you, and so you brought on us the curses that are written in the Law of Moses, your servant.
Posted By: Green Cochoa

Re: Is the Hell Doctrine depicted in the TYPE (Laws of Moses)? - 08/28/11 11:16 PM

Originally Posted By: Daryl F
Time for me to answer my own latest questions.

It was and remains my understanding that the Law of Moses ended at Calvary, therefore, God's Justice isn't based on the Law of Moses, but is rather based on the Law of God, or more specifically His Ten Commandments.
Originally Posted By: From http://www.preparingforeternity.com/mosevs10.htm
Moses' law was the temporary, ceremonial law of the Old Testament. It regulated the priesthood, sacrifices, rituals, meat and drink offerings, etc., all of which foreshadowed the cross. This law was added "till the seed should come," and that seed was Christ (Galatians 3:16, 19). The ritual and ceremony of Moses' law pointed forward to Christ's sacrifice. When He died, this law came to an end, but the Ten Commandments (God's law) "stand fast for ever and ever." Psalm 111:7,8.
There are two laws that are made crystal clear in the following verses below. Daniel 9:10 is talking about God's law and verse 11 is talking about Moses' law:

Daniel 9:10
We did not listen to you, O LORD our God, when you told us to live according to the laws which you gave us through your servants the prophets.
11 All Israel broke your laws and refused to listen to what you said. We sinned against you, and so you brought on us the curses that are written in the Law of Moses, your servant.


It was never my understanding that Moses made up his own laws.

Blessings,

Green Cochoa.
Posted By: Daryl

Re: Is the Hell Doctrine depicted in the TYPE (Laws of Moses)? - 08/29/11 01:31 AM

It was God who presented all the laws (Health, Ceremonial, Etc.) to Moses, but it was God Himself who wrote the Ten Commandments on two stone tablets and gave them to Moses.
Posted By: Green Cochoa

Re: Is the Hell Doctrine depicted in the TYPE (Laws of Moses)? - 08/29/11 02:12 AM

I guess I'm not sure why the distinction between God's written law and God's spoken law causes God's spoken law to morph into the "law of Moses" which is "done away with" at the cross.

If God said it was to be removed, fine. If, however, He said it was to be a "perpetual covenant" or a "perpetual statute" or an "everlasting covenant," or like verbiage, it seems we cannot so promptly cause folk to understand that it was done away.

Blessings,

Green Cochoa.
Posted By: Daryl

Re: Is the Hell Doctrine depicted in the TYPE (Laws of Moses)? - 08/29/11 03:11 AM

For some strange reason Elle seems to think the Law of Moses is pertinent to her belief that nobody will be lost but will rather all be saved.
Posted By: Elle

Re: Is the Hell Doctrine depicted in the TYPE (Laws of Moses)? - 08/29/11 09:47 AM

Quote:
For some strange reason Elle seems to think the Law of Moses is pertinent to her belief that nobody will be lost but will rather all be saved.
Sorry for the delayed response Daryl. I think this is getting off topic, however, I appreciate your question and do believe that we need to talk about the relevancy of the Law of Moses, not only for the question of who will be lost or save, but for all doctrinal beliefs. The answer are all in the Law of Moses. To be clear on what I'm referring here is to the Pantateuch.
Posted By: Daryl

Re: Is the Hell Doctrine depicted in the TYPE (Laws of Moses)? - 08/29/11 11:15 PM

I decided to merge the two threads back into one thread again, therefore, let us continue our discussion here in this now merged thread.
Posted By: asygo

Re: Is the Hell Doctrine depicted in the TYPE (Laws of Moses)? - 08/30/11 04:01 AM

Originally Posted By: Elle
Originally Posted By: Daryl F
Are you saying that everybody will be saved and that nobody will be lost?

Daryl, I have said and implied this many times in other threads. Via my personal studies this past 1.5 year this is what I understand.

But Jesus said few people find the way to life, while many find the way to destruction. Sorry if this been addressed elsewhere, but it doesn't make sense to me.
Posted By: Elle

Re: Is the Hell Doctrine depicted in the TYPE (Laws of Moses)? - 08/31/11 03:26 AM

Originally Posted By: asygo
Originally Posted By: Elle
Originally Posted By: Daryl F
Are you saying that everybody will be saved and that nobody will be lost?

Daryl, I have said and implied this many times in other threads. Via my personal studies this past 1.5 year this is what I understand.

But Jesus said few people find the way to life, while many find the way to destruction. Sorry if this been addressed elsewhere, but it doesn't make sense to me.

I don't know what text you are referring to. Could you give me the text please.
Posted By: Daryl

Re: Is the Hell Doctrine depicted in the TYPE (Laws of Moses)? - 08/31/11 04:04 AM

asygo,

Is this the one you are referring to?
Quote:
Matthew 7:13 Enter ye in at the strait gate: for wide is the gate, and broad is the way, that leadeth to destruction, and many there be which go in thereat:
14 Because strait is the gate, and narrow is the way, which leadeth unto life, and few there be that find it.

Originally Posted By: Elle
Originally Posted By: asygo
Originally Posted By: Elle
[quote=Daryl F][b]Are you saying that everybody will be saved and that nobody will be lost?

Daryl, I have said and implied this many times in other threads. Via my personal studies this past 1.5 year this is what I understand.

