Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command?

Posted By: asygo

Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 11/16/08 08:08 PM

Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? Are we required to render obedience even if we don't understand why? Is it safe to refuse to comply with God's command while we don't know His rationale for giving the command?

I'm starting this new thread to address this issue that has been touched upon in various threads. I'll copy the other posts here so they're all in one place. I'll unlock the topic when that's done.
Posted By: asygo

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 11/16/08 09:54 PM

Originally Posted By: asygo
http://www.maritime-sda-online.com/forum...4059#Post104059

Quote:
But in any case, why God would do it is not something we need to answer in order for it to happen. God does not limit Himself based on our understanding or lack thereof.
Posted By: asygo

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 11/16/08 10:12 PM

Originally Posted By: Tom
http://www.maritime-sda-online.com/forum...4061#Post104061

God doesn't want the obedience of automatons:

Quote:
God does not force the will or judgment of any. He takes no pleasure in a slavish obedience. He desires that the creatures of His hands shall love Him because He is worthy of love. He would have them obey Him because they have an intelligent appreciation of His wisdom, justice, and benevolence. And all who have a just conception of these qualities will love Him because they are drawn toward Him in admiration of His attributes. (GC 541)

In order to have an intelligent, appreciation of His wisdom, justice and benevolence, we need to understand His ways. The idea that God would zap our memories is contrary to common sense, and, more importantly, in contrary to His character and the principles of His government.
Posted By: asygo

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 11/16/08 10:13 PM

Originally Posted By: asygo
http://www.maritime-sda-online.com/forum...4065#Post104065

God does want us to have an intelligent appreciation of His character. However, He will not let our unintelligence hinder His work. God will fulfill His purposes, even if Arnold and Tom are too dumb to understand them. There will be time enough during eternity to fill in the gaps.

Quote:
Oh, the depth of the riches both of the wisdom and knowledge of God! How unsearchable are His judgments and His ways past finding out! (Romans 11:33)
Posted By: asygo

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 11/16/08 10:13 PM

Originally Posted By: asygo
http://www.maritime-sda-online.com/forum...4128#Post104128

Originally Posted By: Tom
Originally Posted By: asygo
Yes. But let's not allow what we believe to be common sense to be normative.

I'm not sure what you're saying here. I'm saying, if I read something which appears to be saying something that doesn't make sense, I think it through very carefully. Either it doesn't make sense because I'm thinking about something wrongly, or what I'm thinking is being said is not really what was meant. But just accepting something that doesn't make sense to us; I don't see the value in that. We should be able to give a reason for the things that we believe.

What I mean is that we should not trust ourselves so much that we can make assertions as to what God will or will not do based on what we think is or is not common sense. As for me, my wisdom is foolishness to God.

There are certain things for which we must be able to give an answer to all who ask, especially in soteriology. But there are other things that we don't understand, but still have to take by faith. This is especially true for people who don't yet know everything God has taught in Scripture.

For example, my father does not keep the Sabbath. Why? Because he, along with the rest of his church, does not see any reason why God would require it. They believe that every day is as holy as any other. They are too proud to think that God can require their obedience before He requires their understanding.

Quote:
Deuteronomy 29:29
The secret things belong to the LORD our God, but those things which are revealed belong to us and to our children forever, that we may do all the words of this law.

Yes, there are secret things that are not revealed to us.
Posted By: asygo

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 11/16/08 10:24 PM

Originally Posted By: Tom
http://www.maritime-sda-online.com/forum...4130#Post104130

Quote:
What I mean is that we should not trust ourselves so much that we can make assertions as to what God will or will not do based on what we think is or is not common sense. As for me, my wisdom is foolishness to God.

We're not trusting in ourselves simply by trying to understand what God is communicating to us. If we read something, and it doesn't make sense to us, we have the duty to question it, and not simply accept it. God isn't looking for unthinking obedience, but trusting faith, based on an intelligent appreciation of His character.

Quote:
There are certain things for which we must be able to give an answer to all who ask, especially in soteriology. But there are other things that we don't understand, but still have to take by faith. This is especially true for people who don't yet know everything God has taught in Scripture.

For example, my father does not keep the Sabbath. Why? Because he, along with the rest of his church, does not see any reason why God would require it. They believe that every day is as holy as any other. They are too proud to think that God can require their obedience before He requires their understanding.

I think I agree with your father, if I'm understand what you're saying correctly. That is, God doesn't require obedience before requiring understanding. What good would that do? Someone should be able to explain to your Father why God would have us remember the Sabbath day and keep it holy in a way that he can understand. Now if he refuses to listen, that's a different issue. But if he sees no reason to do something that he doesn't understand, I think he's right.

Quote:
Yes, there are secret things that are not revealed to us.

I don't know what the "yes" is in response to. Is it an answer to a question? Or just as affirmation?

Certainly there are secret things, but I take this as referring to items of speculation, like for example things about the afterlife which haven't been revealed. I don't see this as referring to anything that would require obedience on our part. Did you have something like this in mind?
Posted By: asygo

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 11/17/08 02:05 AM

Originally Posted By: asygo
http://www.maritime-sda-online.com/forum...4132#Post104132

Originally Posted By: Tom
Quote:
What I mean is that we should not trust ourselves so much that we can make assertions as to what God will or will not do based on what we think is or is not common sense. As for me, my wisdom is foolishness to God.

We're not trusting in ourselves simply by trying to understand what God is communicating to us. If we read something, and it doesn't make sense to us, we have the duty to question it, and not simply accept it.

That's an entirely different story from "I won't accept it because I don't understand it." Question it and try to make sense of it, no problem. Reject it if you don't get an answer that is acceptable to you, that's a problem.

Anyway, why do you require things of God that you don't require of physicists? You will accept Heisenberg's assertions without understanding why it is that way, and just accept that "that's just the way it is" but you can't accept God's assertions unless He explains it to your satisfaction.

Originally Posted By: Tom
Quote:
For example, my father does not keep the Sabbath. Why? Because he, along with the rest of his church, does not see any reason why God would require it. They believe that every day is as holy as any other. They are too proud to think that God can require their obedience before He requires their understanding.