But Jesus said few people find the way to life, while many find the way to destruction. Sorry if this been addressed elsewhere, but it doesn't make sense to me.

I don't know what text you are referring to. Could you give me the text please. [/quote]
Posted By: Elle

Re: Is the Hell Doctrine depicted in the TYPE (Laws of Moses)? - 09/03/11 09:53 AM

Tx Daryl, it does appear to be the one. This is getting a little off topic again. This topic is about finding the Hell doctrine in the Law of Moses. So I will briefly answer below and link this back to this discussion.

This type of mis-understanding(Mat 7 and other text refering to destruction/death in the plan of salvation) stems basically from our ignorance of the Feasts which clearly depicts the process by which men needs to go through to be saved.

The chosen ones are to Bear Good Fruits
What Jesus said in Mat 7:13,14,21-23 is also mentioned by Luke 13:22-30 in more detail. Here Jesus is referring to the tribe of Judah in his time that was entrusted to be the “chosen ones”. When God choose someone, there is a huge responsibility that comes with it. And that is to produce good fruit and spread these fruits in the whole world(Is 27:2-6). Judah has failed as Israel had failed previously. Their own fruits were wild and they continued to act like wild asses in their ways of dealing with the foreigners by oppressing them because they weren’t genealogically Israelites. And even by dealing between each others, they did not dealt righteously according to the manner depicted in the Laws of Moses but manipulated the law of God by twisting it or by cherry picking parts to benefit their carnal interest. When time came for God to check His vineyard production(Is 5 and Mat 21) that he had entrusted to the vine-growers (Judea-the chosen ones)and they refused to return the owner(God) His share of the crops, and He finds no good fruits but only wild ones, then He will take away their privileges, pull them off his vineyard(Jerusalem) and cast them outside of the city. And give the vineyard to someone else(Mat 21:43).

Thrust out Vs. Destroyed
This is basically what Jesus is talking about in these passages. In Luke 13:28-30, it specifies that these people are thrust out (of the holy city), and v.30 add “ behold, there are last which shall be first, and there are first which shall be last.” Luke 13 gives dimension of what destroys means. It doesn’t imply that they are “destroy” by the way we define that word meaning they will be annihilated in a literal fire. Jesus is talking about they will lose their privileges to be the “firstfruits” which are the overcomers, the 144K, the saints that will rule with Jesus(Rev 20:6). The firstfruits are the first ones to become “the manifested sons of God” (Rom 8:19) by which God’s full measure of His Glory will dwell in their temple body and will manifest the fruits of the Spirit. These people are the ones that will accomplish to bring forth more fruits until the whole earth will be filled with the glory of God(Is 27:2-6, Dn 2:35). This is the job of the “chosen ones” -- God’s vine-growers on earth.

Destruction
Of course these men(tribe of Judah in Jesus time and the denominations today not producing the fruits) needs to be destroyed. Destruction is another big word that is read/interpretated with the world or the carnal man concept and ways of doing things. But we are not seekers of this world’s ways and definitions and need to look in scriptures to pull out God’s ways and definitions within God’s plan of salvation defined in the Laws of Moses.

We ALL need to be destroyed. The “ old man is crucified with [him], that the body of sin might be destroyed” Rom 6:6. The old man needs to be destroyed, so we can resurrect into a new creation in Christ. This is the process. Destruction/death is part of the process to bring forth a new creature.

Jesus corrected the disciples mis-understanding by making clear His work when he said “For the Son of man is not come to destroy men's lives, but to save [them].” Luk 9:56 Also in 1Jo 3:8 John said “ the Son of God was manifested, that he might destroy the works of the devil.” The work of destruction is Christ’s work who comes to destroy any work that is not His which will not destroy man but save him through fire.(1Cor 3:15 see below) This work of destruction is done by FIRE which purifies the metal and burns out the dross(impurities—the works of man or the devil). Some are baptized by FIRE before His second coming, and the others are baptized in the lake of FIRE after the second resurrection. All will be baptized by FIRE which is how Jesus’ baptizes us(Mat 3:11, Luk 3:16).

Mal 3:2 “ But who may abide the day of his coming? And who shall stand when he appeareth? For he is like a refiner’s fire, and like fullers’ soap”.

1Co 3:15 “ If any man's work shall be burned, he shall suffer loss: but he himself shall be saved; yet so as by fire.

Soap does not kill anyone, it cleans us. Also will Jesus's fire will not kill anyone, it will purify us.
Posted By: Daryl

Re: Is the Hell Doctrine depicted in the TYPE (Laws of Moses)? - 09/03/11 01:40 PM

Elle,

Is what you posted below your own work or that of others?

Originally Posted By: Elle
Tx Daryl, it does appear to be the one. This is getting a little off topic again. This topic is about finding the Hell doctrine in the Law of Moses. So I will briefly answer below and link this back to this discussion.

This type of mis-understanding(Mat 7 and other text refering to destruction/death in the plan of salvation) stems basically from our ignorance of the Feasts which clearly depicts the process by which men needs to go through to be saved.