I think I agree with your father, if I'm understand what you're saying correctly. That is, God doesn't require obedience before requiring understanding.

Have you done an in-depth study of child training principles? Check out this passage:
Quote:
One of the first lessons a child needs to learn is the lesson of obedience. Before he is old enough to reason, he may be taught to obey. By gentle, persistent effort, the habit should be established. Thus, to a great degree, may be prevented those later conflicts between will and authority that do so much to create alienation and bitterness toward parents and teachers, and too often resistance of all authority, human and divine. {Ed 287.1}

The object of discipline is the training of the child for self-government. He should be taught self-reliance and self-control. Therefore as soon as he is capable of understanding, his reason should be enlisted on the side of obedience. Let all dealing with him be such as to show obedience to be just and reasonable. Help him to see that all things are under law, and that disobedience leads, in the end, to disaster and suffering. When God says "Thou shalt not," He in love warns us of the consequences of disobedience, in order to save us from harm and loss. {Ed 287.2}

My father doesn't agree with my principles of child training either.

Obedience should come before reason. When the child is capable of understanding, then reason should be enlisted on the side of obedience, obedience that is already there. To wait for understanding before teaching obedience is to give Satan a huge head start, because he doesn't mind unreasonable obedience to his commands.

Originally Posted By: Tom
What good would that do?

Have you ever compared the disposition of a child who has been trained to regard his parents' word as law, to a child who has been trained to regard his parents' word as suggestions that he can choose to follow as he saw fit? One grows up feeling safe in the care of his parents, while the other one grows up in a constant state of stress because he is being cared for by the incompetent child in the mirror.

Originally Posted By: Tom
Someone should be able to explain to your Father why God would have us remember the Sabbath day and keep it holy in a way that he can understand. Now if he refuses to listen, that's a different issue. But if he sees no reason to do something that he doesn't understand, I think he's right.

There's a long story that goes along with that. But to give you a hint at what's going on, he had a business associate to whom he gave clear directions. This person refused to do what he was told unless my father explained to him why he wanted it done. His words were, "I can easily do it, but first I want to know why I should do it." Did I say my father HAD a business associate?

But he sees no problem in disrespecting God in the same way.

Originally Posted By: Tom
Certainly there are secret things, but I take this as referring to items of speculation, like for example things about the afterlife which haven't been revealed. I don't see this as referring to anything that would require obedience on our part.

I don't see any such restrictions in the verse. Before reason comes, we can be taught to obey. Even if reason never comes, we can still be taught to obey.

Anyway, if God wanted you to forget stuff, He won't need your obedience. It's not like you can choose to forget.
Posted By: asygo

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 11/17/08 02:05 AM

Originally Posted By: Tom
http://www.maritime-sda-online.com/forum...4137#Post104137

Quote:
That's an entirely different story from "I won't accept it because I don't understand it." Question it and try to make sense of it, no problem. Reject it if you don't get an answer that is acceptable to you, that's a problem.


I would say neither reject it nor accept it, but keep thinking about it and studying the matter until it makes sense to you.

Quote:
Anyway, why do you require things of God that you don't require of physicists? You will accept Heisenberg's assertions without understanding why it is that way, and just accept that "that's just the way it is" but you can't accept God's assertions unless He explains it to your satisfaction.


With God the question of understanding is relevant for a number of reasons. I'll mention two. One is the issues are moral; physics isn't. Two is God desires that His creatures render Him homage because they judge Him worthy of such. He doesn't wish to be honored because of His power or authority, but because of His character. We cannot love God as He desires to be loved (which is loving Him in truth) without understanding His character.

Quote:
Obedience should come before reason. When the child is capable of understanding, then reason should be enlisted on the side of obedience, obedience that is already there. To wait for understanding before teaching obedience is to give Satan a huge head start, because he doesn't mind unreasonable obedience to his commands.


We're not discussing children but adults. To "obey" God without understanding what one is doing is robotic. This isn't what God desires.

Quote:
There's a long story that goes along with that. But to give you a hint at what's going on, he had a business associate to whom he gave clear directions. This person refused to do what he was told unless my father explained to him why he wanted it done. His words were, "I can easily do it, but first I want to know why I should do it."


This seems reasonable. If we made this request of God, He would explain why. That is, God will give us sufficient evidence as to why we should do what He asks us to do. He won't satisfy every possible question that could come up (not remove all hooks upon which we could hang our doubts, to use EGW's language) because He desires that we act on the basis of free will, and overwhelming someone with evidence would detract from that principles. But providing enough evidence so that a person open to do His will is able to do so is certainly something God does.

Quote:
Did I say my father HAD a business associate?

But he sees no problem in disrespecting God in the same way.


I'm not seeing the disrespect here (although I'm sure there's more going on here than what I'm aware of, so I'm not saying you're misjudging the situation, just that based on what you've said so far, I don't see the disrespect you are speaking of).

Quote:
I don't see any such restrictions in the verse. Before reason comes, we can be taught to obey. Even if reason never comes, we can still be taught to obey.


How is this not robotic?

Quote:
God does not force the will or judgment of any. He takes no pleasure in a slavish obedience. He desires that the creatures of His hands shall love Him because He is worthy of love. He would have them obey Him because they have an intelligent appreciation of His wisdom, justice, and benevolence. And all who have a just conception of these qualities will love Him because they are drawn toward Him in admiration of His attributes.(GC 541)


To "obey" by doing things that have no basis in our reasoning would be the "slavish obedience" that God takes no pleasure in, wouldn't it?
Posted By: asygo

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 11/17/08 02:09 AM

Originally Posted By: asygo
http://www.maritime-sda-online.com/forum...4138#Post104138

1) Which is bigger, the "distance" between children and their parents, or adults and God?

2) Have you ever raised godly children?

3) Did you know that EGW said parents are to be as God to their children?

4) Do you think it is right to worship God simply because He created us?

5) Since you admitted that you don't understand God's character that well, are you then saying that you don't worship or love God that well?
Posted By: asygo

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 11/17/08 05:08 AM

Originally Posted By: Tom
http://www.maritime-sda-online.com/forum...4140#Post104140

I'm interested in your answer to this question:

Quote:
God does not force the will or judgment of any. He takes no pleasure in a slavish obedience. He desires that the creatures of His hands shall love Him because He is worthy of love. He would have them obey Him because they have an intelligent appreciation of His wisdom, justice, and benevolence. And all who have a just conception of these qualities will love Him because they are drawn toward Him in admiration of His attributes.(GC 541)

T:To "obey" by doing things that have no basis in our reasoning would be the "slavish obedience" that God takes no pleasure in, wouldn't it?



1)This isn't a relevant question. The distance between God and adult vs. adult and child isn't the salient feature, but honoring God because we have an intelligent appreciation of His character. A child is limited in its ability to do so, because of a lack of intelligence/reasoning ability etc. This fact remains regardless of how distant an adult is compared to God.

3)Yes.

4)No. God could have been an evil Creator. We should worship God because we are convinced He is worthy of worship.

5)I wouldn't say I "admitted" this, as "admit" makes it sound like I was reticent to say so, which I'm not. I simply stated it.

Why are you asking if I'm saying I don't worship or love God that well? I'm not seeing the relevance in this question. Please answer this.

The answer to your question is no, that's not what I'm saying, but I don't disagree with your conclusion.
Posted By: asygo

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 11/17/08 05:08 AM

Originally Posted By: asygo
http://www.maritime-sda-online.com/forum...4159#Post104159

Originally Posted By: Tom
I'm interested in your answer to this question:

Quote:
God does not force the will or judgment of any. He takes no pleasure in a slavish obedience. He desires that the creatures of His hands shall love Him because He is worthy of love. He would have them obey Him because they have an intelligent appreciation of His wisdom, justice, and benevolence. And all who have a just conception of these qualities will love Him because they are drawn toward Him in admiration of His attributes.(GC 541)

T:To "obey" by doing things that have no basis in our reasoning would be the "slavish obedience" that God takes no pleasure in, wouldn't it?

Not necessarily. That quote corresponds to Ed 287.2. But it is rare if we do not pass through the experience of Ed 287.1 first.

If God intended to leave us at Ed 287.1, that would be slavish obedience. But to pass through Ed 287.1 on the way to Ed 287.2 is trust.

Now, what about #2? That's very important, since we are talking about how our Father deals with us.
Posted By: asygo

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 11/17/08 05:08 AM

Originally Posted By: asygo
http://www.maritime-sda-online.com/forum...4160#Post104160

One more to add:

6) Have you ever been in charge of a group of people in a dangerous situation, and been responsible for getting them through alive?
Posted By: asygo

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 11/17/08 05:09 AM

Originally Posted By: Tom
http://www.maritime-sda-online.com/forum...4171#Post104171

Quote:
Not necessarily. That quote corresponds to Ed 287.2. But it is rare if we do not pass through the experience of Ed 287.1 first.

If God intended to leave us at Ed 287.1, that would be slavish obedience. But to pass through Ed 287.1 on the way to Ed 287.2 is trust.


So you're saying before we can obey God in a reasonable way (i.e, using reason) it is first necessary that we obey Him in a way He does not desire, the "slavish obedience" that EGW speaks of?

Regarding 2, that's a personal question. Regarding 5, you haven't answer my question regarding why you are asking this. Regarding 6, I have the same question. I don't see why you're asking these personal questions.
Posted By: asygo

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 11/17/08 05:09 AM

Originally Posted By: Mountain Man
http://www.maritime-sda-online.com/forum...4197#Post104197

Tom, God required A&E to trust and obey Him before they were familiar with His character. Did that make Him a slave driver?

PS - I have asked you on several occasions if you have children and you have refused every time to answer. I take it the answer is - No. It is significant that you have never raised children, especially as it applies to your opinion about raising children.
Posted By: asygo

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 11/17/08 05:10 AM

Originally Posted By: Tom
http://www.maritime-sda-online.com/forum...4205#Post104205

Quote:
Tom, God required A&E to trust and obey Him before they were familiar with His character. Did that make Him a slave driver?


What makes you think they were unfamiliar with His character? They walked face to face with God every day!

Quote:
PS - I have asked you on several occasions if you have children and you have refused every time to answer. I take it the answer is - No. It is significant that you have never raised children, especially as it applies to your opinion about raising children.


This is a personal question. Arnold's asking me the same question. Boy you guys are nosy!
Posted By: asygo

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 11/17/08 05:11 AM

Originally Posted By: Mountain Man
http://www.maritime-sda-online.com/forum...4225#Post104225

God expected them to obey His law from the first day they were created. They weren't created with a knowledge of His character. On that first day of their lives they were unfamiliar with His character. Nevertheless, God required them to obey His law. There was nothing wrong with God requiring them to obey His law before they were familiar with His character.
Posted By: asygo

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 11/17/08 08:25 AM

Originally Posted By: Tom
http://www.maritime-sda-online.com/forum...4239#Post104239

Quote:
God expected them to obey His law from the first day they were created. They weren't created with a knowledge of His character. On that first day of their lives they were unfamiliar with His character. Nevertheless, God required them to obey His law. There was nothing wrong with God requiring them to obey His law before they were familiar with His character.


God warned them not to eat of the forbidden fruit because if they did something bad would happen to them (they would die). The serpent got them to eat of the forbidden fruit by misrepresenting God's character. This didn't happen the first day they were created. We don't know how long they walked daily with God in the garden, but they had had time to become acquainted with Him. Besides, they would would have been created in harmony with God and His principles; they were created in His image, so His character was inwrought in their very being.
Posted By: asygo

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 11/18/08 02:19 AM

Originally Posted By: Tom
http://www.maritime-sda-online.com/forum...4583#Post104583

God desires that we have an intelligent appreciation of His character, and that we obey Him because we are convinced that His principles are right. Not because He says so, but because we ourselves believe His ways are right and true. He doesn't desire the obedience of a robot, where He says, "do this," and the robot does it.