The chosen ones are to Bear Good Fruits
What Jesus said in Mat 7:13,14,21-23 is also mentioned by Luke 13:22-30 in more detail. Here Jesus is referring to the tribe of Judah in his time that was entrusted to be the “chosen ones”. When God choose someone, there is a huge responsibility that comes with it. And that is to produce good fruit and spread these fruits in the whole world(Is 27:2-6). Judah has failed as Israel had failed previously. Their own fruits were wild and they continued to act like wild asses in their ways of dealing with the foreigners by oppressing them because they weren’t genealogically Israelites. And even by dealing between each others, they did not dealt righteously according to the manner depicted in the Laws of Moses but manipulated the law of God by twisting it or by cherry picking parts to benefit their carnal interest. When time came for God to check His vineyard production(Is 5 and Mat 21) that he had entrusted to the vine-growers (Judea-the chosen ones)and they refused to return the owner(God) His share of the crops, and He finds no good fruits but only wild ones, then He will take away their privileges, pull them off his vineyard(Jerusalem) and cast them outside of the city. And give the vineyard to someone else(Mat 21:43).

Thrust out Vs. Destroyed
This is basically what Jesus is talking about in these passages. In Luke 13:28-30, it specifies that these people are thrust out (of the holy city), and v.30 add “ behold, there are last which shall be first, and there are first which shall be last.” Luke 13 gives dimension of what destroys means. It doesn’t imply that they are “destroy” by the way we define that word meaning they will be annihilated in a literal fire. Jesus is talking about they will lose their privileges to be the “firstfruits” which are the overcomers, the 144K, the saints that will rule with Jesus(Rev 20:6). The firstfruits are the first ones to become “the manifested sons of God” (Rom 8:19) by which God’s full measure of His Glory will dwell in their temple body and will manifest the fruits of the Spirit. These people are the ones that will accomplish to bring forth more fruits until the whole earth will be filled with the glory of God(Is 27:2-6, Dn 2:35). This is the job of the “chosen ones” -- God’s vine-growers on earth.

Destruction
Of course these men(tribe of Judah in Jesus time and the denominations today not producing the fruits) needs to be destroyed. Destruction is another big word that is read/interpretated with the world or the carnal man concept and ways of doing things. But we are not seekers of this world’s ways and definitions and need to look in scriptures to pull out God’s ways and definitions within God’s plan of salvation defined in the Laws of Moses.

We ALL need to be destroyed. The “ old man is crucified with [him], that the body of sin might be destroyed” Rom 6:6. The old man needs to be destroyed, so we can resurrect into a new creation in Christ. This is the process. Destruction/death is part of the process to bring forth a new creature.

Jesus corrected the disciples mis-understanding by making clear His work when he said “For the Son of man is not come to destroy men's lives, but to save [them].” Luk 9:56 Also in 1Jo 3:8 John said “ the Son of God was manifested, that he might destroy the works of the devil.” The work of destruction is Christ’s work who comes to destroy any work that is not His which will not destroy man but save him through fire.(1Cor 3:15 see below) This work of destruction is done by FIRE which purifies the metal and burns out the dross(impurities—the works of man or the devil). Some are baptized by FIRE before His second coming, and the others are baptized in the lake of FIRE after the second resurrection. All will be baptized by FIRE which is how Jesus’ baptizes us(Mat 3:11, Luk 3:16).

Mal 3:2 “ But who may abide the day of his coming? And who shall stand when he appeareth? For he is like a refiner’s fire, and like fullers’ soap”.

1Co 3:15 “ If any man's work shall be burned, he shall suffer loss: but he himself shall be saved; yet so as by fire.

Soap does not kill anyone, it cleans us. Also will Jesus's fire will not kill anyone, it will purify us.
Posted By: Elle

Re: Is the Hell Doctrine depicted in the TYPE (Laws of Moses)? - 09/03/11 05:13 PM

Originally Posted By: Daryl
Elle, Is what you posted below your own work or that of others?

Daryl, my reply to Arnold's Mat 7 are my own words stemming from my own study this week and from personal studies already done in the pass. I thought it was obvious with my French accident smile . I need to give the credit to Luk 9 by which shed lots of light of what Mat 7 is about.

Believe me there's many things I do not know and haven't studied for I just started to study(9 Month ago) according to the Law of Moses. At first my studies didn't have the strong foundation that the Law of Moses provides. The Lord already had me started to study the Laws 18 months ago but not in a manner to test all Doctrines, but to understand better the sanctuary language of Daniel/Revelation.

It's only when I was reading Myron's Robertson(an SDA) posts at Adventist Online http://www.adventistonline.com/forum/topic/listForContributor?user=36zmrf8lp346f that I realized what I was missing out from not knowing the laws of Moses. So since then I started studying all subject via the Laws.

Myron did make public another guy who studies from the Law angle which I do read his website at time. His name is Dr. Stephen Jones( http://www.gods-kingdom-ministries.org/weblog/WebCategory.cfm?CID=13 ) who is non-denominationalist. I am quite skeptical about reading other people stuff and was very reluctant to do so for it is against my 1Jo 2:27 principle.

When I do read Stephen studies(or anyone else) I do verify the integrity of everything I read with the Law according to the Law of False/True Prophets in Deut 13 & 18.

At the beginning at times I did find my definition of words were different from Myron’s. For example, I believed that the spiritual meaning of the “fat” in the sacrificial services was sin. (see discussion here ) Myron disagreed and said it meant “the best” or God’s blessings. My definition was based from what I had learned from others in the past and not really biblically based. Once I did my personal study of the Hebrew word “fat”, I saw that Myron was right and I was wrong. So that shook my whole perspective of the sacrificial service because it was based on my definition and not on God’s definition describe in the Bible.