Quote:
As for us today, I think believing and following God's word are still important.


Certainly this is important, but not for reasons of authority. It's not like the Army, where someone who is in command says something, and the underling does it because he is outranked.

Quote:
Even if I believed that God loves me, and I love Him back, it behooves me to learn what He said, believe them, and obey any instructions He may give.


This is because His ways are right and true. The principles He espouses are the principles of self-sacrificing love, which are the principles of life.
Posted By: asygo

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 11/18/08 02:20 AM

Originally Posted By: asygo
http://www.maritime-sda-online.com/forum...4596#Post104596

Originally Posted By: Tom
God desires that we have an intelligent appreciation of His character, and that we obey Him because we are convinced that His principles are right. Not because He says so, but because we ourselves believe His ways are right and true. He doesn't desire the obedience of a robot, where He says, "do this," and the robot does it.

I disagree with you here, and we'll discuss it more in the other thread where we started it (if I can find it again). You are treating God as your equal, as if you could stand in judgment of His words and decide for yourself if you should or should not follow. He gave 10 Commandments, not 10 Explanations.

When I deal with my kids, I want them to obey because they see the wisdom in my commands. But that sometimes requires more maturity than they currently have. In the meantime, I want them to obey what I said, even if they don't understand why I said it. If they don't, they might not survive long enough to gain the needed maturity. So I want them to trust that I want what's best for them, and I know what I'm doing, even if they don't.

That's how it is with God. If I was as wise as Him, maybe the two of us can sit around and dissect His commands and decide if I concur. But I'm not. So, I obey, with a child-like trust that He wants what's best for me, and He knows what He's doing, even if I don't.

Originally Posted By: Tom
Quote:
As for us today, I think believing and following God's word are still important.

Certainly this is important, but not for reasons of authority. It's not like the Army, where someone who is in command says something, and the underling does it because he is outranked.

If you don't understand the rationale for one of God's commands, or maybe even don't know that God commanded it, do you think there will be negative consequences for doing the opposite of God's will?

Originally Posted By: Tom
Quote:
Even if I believed that God loves me, and I love Him back, it behooves me to learn what He said, believe them, and obey any instructions He may give.

This is because His ways are right and true. The principles He espouses are the principles of self-sacrificing love, which are the principles of life.

Are these principles still in effect if I don't understand why? IOW, is going against God's will inherently hurtful?
Posted By: asygo

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 11/18/08 02:20 AM

Originally Posted By: Tom
http://www.maritime-sda-online.com/forum...4627#Post104627

Quote:
I disagree with you here, and we'll discuss it more in the other thread where we started it (if I can find it again). You are treating God as your equal, as if you could stand in judgment of His words and decide for yourself if you should or should not follow. He gave 10 Commandments, not 10 Explanations.

When I deal with my kids, I want them to obey because they see the wisdom in my commands. But that sometimes requires more maturity than they currently have. In the meantime, I want them to obey what I said, even if they don't understand why I said it. If they don't, they might not survive long enough to gain the needed maturity. So I want them to trust that I want what's best for them, and I know what I'm doing, even if they don't.

That's how it is with God. If I was as wise as Him, maybe the two of us can sit around and dissect His commands and decide if I concur. But I'm not. So, I obey, with a child-like trust that He wants what's best for me, and He knows what He's doing, even if I don't.


Yes, we seem to disagree here. First of all, I am not treating God as my equal; I perceive Him to be as you do. I am guessing for you to say this that you perceive desiring to understand why a certain thing is desired is equivalent to treating someone else as equal(?) That is, I'm a bit perplexed as to why you would think I'm treating God as an equal because I assert that He doesn't desire robotic obedience.

I understand with a young child that you give a command ("Don't cross the street without me!") because they don't understand the danger involved, but I can't think of a counterpart in our case. We are not children, but have reached the age of accountability. What would be an example of something God wants us to do without understanding why?

Quote:
If you don't understand the rationale for one of God's commands, or maybe even don't know that God commanded it, do you think there will be negative consequences for doing the opposite of God's will?


I think this question is based on a false premise, which is that it's possible to do God's will without understanding the why involved. I don't think it's God's will that He says, "Jump!" and we say, "How high?" That's the Army. God's kingdom is moral. It's not based of God's authority, but on His character. It's not run by the principles of force, but on the basis of love, and love must be freely given, and must be based on understanding.

Quote:
Are these principles still in effect if I don't understand why? IOW, is going against God's will inherently hurtful?


If God's will is that you understand His principles, it's not possible to do His will without understanding why. Or, to put it another way, a fundamental part of His principles is that the why be understood.
Posted By: asygo

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 11/18/08 02:21 AM

Originally Posted By: asygo
http://www.maritime-sda-online.com/forum...4644#Post104644

Just a quickie...

Originally Posted By: Tom
I am guessing for you to say this that you perceive desiring to understand why a certain thing is desired is equivalent to treating someone else as equal(?) That is, I'm a bit perplexed as to why you would think I'm treating God as an equal because I assert that He doesn't desire robotic obedience.

There is no problem with wanting to understand. In fact, there would be a problem with not wanting to understand.

But requiring understanding BEFORE rendering obedience is a problem. That would be treating God as an equal, because you are putting yourself as the final arbiter of what should or should not be done.
Posted By: asygo

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 11/18/08 02:21 AM

Originally Posted By: Tom
http://www.maritime-sda-online.com/forum...4649#Post104649

I don't think obedience is possible without understanding, so I wouldn't view this as a "requirement," in terms of, "I refuse to do this unless I understand" but it's a requirement in terms of God "requires" that we understand before we can obey; or, to put it another way, obedience without understanding is not something desire by God, nor of interest to Him, because He doesn't care for slavish, or robotic, obedience.
Posted By: asygo

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 11/18/08 02:22 AM

Originally Posted By: Mountain Man
http://www.maritime-sda-online.com/forum...4673#Post104673

Obedience based on faith, hope, and charity, rather than on understanding, is beautiful - not robotic.

Does anyone have an example of a situation where obedience is rendered in spite of not knowing why it is required?
Posted By: asygo

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 11/18/08 02:23 AM

Finally finished copying posts! If I missed any, please add them here.

The thread is now open for discussion.
Posted By: asygo

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 11/18/08 03:04 AM

Originally Posted By: Mountain Man
Does anyone have an example of a situation where obedience is rendered in spite of not knowing why it is required?

With my emphasis...
Quote:
It was this implicit faith in God that made Moses what he was. According to all that the Lord had commanded, so did he. All the learning of the wise men could not make him a channel for God's working. But when he lost his self-confidence, and, realizing his helplessness, put his entire trust in God; when he was willing to obey Heaven's commands, whether they seemed to human reason proper or not, then the Lord could work mightily through him. {ST, July 12, 1905 par. 8}

What if, in the place of looking as Christ commanded them, they had said, "I do not believe it will do me the least bit of good to look. I am too great a sufferer from the sting of the poisonous serpent." Obedience was the object to be gained, implicit and blind obedience, without stopping to inquire the reason or the science of the matter. Christ's word was, "Look and live." ... {OHC 20.2}

None were compelled to look upon the brazen serpent. All could look and live, or distrust the simple provision God had made, refuse to look, and die. The people of God may not always see the reason for his requirements, and may not be able to understand his dealings with them; yet it is not their part to question and doubt his purposes. The lifelong recipients of his favor, they should yield him ready and willing obedience. All his commands are founded in infinite love and wisdom; and though we may not fully understand his purpose here, yet we shall know hereafter. {ST, October 28, 1880 par. 13}

One more, from the father of faith.
Quote:
Abraham might have pleaded that he was old and feeble, and could not sacrifice the son who was the joy of his life. He might have reminded the Lord that this command conflicted with the promise that had been given in reference to his son. But his obedience was without a murmur or a reproach. His trust in God was implicit. He did not stay to reason with his aching heart, but carried out the divine command to the very letter, till, just as the knife was about to be plunged into the quivering flesh of his child... {ST, June 2, 1887 par. 9}

That is the obedience we are expected to render.
Posted By: asygo

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 11/18/08 03:12 AM

Originally Posted By: Tom
Quote:
As for us today, I think believing and following God's word are still important.

Certainly this is important, but not for reasons of authority. It's not like the Army, where someone who is in command says something, and the underling does it because he is outranked.

Since you brought up the army, here's one from the SOP on that:
Quote:
Every good soldier is implicit and prompt in the obedience he renders to his captain. The will of the commander is to be the will of the soldier. Sometimes the soldier may be surprised at the command given, but he is not to stop to inquire the reason for it. When the order of the captain crosses the wishes of the soldier, he is not to hesitate and complain, saying, I see no consistency in these plans. He must not frame excuses and leave his work undone. Such soldiers would not be accepted as fitted to engage in earthly conflicts, and much more will they not be accepted in Christ's army. When Christ commands, His soldiers must obey without hesitation. They must be faithful soldiers, or He cannot accept them. Freedom of choice is given to every soul, but after a man has enlisted, he is required to be as true as steel, come life or come death.--Manuscript 7 1/2, 1900. {Ev 648.1}

Even in the perfection of heaven, implicit obedience was required:
Quote:
He stood up proudly and urged that he should be equal with God, and should be taken into conference with the Father and understand his purposes. God informed Satan that to his Son alone he would reveal his secret purposes, and he required all the family in heaven, even Satan, to yield him implicit, unquestioned obedience; but that he (Satan) had proved himself unworthy a place in heaven. {ST, January 9, 1879 par. 9}
Posted By: asygo

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 11/18/08 03:22 AM

Originally Posted By: Tom
I don't think obedience is possible without understanding, so I wouldn't view this as a "requirement," in terms of, "I refuse to do this unless I understand" but it's a requirement in terms of God "requires" that we understand before we can obey; or, to put it another way, obedience without understanding is not something desire by God, nor of interest to Him, because He doesn't care for slavish, or robotic, obedience.

What do you think of the handful of quotes I just posted? Moses and Abraham were commended for obeying in spite of a lack of understanding. Satan was condemned for failing to render unquestioned obedience. The Israelites were doomed to die if they stopped to reason before obeying the command.

Originally Posted By: Tom
I wouldn't view this as a "requirement," in terms of, "I refuse to do this unless I understand"

Originally Posted By: Tom
I think I agree with your father, if I'm understand what you're saying correctly. That is, God doesn't require obedience before requiring understanding. ... But if he sees no reason to do something that he doesn't understand, I think he's right.

If you were Aaron, and just found out that you are not to mourn for your burned up sons, would you immediately understand why God would require such a thing? If not, would you still do as He said? Or do you think it's OK to do something contrary to God's instructions if you don't understand the reason for it?
Posted By: Mountain Man

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 11/18/08 04:26 AM

Arnold, thank you for posting examples of people rendering obedience without understanding why it was required.
Posted By: asygo

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 11/18/08 08:13 AM

Here's another one:
Quote:
Jesus does not ask this sufferer to exercise faith in Him. He simply says, "Rise, take up thy bed, and walk." But the man's faith takes hold upon that word. Every nerve and muscle thrills with new life, and healthful action comes to his crippled limbs. Without question he sets his will to obey the command of Christ, and all his muscles respond to his will. Springing to his feet, he finds himself an active man. {DA 202.3}

Jesus had given him no assurance of divine help. The man might have stopped to doubt, and lost his one chance of healing. But he believed Christ's word, and in acting upon it he received strength. {DA 203.1}

"Without question he sets his will to obey the command of Christ." That's what I'm talking about.
Posted By: Mountain Man

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 11/19/08 02:42 AM

What is the origin and source of such faith and obedience?
Posted By: asygo

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 11/19/08 08:06 AM

Certainly, God is the source of the initial seed of faith. And I'm pretty sure that He is also the source of its growth, through various manifestations of His character. But I don't have anything solid.
Posted By: Tom

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 11/19/08 10:36 AM

Quote:
“No longer do I call you servants, for a servant does not know what his master is doing; but I have called you friends, for all things that I heard from My Father I have made known to you.” (John 15:15)
Posted By: asygo

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 11/19/08 06:27 PM

Was EGW wrong? Or are you misapplying Christ's words and making them more universal than He intended?