From all that I have read from discussing with Myron and I have checked all his references and checked many Hebrew definition and all.. Up to now, there’s very few minor things that I do not agree with Myron or Dr. Jones. In general, I found myself agreeing with most because there foundation is on the rock and its pretty solid.
Posted By: APL

Re: Is the Hell Doctrine depicted in the TYPE (Laws of Moses)? - 09/09/11 12:38 AM

Interesting - Stephen Jones does not agree with SDA Pioneers on the 70 week prophesy - he stating that it started in 458BC, Christ was born in 2BC and was crucified in AD33 at the END of the 70 weeks. This does have significant implications for SDA interpretation of prophesy. That said, I find him more refreshing to read than some of the dispensationalists I've read recently.
Posted By: Daryl

Re: Is the Hell Doctrine depicted in the TYPE (Laws of Moses)? - 09/09/11 02:27 AM

How do you connect your post to this thread?
Originally Posted By: APL
Interesting - Stephen Jones does not agree with SDA Pioneers on the 70 week prophesy - he stating that it started in 458BC, Christ was born in 2BC and was crucified in AD33 at the END of the 70 weeks. This does have significant implications for SDA interpretation of prophesy. That said, I find him more refreshing to read than some of the dispensationalists I've read recently.
Posted By: Rosangela

Re: Is the Hell Doctrine depicted in the TYPE (Laws of Moses)? - 09/09/11 03:53 AM

Quote:
Interesting - Stephen Jones does not agree with SDA Pioneers on the 70 week prophesy - he stating that it started in 458BC, Christ was born in 2BC and was crucified in AD33 at the END of the 70 weeks.

This is an interesting topic. Feel free to create a new thread about it.
Posted By: APL

Re: Is the Hell Doctrine depicted in the TYPE (Laws of Moses)? - 09/09/11 05:12 AM

Originally Posted By: Daryl F
How do you connect your post to this thread?
Originally Posted By: APL
Interesting - Stephen Jones does not agree with SDA Pioneers on the 70 week prophesy - he stating that it started in 458BC, Christ was born in 2BC and was crucified in AD33 at the END of the 70 weeks. This does have significant implications for SDA interpretation of prophesy. That said, I find him more refreshing to read than some of the dispensationalists I've read recently.


Well - read the comment just above mine, where it is said this about Stephen Jones: "Up to now, there’s very few minor things that I do not agree with Myron or Dr. Jones. In general, I found myself agreeing with most because there foundation is on the rock and its pretty solid." That is how this comment fits with the thread.

I'm pointing out that a source used as being "pretty solid" is off on this foundational point from SDA thought, and in fact, in his writing dismisses groups that push for a AD31 crucifixion date as being denominational.

It is true, Jones sees hell as something that will pass away, and in this respect aligns with SDAs.

...-.-
Posted By: Elle

Re: Is the Hell Doctrine depicted in the TYPE (Laws of Moses)? - 09/10/11 05:45 AM

Rosangela, I understand that you might don't want to answer my questions below. It would be more easy on me if you(or anyone else) would answer according to scriptures than me preparing a post with it. But if no one will, then I will find time hopefully by next week.

Quote:
E : a) Why does some law's verdict a define restitution, whereas some others laws the verdict is stoning to death? Isn’t only breaking one little law, the same as breaking all of them? James 2:10

R: I believe the main factor here is motivation - the death penalty was for willful, premeditated sins.

Not so according to scripture. Many has done premeditated sins and the penalty was not death. David is one big example where he both killed and committed adultery and the Lord did not ask that he be killed even though that was the penalty of it according to the law. If we believe that Yah is the same yesterday, today and tomorrow, we need to understand why did David didn’t die and why did those found in adultery in the time of Moses where stoned. We know the Father is Just and there must be something that we are missing.

Quote:
E: b)The letter of the law says “stoning” to death which is important for us to know. However, we need to go beyond the literal surface reading and seek to also know the spirit of the law which is God’s intent and perspective.

R: The way the sinner died does not matter. Not always was stoning used. Sometimes God ordered the sword to be used (Ex 32:27) - not to mention that sometimes God Himself did the killing (like in the case of Nadab and Abihu).

The way the sinner died is very important and quite significant for the Law is the TYPE. All manners and symbols in the Pentateuch are important.

Ok those two incidence weren’t the norm but does reveal information.
c) the sword – what does the sword represent in scripture? That’s an easy one.
a) And again, what does the fire represent?
Quote:
E: Concerning Mat 25:41 to properly understand what Jesus is talking about there’s two words that needs to be biblically define :
a) fire—could be the same as in the lake of fire and
b) everlasting (eonian in NT and Olam in OT).

R: What Jesus is talking about is that some men, in the same way as the devil and his angels, won't be saved.

Before, jumping into conclusions, could you answer question a) and b)?
Posted By: Rosangela

Re: Is the Hell Doctrine depicted in the TYPE (Laws of Moses)? - 09/12/11 12:47 AM

Quote:
Not so according to scripture. Many has done premeditated sins and the penalty was not death. David is one big example where he both killed and committed adultery and the Lord did not ask that he be killed even though that was the penalty of it according to the law. If we believe that Yah is the same yesterday, today and tomorrow, we need to understand why did David didn’t die and why did those found in adultery in the time of Moses where stoned. We know the Father is Just and there must be something that we are missing.