Or maybe, Jesus was saying, "I tell you WHAT I am doing" as opposed to, "I explain everything to you so you know WHY I command certain things." There's a huge difference.
Posted By: asygo

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 11/19/08 08:22 PM

Originally Posted By: Tom
Quote:
Not necessarily. That quote corresponds to Ed 287.2. But it is rare if we do not pass through the experience of Ed 287.1 first.

If God intended to leave us at Ed 287.1, that would be slavish obedience. But to pass through Ed 287.1 on the way to Ed 287.2 is trust.

So you're saying before we can obey God in a reasonable way (i.e, using reason) it is first necessary that we obey Him in a way He does not desire, the "slavish obedience" that EGW speaks of?

You misunderstand what I'm saying.

"If God intended to leave us at Ed 287.1, that would be slavish obedience." That means slavish obedience requires the intent to "leave us at Ed 287.1."

"But to pass through Ed 287.1 on the way to Ed 287.2 is trust." That means that if Ed 287.1 only happens "on the way to Ed 287.2" - as a temporary situation until one arrives at Ed 287.2 - then it is implicit, even "blind," obedience.

BTW, this post highlights one reason why I put little stock in your historical evidence and arguments (from other threads). You sometimes have difficulty understanding things that are very clear, such as my reply re: Ed 287.1 and Ed 287.2. I thought it was very plain, but you somehow missed the most crucial part of my statement.
Posted By: Tom

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 11/19/08 09:16 PM

Quote:
Was EGW wrong? Or are you misapplying Christ's words and making them more universal than He intended?


I could just as easily ask, "Was Jesus wrong? Or are you misapplying her words and making them more universal than she intended?"

I doubt Ellen White intended to contradict Jesus.

Regarding Jesus' intent, it seems pretty clear. He calls us "friends" because a "servant" does not know what his master is doing. This goes along perfectly with Ellen White's idea that God does not desire a slavish obedience.

Quote:
BTW, this post highlights one reason why I put little stock in your historical evidence and arguments (from other threads). You sometimes have difficulty understanding things that are very clear, such as my reply re: Ed 287.1 and Ed 287.2. I thought it was very plain, but you somehow missed the most crucial part of my statement.


Why shouldn't I respond the same way, Arnold? You often have difficulty understanding things that are very clear to me. Should I therefore put little stock in your arguments?

It's seems pretty incredible to me that you would just not consider the historical evidence because you think I don't understand some things which are clear to you. For almost a century, there were no pre-lapsarian statements from any SDA publication. I think 1947 was the first year anything appeared, when something appeared in a Ministry magazine.

The historical argument is very strong. It's easy to interpret Ellen White in different ways, but not so easy to deal with the historical facts.

The same principle applies to Scripture. For example, Paul is interpreted in many different ways, but if one considers the historical setting, certain interpretations can be ruled out, even if grammatically they might be possible.
Posted By: asygo

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 11/19/08 11:10 PM

Originally Posted By: Tom
Quote:
Was EGW wrong? Or are you misapplying Christ's words and making them more universal than He intended?

I could just as easily ask, "Was Jesus wrong? Or are you misapplying her words and making them more universal than she intended?"

You could, but it would be misapplied. You are a competent enough logician to easily see why that is.

You are making a universal claim that God never requires obedience before understanding. To refute that universal claim, I only need to find one counterexample. I found several.

I, OTOH, am not making a universal claim. I don't claim that the examples I posted are always the way it works. I am saying that God neither requires nor forbids understanding before obedience. He requires obedience, whether or not you understand the reasons for His commands. An example of either obedience without understanding or obedience with understanding poses no problem for me whatsoever.

Originally Posted By: Tom
Regarding Jesus' intent, it seems pretty clear. He calls us "friends" because a "servant" does not know what his master is doing. This goes along perfectly with Ellen White's idea that God does not desire a slavish obedience.

You said (with my emphasis), "He calls us 'friends' because a 'servant' does not know WHAT his master is doing." That is true, and I agree with you.

However, you extrapolate that to mean that Jesus expects us to always know WHY He does something. Furthermore, you claim that God does not want us to obey a command unless we understand its rationale. Both are unwarranted from the verse you cited, or from any other verse I can think of.
Posted By: asygo

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 11/19/08 11:25 PM

Originally Posted By: Tom
Quote:
BTW, this post highlights one reason why I put little stock in your historical evidence and arguments (from other threads). You sometimes have difficulty understanding things that are very clear, such as my reply re: Ed 287.1 and Ed 287.2. I thought it was very plain, but you somehow missed the most crucial part of my statement.

Why shouldn't I respond the same way, Arnold? You often have difficulty understanding things that are very clear to me. Should I therefore put little stock in your arguments?

It's not a matter of difficulty of understanding (or in some cases, simply disagreeing) the subject. But it is seeing that which is not there, and not seeing that which is.

Look at our short exchange:
Originally Posted By: Tom
Quote:
If God intended to leave us at Ed 287.1, that would be slavish obedience. But to pass through Ed 287.1 on the way to Ed 287.2 is trust.

So you're saying before we can obey God in a reasonable way (i.e, using reason) it is first necessary that we obey Him in a way He does not desire, the "slavish obedience" that EGW speaks of?

You interpretation of my statement is so foreign to my intent that it could even be considered diametrically opposed to my meaning. I'm not saying you did that on purpose, but it happened anyway. And if this can happen to something so recent and simple as our discussion, how much more likely it is to happen when studying articles written over a century ago, involving the evolution of ideas which span decades.

Originally Posted By: Tom
For almost a century, there were no pre-lapsarian statements from any SDA publication.

With the notable exception of the SOP. There are many statements about Jesus not being just like us.
Posted By: Tom

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 11/20/08 03:17 AM

Regarding obedience and understanding, I am questioning that it is possible to render obedience without understanding.

Secondly, I have stated God does not desire a slavish obedience. Do we agree on this point?

Third, I quoted Jesus Christ saying that we are friends, and not servants, because a servant does not know what His master does. Doesn't this agree with the principles I've been suggesting?

Ok, I see from your response later on that you don't understand this to mean that we should know why the master is doing something. So your idea is that we are called friends because we are told what God does, but not why. This seems like a weird understanding of friendship to me. I understand the concept of friend to include implicitly why as well as what. A friend is someone with whom you share confidences; indeed, this seems to have been Jesus' whole point in saying this. To a servant you simply say, "Do!," and the servant does. To a friend, however, one shares confidences, and hopes for understanding and cooperation. It's a completely different mind-set.

Quote:
For almost a century, there were no pre-lapsarian statements from any SDA publication.

With the notable exception of the SOP.


No, not excepting her. This isn't a viable historical possibility, which is my point. The historical points involve her

a.Explicitly endorsing post-lapsarian teachings.
b.Explicitly defending post-lapsarian teachings that she was a part of.
c.Her contemporaries including her in their post-lapsarian understandings.

For example, on the last point "c," S. N. Haskell, to demonstrate that "we" believed that Christ took the nature of Adam after the fall read from the Desire of Ages, and stated:

Quote:
This is fallen humanity with all its hereditary inclinations. He who was as spotless while on earth as when in heaven took our nature, that he might lift man to the exaltation of himself by his righteousness.


Ellen White was aware of what S. N. Haskell wrote.

It's hard to conceive how all of EGW's contemporaries could be post-lapsarian, and believe that EGW was a post-lapsarian, quote her with her knowledge to establish this point, while in reality she was believing something completely different, without anyone knowing it, while endorsing people whole would be in reality holding a different view than hers.
Posted By: Mountain Man

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 11/23/08 06:53 PM

Originally Posted By: Tom
“No longer do I call you servants, for a servant does not know what his master is doing; but I have called you friends, for all things that I heard from My Father I have made known to you.” (John 15:15)

Tom, does this passage describe your walk in the Lord? That is, do you understand everything as clearly as Jesus did while He was here?
Posted By: Tom

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 11/25/08 04:20 AM

The passage describes Jesus' intent for His followers. He desires that we be not servants, but friends. Why? Because He has told us about His Father.

The passage is not specifically describing my experience. It's as applicable to you or me or anyone else who chooses to respond to Jesus' wishes.
Posted By: Mountain Man

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 11/25/08 09:10 PM

Jesus was speaking to His disciples. He said, "All things that I heard from My Father I have made known to you." This doesn't describe His "intent" for His followers; instead, it simply says Jesus made known to them everything He heard from His Father. It refers to content not intent.

Yes, this applies to everyone today who understands and obeys and observes everything Jesus commanded. People like this, people in this state, have attained unto the sinlessness Adam enjoyed in Eden. Listen:

Those only who through faith in Christ obey all of God's commandments will reach the condition of sinlessness in which Adam lived before his transgression. They testify to their love of Christ by obeying all His precepts (MS 122, 1901). {6BC 1118.10}

When enlightened by the Spirit of God, the believer beholds the perfection of Jesus, and beholding this perfection, he rejoices with joy unspeakable. In self he sees sin and helplessness; in the Redeemer [he sees] sinlessness and infinite power. The sacrifice that Christ made in order that He might impart to us His righteousness--this is a theme upon which we may dwell with deeper and still deeper enthusiasm. {SD 124.2}

Matthew
28:18 And Jesus came and spake unto them, saying, All power is given unto me in heaven and in earth.
28:19 Go ye therefore, and teach all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost:
28:20 Teaching them to observe all things whatsoever I have commanded you: and, lo, I am with you alway, [even] unto the end of the world. Amen.

Posted By: Tom

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 11/25/08 11:52 PM

The intent is that we be not servants but friends. God does not desire a slavish obedience, but desires that we have an intelligent appreciation of His attributes of character, and that our obedience spring from that appreciation.
Posted By: Mountain Man

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 11/26/08 08:55 PM

True, but He also requires obedience even when we do not understand why. God does not require obedience on condition we understand why.
Posted By: Tom

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 11/27/08 08:41 AM

Quote:
God does not require obedience on condition we understand why.


I don't see how your suggestion here can be the case, MM, because God does not desire a slavish obedience:

Quote:
God does not force the will or judgment of any. He takes no pleasure in a slavish obedience. He desires that the creatures of His hands shall love Him because He is worthy of love. He would have them obey Him because they have an intelligent appreciation of His wisdom, justice, and benevolence. And all who have a just conception of these qualities will love Him because they are drawn toward Him in admiration of His attributes.(GC 541)


If what you are suggesting were the case, then it would not be true that God takes no pleasure in a slavish obedience, because requiring obedience without understanding would be requiring slavish obedience.

Slavish obedience = Obedience without understanding
Posted By: Mountain Man

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 11/27/08 09:00 PM

I disagree.

Slavish obedience = grudgingly obeying God

"He would have them obey Him because they have an intelligent appreciation of His wisdom, justice, and benevolence." Not because they understand all the reasons why He requires them to obey Him in this or that way. Abraham was willing to kill Isaac because he guessed God would resurrect him, not because he understood why.
Posted By: asygo

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 11/27/08 10:12 PM

Originally Posted By: Tom
Slavish obedience = Obedience without understanding

Have you read the SOP examples I posted? If you are correct, then Abraham and Moses rendered "slavish obedience." If the Israelites wanted to live through the snake bite, God required "slavish obedience" from them, if you are correct.

But MM is correct on this point. Understanding is nice, but not necessary in order to obey.

What you have in mind is not obedience, at least not as described by the Holy Spirit. Rather, it is concurrence. It is treating God as a friend, rather than a father.
Posted By: Tom

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 11/28/08 02:47 AM

Arnold, you didn't post the quotes here, but referred to them, so I have to surmise which you are referring to. Looking back over the posts on this thread, I see which one which speaks of Abraham's being willing to sacrifice his son, and another speaking of looking and living to be cured of the serpent's bite. These are the ones it seemed to me you would most likely be referring to.