The death penalty applied primarily to those who had witnessed the visible manifestation of God's glory in the Sinai, to those who had the pillar of fire and the pillar of cloud leading them, but, even so, insisted in transgressing the commandments God Himself had spoken to them - this meant that the person despised God and His will and showed the person's defiant atittude toward God.
As time passed and the visible signs of God's presence were reduced, this defiant attitude might not characterize all sins.
However, the fact is that David did not die, but the Lord told him: "You shall not die. Nevertheless, because by this deed you have utterly scorned the LORD, the child that is born to you shall die."

Quote:
The way the sinner died is very important and quite significant for the Law is the TYPE. All manners and symbols in the Pentateuch are important.

Ok those two incidence weren’t the norm but does reveal information.
c) the sword – what does the sword represent in scripture? That’s an easy one.
a) And again, what does the fire represent?

Elle, there were other means through which people were punished - the ground which swallowed them up (Korah, Dathan, and Abiram), plagues (Num. 16, Num. 25), etc.

Quote:
Before, jumping into conclusions, could you answer question a) and b)?
a) fire—could be the same as in the lake of fire and
b) everlasting (eonian in NT and Olam in OT).

a) Sure, the same fire as in the lake of fire, and the same fire that will kill Satan and his angels. Do you also think Satan and his angels will be saved?
b) a term with an elastic duration.
Posted By: Green Cochoa

Re: Is the Hell Doctrine depicted in the TYPE (Laws of Moses)? - 09/13/11 01:20 AM

Originally Posted By: Rosangela
The death penalty applied primarily to those who had witnessed the visible manifestation of God's glory in the Sinai, to those who had the pillar of fire and the pillar of cloud leading them, but, even so, insisted in transgressing the commandments God Himself had spoken to them - this meant that the person despised God and His will and showed the person's defiant atittude toward God.
As time passed and the visible signs of God's presence were reduced, this defiant attitude might not characterize all sins.
However, the fact is that David did not die, but the Lord told him: "You shall not die. Nevertheless, because by this deed you have utterly scorned the LORD, the child that is born to you shall die."


Rosangela,

Where in the Bible do you get this? I mean, where does it say that the death penalty was "primarily" for those who witnessed God's presence at Sinai? Give me a reference for this please.

I would tend to believe that the law was the same at Sinai as it was in Jesus' time as it should be now. The difference is that God's people at that time were in a theocracy, and when the government changed to a monarchy, God permitted, in His grace and mercy, for some things to left unretributed. Later governments, of the world, received the same treatment. In Jesus' day, the woman caught in adultery could not have been stoned, simply because the Roman government had not given the Jews that authority. Jesus could not have commanded at that time that she be stoned without at the same time advocating rebellion against government.

And rebellion is as the sin of witchcraft.

So, was it that Jesus had abandoned the law of Moses? Far from it. He was simply not in a position to enforce it. The time will yet come when all sins are judged. There need be no question about that. What people may think they are "getting away with" now will later come back to visit them. And the laws of Moses will have something to do with it, don't you think?

Blessings,

Green Cochoa.
Posted By: Rosangela

Re: Is the Hell Doctrine depicted in the TYPE (Laws of Moses)? - 09/13/11 04:38 AM

Quote:
The difference is that God's people at that time were in a theocracy, and when the government changed to a monarchy, God permitted, in His grace and mercy, for some things to left unretributed.

Before answering, I would like to ask you a question.
The government didn't change from theocracy to monarchy. Although Israel possessed kings, the nation still was (or should have been) ruled by God.
But, according to you, God was more graceful and merciful during what you classify as "monarchy" than during what you classify as "theocracy." Could you explain the reason for this?

(By the way, I'm speaking about the immediate enforcement of the death penalty. I, like you, believe that the enforcement of the death penalty is just being postponed until the Day of Judgment.)
Posted By: Green Cochoa

Re: Is the Hell Doctrine depicted in the TYPE (Laws of Moses)? - 09/13/11 06:45 AM

When God permitted Israel to have a king like the surrounding nations, it was a similar concession to that of God providing them quail upon their request. It is a lesson for us that not always what we think best is best, and the reason why we are counseled to pray "if it be Thy will."

When God provided King Saul, He provided just what the people thought they wanted. He was tall, handsome, and of noble appearance. He looked like a king. But God was at the same time judging Israel for their wrong choice in choosing to have a king, and giving Israel a lesson in what's wrong with looking on the outward appearance. The monarchical system was not God's ideal for the people. But God allowed it, as they had coveted it.

The reason why God was more tolerant of sins under the monarchy...?

Consider the following:

Numbers chapter 30 makes it clear that if a man makes an oath to God, or vows a vow to God, he is under strict obligation to fulfill it. If a woman, however, makes a vow, she is only obligated to keep it if her husband or father permits it. In other words, when we are dependent upon someone else as an authority figure in our life, God allows that authority figure to trump certain other things.

In the case of an entire nation having a king, the king stands, symbolically, at the head of the law. He is the lawgiver, protector and provider for the nation. The citizens of that nation are in subjection to their king. If the king asks them to do something, what do they do? Suppose the king has asked them to send their young sons to the army.... Do they have a right to say "I don't think we should be involved in this war, so I'm going to keep my son at home"? Technically, no. God would have them be obedient. Maybe God also feels the war is not right. But two wrongs don't make a right.

Basically, when there is a king involved, the justice system gets more complicated. It sets up possible conflicts of interest or of law. In the case of a monarchy, capital punishment is generally done only on authority of the king. Such was the case with Israel.

Whereas before, there were courts and witnesses, but there was also individual duty for vengeance provided in the law; now there was the royal court and the individual duties became subject to some degree to the king.

God, in allowing them to have a king, was also allowing an adjusted system of justice. God knew what the effects of a kingship would mean. God did not desire them to have a king. But God did not force the people against their will. They willed to have a king, and He allowed them to have their willful desire.

Keep in mind the reason for such punishments in the theocracy as capital punishment: To keep the people pure. When sins are not dealt with in a clear manner, what happens? The history of Israel shows it. I guess what I'm trying to say is that the "more graceful and merciful" (as you put it) response of God was actually a lower level of quality, a bit like God's allowance of meat eating following the flood, which then shortened men's lives significantly.

Blessings,

Green Cochoa.
Posted By: Rosangela

Re: Is the Hell Doctrine depicted in the TYPE (Laws of Moses)? - 09/16/11 02:31 AM

Quote:
Keep in mind the reason for such punishments in the theocracy as capital punishment: To keep the people pure. When sins are not dealt with in a clear manner, what happens? The history of Israel shows it. I guess what I'm trying to say is that the "more graceful and merciful" (as you put it) response of God was actually a lower level of quality, a bit like God's allowance of meat eating following the flood, which then shortened men's lives significantly.

Do you think that if Israel was still a theocracy at His time, Jesus would have commanded the woman caught in adultery to be stoned? Do you think this would have been the best thing to be done? If yes, why? If not, why not?
Posted By: Green Cochoa

Re: Is the Hell Doctrine depicted in the TYPE (Laws of Moses)? - 09/17/11 08:43 AM

Originally Posted By: Rosangela
Quote:
Keep in mind the reason for such punishments in the theocracy as capital punishment: To keep the people pure. When sins are not dealt with in a clear manner, what happens? The history of Israel shows it. I guess what I'm trying to say is that the "more graceful and merciful" (as you put it) response of God was actually a lower level of quality, a bit like God's allowance of meat eating following the flood, which then shortened men's lives significantly.

Do you think that if Israel was still a theocracy at His time, Jesus would have commanded the woman caught in adultery to be stoned? Do you think this would have been the best thing to be done? If yes, why? If not, why not?


I think I am not near enough to the mind of God to know this answer. Here is what I see, from my perspective:

Two possibilities.

1) Keep the people pure for as long as possible by stamping out sin where it is egregious and public, thus enticing others to follow in the same example. This would mean that, yes, the woman AND her men should be stoned.

2) Allow sin to continue to grow while giving the people an example of God's mercy and hoping they will still prefer His ways over their own, even with increased "opportunity" to engage in sinful behaviors. This would mean that, no, the woman nor her men should be stoned.

In either case, the woman should not be stoned alone. It was more the men, if anything, at fault here, and a proper example should be made of them.

In the second case, the Great Controversy deepens in the contrast between the two sides. As sin proliferates on the earth, God's righteousness appears to shine so much the brighter in comparison to the moral darkness. The watching Universe is benefited to see this stark contrast.

Should God, then, permit sin so that this contrast becomes so much clearer? Is that not what God ultimately chose when the war began in Heaven?

It seems that the trend has to be such...downhill all the way to the end. Which means it seems impossible to forever hold to the same high standards of morality as were once possible. Once people have become increasingly infected, God stands to lose a higher percentage of them overall, without later option of redeeming them, if the capital punishments are still enforced.

If you have a barrel of apples, and one is rotten, removing it will save the rest and preserve them yet for a good while. If that same barrel has about 25% or more apples that are beginning to spoil, far better it would be to process the apples, cutting out the bad spots, than to throw every bad one completely away, especially when those remaining are likely already exposed to the spores of the mold.

I think we've long since passed that kind of a threshold. I'm not sure if what I'm trying to communicate here makes any sense to you.

Blessings,

Green Cochoa.
Posted By: Elle

Re: Is the Hell Doctrine depicted in the TYPE (Laws of Moses)? - 09/18/11 01:20 AM

Thank you so much for all your comments Rosangela and your replies to them GC. I think what you both have shared was very good and needed to be discussed. GC, that was an excellent post( #136066). Very well expressed and you brought out very important points and dimensions in understanding the law in the time of theocracy, kings, and today.

Originally Posted By: Rosangela
Do you think that if Israel was still a theocracy at His time, Jesus would have commanded the woman caught in adultery to be stoned? Do you think this would have been the best thing to be done? If yes, why? If not, why not?

I believe Jesus judged the woman according to the law of Moses and address her case correctly and righteously.

Below is only addressing Jesus judgment in John 8. What He did is show that there are some difficult cases that needs to be brought to a higher court of law. I will come back to this later on and expand relating to the Doctrine of Hell Fire.

Jesus Judgment of the woman caught in Adultery
So the leaders motive was to force Jesus into judging the woman caught in adultery according to the law of Moses in Deut 22 so to catch Jesus in either breaking Moses Laws or the Roman Laws. First, they only brought the woman and not the man that commited adultery with her. This alone brought suspicion about the case. So this gave ground for Jesus to judge according to the law of Jealousy in Num 5. This law is for a woman which is suspected she commited adultery but there’s no proof. In that law the priest are to “uncover the woman’s head”v.18 which means that she’s not under the covering of her husband for this potential sin but directly under God. Also v. 16 says that “the priest shall bring her near, and set her(stand) before the Lord ”. So in another word the case is judge directly by God and it is God that is to judge the woman by making her conceive or not a child (v.21,22,28). So Jesus acted as the Priest in Num 5:23 to write the curses down on a scroll. Jesus didn’t have paper with him so he stoop down and was writing them on the ground. These curses is what God will bring on the woman if she is guilty (v.18,21,23,24).

However, the jewish leaders didn’t emmediatly caught on that Jesus was judging her according ot Num 5 instead of Deut 22. So they “continued asking him and he lifted up himself, and said unto them, “He that is without sin among you, let him first cast a stone at her. ” John 8:7 Another word, if you are a proper witness(without malecious intentions according to Deut 19:16) in this case, the law says that the witnesses are to cast the first stone.

Deut 17:6 “On the testimony of two or three witnesses a person is to be put to death, but no one is to be put to death on the testimony of only one witness. 7 The hands of the witnesses must be the first in putting that person to death, and then the hands of all the people. You must purge the evil from among you.

Of course if they did they would of broken the Roman law. However before a witness can cast the first stone there’s another law that needs to come into effect. The validity of the witness would of needed to be investigated prior. Just like any earthly court of law. Witnesses are first screened before being validated as a witness.

Deut 19:16 “ If a malicious witness takes the stand to accuse someone of a crime, 17 the two people involved in the dispute must stand in the presence of the LORD before the priests and the judges who are in office at the time. 18 The judges must make a thorough investigation, and if the witness proves to be a liar, giving false testimony against a fellow Israelite, 19 then do to the false witness as that witness intended to do to the other party. You must purge the evil from among you.

For sure these leaders were malicious, against both Jesus and the woman. If they would of proceeded with their accusations on her, by this law alone they were to received the penalty of death that they sought to give to the woman. Let say, the woman was guilty of adultery, since their intention were malecious they were to be judge first(by God Himself) and die first and they wouldn’t of had the satisfaction of seeing the woman stoned. The only way to save themselves from God's judgment against them was to drop the charges. Since there were no witnesses left and Jesus was not a witness of the crime, the case was drop.

So Jesus had judged righteously according to the Law of Moses, as a Priest, in bringing this case to the Father directly.
Posted By: Daryl

Re: Is the Hell Doctrine depicted in the TYPE (Laws of Moses)? - 09/18/11 05:33 AM

Wasn't a Roman law broken when Stephen was stoned to death?
Posted By: Mountain Man

Re: Is the Hell Doctrine depicted in the TYPE (Laws of Moses)? - 09/18/11 07:43 PM

Originally Posted By: Rosangela
(By the way, I'm speaking about the immediate enforcement of the death penalty. I, like you, believe that the enforcement of the death penalty is just being postponed until the Day of Judgment.)

Amen! And, in reality, even those who were executed by direct decree of God (for example, the Sabbath-breaker and the blasphemer) did not experience true, genuine judgment. The penalty they experienced back then was merely a type. Not until they suffer and perish in the lake of fire will justice be satisfied. Hellfire was typified at the altar of burnt offerings.
Posted By: Rosangela

Re: Is the Hell Doctrine depicted in the TYPE (Laws of Moses)? - 09/24/11 04:32 AM

Quote:
Quote:
Do you think that if Israel was still a theocracy at His time, Jesus would have commanded the woman caught in adultery to be stoned? Do you think this would have been the best thing to be done? If yes, why? If not, why not?

I think I am not near enough to the mind of God to know this answer. Here is what I see, from my perspective:

Two possibilities.

1) Keep the people pure for as long as possible by stamping out sin where it is egregious and public, thus enticing others to follow in the same example. This would mean that, yes, the woman AND her men should be stoned.

2) Allow sin to continue to grow while giving the people an example of God's mercy and hoping they will still prefer His ways over their own, even with increased "opportunity" to engage in sinful behaviors. This would mean that, no, the woman nor her men should be stoned.

I see a fundamental difference between the woman caught in adultery and the man who gathered sticks on the Sabbath. The woman caught in adultery could be brought to repentance. The man who gathered sticks on the Sabbath couldn't. Or do you think that God would command someone to be stoned who could still be brought to repentance and be saved?
Posted By: Mountain Man

Re: Is the Hell Doctrine depicted in the TYPE (Laws of Moses)? - 09/24/11 06:49 PM

Amen. Good point, Rosangela.
Posted By: Green Cochoa

Re: Is the Hell Doctrine depicted in the TYPE (Laws of Moses)? - 09/24/11 07:10 PM

It is perhaps a coincidence that the man gathering sticks on the Sabbath was doing so in willful violation of the commandment. Had he been merely forgetful of the day, or had forgotten to do his preparation the day before, or whatever other circumstance, we do not know. In fact, we do not even have the full details of the story to know exactly how the "willful" part of his act was defined. Was he doing this defiantly? Did he premeditate the act during the week prior? Was there some especially egregious aspect to his act? We do not know.

It seems rather likely, however, that even had he simply forgotten to collect his wood on the preparation day and so was out collecting a bit more to keep his fire going on the Sabbath, it would have been defined as a willful act of breaking the Sabbath. You see, he knew the commandment. Breaking it while knowing it qualifies as a willful violation.

Could someone have been repentant after knowingly breaking one of God's commandments? I think so. In this particular case, perhaps he was not. But repentant or not, the commandment was the same, was it not?

I don't see any part of the situation that involved querying the man to see if he would repent before passing judgment.

Blessings,

Green Cochoa.
Posted By: Rosangela

Re: Is the Hell Doctrine depicted in the TYPE (Laws of Moses)? - 09/24/11 11:55 PM

Do you think that, during the time of the theocracy, if a person genuinely repented before being stoned, God would allow him/her to be stoned?
Posted By: Green Cochoa

Re: Is the Hell Doctrine depicted in the TYPE (Laws of Moses)? - 09/25/11 04:01 AM

Originally Posted By: Rosangela
Do you think that, during the time of the theocracy, if a person genuinely repented before being stoned, God would allow him/her to be stoned?


We don't seem to have any record of this kind of situation having ever occurred. The records we have are of admissions of guilt, driven from fear, after having been discovered. Achan is a prime example. He was stoned. But his was not a genuine repentance.

We do not have any record of someone escaping the sentence of stoning via a true repentance. So, to be honest, I simply have no scripture here to go on.

In the case of the Sabbath-breaker, God gave commandment that he be stoned. It was not Moses giving the orders. God cannot be said to have made a mistake on the matter, nor could it be said that God did not know the Sabbath-breaker's heart. God would have known, certainly, if the man were repentant or not, or even if he were salvageable or not.

Schools must turn away even some salvageable students, not because they were past the point of rescue, but because their association with other, more naive, students would risk the pollution of the entire student body.

Perhaps God has had to act similarly at times. God may cause one person to be "cut off" from His people in order to protect the majority. Even if that one person could have been saved, in time, given a longer probation and much mercy.

Remember King Hezekiah? If his life had not been extended, we may not have had the evil reign of his son Manasseh. Manasseh, however, gave his life to God at the end. But 55 long years of evil reign had already wreaked havoc upon the nation at large. What a tremendous loss in order to save wicked Manasseh!

It's about like me telling you that I will give you a penny for a quarter. Or like God paying a quarter to save a penny. (I'm not sure that I'm using the right analogy here, but do you get what I'm trying to say?)

Yes, God loves every soul. Individually. But how many such souls should be sacrificed for one particularly difficult soul?

Sometimes, examples must be made for the good of the rest. I don't have God's wisdom. Ultimately, I feel unqualified to answer your question, Rosangela.

Blessings,

Green Cochoa.
Posted By: Rosangela

Re: Is the Hell Doctrine depicted in the TYPE (Laws of Moses)? - 09/30/11 05:21 AM

Quote:
R: Do you think that, during the time of the theocracy, if a person genuinely repented before being stoned, God would allow him/her to be stoned?
GC: We don't seem to have any record of this kind of situation having ever occurred. The records we have are of admissions of guilt, driven from fear, after having been discovered. Achan is a prime example. He was stoned. But his was not a genuine repentance.

Well, maybe you believe that, when Israel passed from judges to kings, God ceased to rule the nation. I don't believe that. Anyway, at the time of David's affair the civil laws were still in force, and God pronounced Himself upon David's affair and sent him the message: "The Lord has forgiven your sin. You are not going to die."
So what I believe is that God always forgives those who are truly repentant, reprieving the death penalty. God didn't want to annex death penalties to His laws in the first place - He only did this because of continual and willful disobedience (after the laws were given). It's very improbable that someone who sinned willfully in the visible presence of God (in the pillar of cloud and in the pillar of fire) would ever repent. But this was not the case later on in Israel's history.
Posted By: Green Cochoa

Re: Is the Hell Doctrine depicted in the TYPE (Laws of Moses)? - 10/01/11 06:46 AM

Originally Posted By: Rosangela
Well, maybe you believe that, when Israel passed from judges to kings, God ceased to rule the nation. I don't believe that.

Well, that's almost like saying "Maybe you believe that when Israel was under Roman authority, God ceased to rule the nation. I don't believe that."

God is always on His throne. He always rules. He sets up kings and takes them down, as many a Bible story tells us. But, to a certain extent, yes, God relinquished the direct governorship of His people in allowing them to have a king.

Regardless of our individual and specific beliefs about this, I'm struggling to see how the discussion of these laws relates to the title of this thread. It seems that we have been looking at the laws for some answer, but are they directly connected to the concept of "hell?"

Blessings,

Green Cochoa.
Posted By: Rosangela

Re: Is the Hell Doctrine depicted in the TYPE (Laws of Moses)? - 10/01/11 09:58 PM

I believe that the death penalty testified to the fact that the wages of sin is death, but I don´t believe the form in which it was executed symbolized what is going to happen in hell, any more than the form in which the victims were sacrificed symbolized what was going to happen on the cross. Christ was not slain with a knife.
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