Let's consider these acts in relation to the quote I cited:

Quote:
God does not force the will or judgment of any. He takes no pleasure in a slavish obedience. He desires that the creatures of His hands shall love Him because He is worthy of love. He would have them obey Him because they have an intelligent appreciation of His wisdom, justice, and benevolence. And all who have a just conception of these qualities will love Him because they are drawn toward Him in admiration of His attributes.(GC 541)


Is this the case regarding Abraham? Certainly. It was because Abraham had a conviction regarding God's character that he acted as he did. He was convinced that God is love, and was also convinced that God would resurrect his son from death.

Regarding looking and living, those who were bit might not understand how God would cure them. Similarly we cannot understand how the Holy Spirit is able to create a new life in our soul when we respond to His presentation of Christ crucified for us.

The point here is that God does not remove any hooks upon which we can hang our doubts. He provides enough evidence that we can make an intelligent decision, but does not remove every occasion for our having doubt. I'm not saying that every single thing must be understood before a person can render obedience, but that obedience requires understanding.

I think it would be helpful to get the context for our present conversation. Let's consider something you said, which led into this discussion:

Quote:
For example, my father does not keep the Sabbath. Why? Because he, along with the rest of his church, does not see any reason why God would require it. They believe that every day is as holy as any other. They are too proud to think that God can require their obedience before He requires their understanding.


Here you perceive your father to be doing wrong because he is "too proud" to think that God can require them to obey the Sabbath without their knowing why. I think your father is right not to obey the Sabbath, if he sees no reason to. I think the problem may not be with your father, but with those who have been seeking to educate him regarding the Sabbath, if he is unable to see any reason why it should be kept.

Now I'm not privy to enough information to make a judgment in regards to this case. I'm simply speaking of the general principles involved. There are plenty of good reasons for keeping the Sabbath, so it shouldn't be difficult to present an argument which brings out these points. It certainly couldn't be argued that God expects us to keep the Sabbath for no good reason.

Quote:
All whom God has blessed with reasoning powers are to become intellectual Christians. They are not requested to believe without evidence; therefore Jesus has enjoined upon all to search the Scriptures. Let the ingenious inquirer, and the one who would know for himself what is truth, exert his mental powers to search out the truth as it is in Jesus. (Review and Herald, March 8, 1887)


Quote:
God gives sufficient evidence to every soul. He does not promise to remove every doubt, but He gives a reason for faith. (RH 1/24/99)


To give further context to our discussion, it began with the idea that God will zap our memories so that we cannot remember any sins that we have committed. This was based on (IMO) a forced interpretation of the Spirit of Prophecy, taking her words literally to convey a meaning she did not intend. I pointed out that the interpretation being suggested is contrary to common sense, and offered the following interpretation in its place:

Quote:
Though all the record of all our sin, even though written with the finger of God, were erased, the sin would remain, because the sin is in us. Though the record of our sin were graven in the rock, and the rock should be ground to powder—even this would not blot out our sin.

The blotting out of sin is the erasing of it from nature, the being of man.

The erasing of sin is the blotting of it from our natures, so that we shall know it no more. 'The worshippers once purged' [Hebrews 10:2, 3]—actually purged by the blood of Christ—have 'no more conscience of sins,' because the way of sin is gone from them. Their iniquity may be sought for, but it will not be found. It is forever gone from them—it is foreign to their new natures, and even though they may be able to recall the fact that they have committed certain sins, they have forgotten the sin itself—they do not think of doing it any more. This is the work of Christ in the true sanctuary" (The Review and Herald, September 30, 1902).


This is an interpretation given by one who was a contemporary of Ellen White, and was able to be corrected by her if he was speaking out of turn. This interpretation has the advantage of making perfect sense.

Anyway, this was the context of the conversation we are now having regarding whether or not understanding is a necessary component of obedience. To be clear, my point is not that we have to understand all things in order to render obedience, but that understanding is a component of obedience.

To obey without any understanding whatever would be slavish obedience. Indeed, I cannot think of a better definition of such than this.

To consider understanding a "nice to have" seems to me to be particularly dangerous. Let me simply ask, if you are going do something about which you have no understanding, how can you know you are obeying God and not the enemy?
Posted By: asygo

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 11/28/08 07:13 AM

Originally Posted By: Tom
Arnold, you didn't post the quotes here, but referred to them, so I have to surmise which you are referring to. Looking back over the posts on this thread, I see which one which speaks of Abraham's being willing to sacrifice his son, and another speaking of looking and living to be cured of the serpent's bite. These are the ones it seemed to me you would most likely be referring to.

I had this long response, very insightful, and would have settled this issue forever wink , but clumsy fingers pressed Ctrl+Shift+W. Those who use Firefox know what this does. cry Anyway....

Here are the quotes:
Quote:
It was this implicit faith in God that made Moses what he was. According to all that the Lord had commanded, so did he. All the learning of the wise men could not make him a channel for God's working. But when he lost his self-confidence, and, realizing his helplessness, put his entire trust in God; when he was willing to obey Heaven's commands, whether they seemed to human reason proper or not, then the Lord could work mightily through him. {ST, July 12, 1905 par. 8}

What if, in the place of looking as Christ commanded them, they had said, "I do not believe it will do me the least bit of good to look. I am too great a sufferer from the sting of the poisonous serpent." Obedience was the object to be gained, implicit and blind obedience, without stopping to inquire the reason or the science of the matter. Christ's word was, "Look and live." ... {OHC 20.2}

None were compelled to look upon the brazen serpent. All could look and live, or distrust the simple provision God had made, refuse to look, and die. The people of God may not always see the reason for his requirements, and may not be able to understand his dealings with them; yet it is not their part to question and doubt his purposes. The lifelong recipients of his favor, they should yield him ready and willing obedience. All his commands are founded in infinite love and wisdom; and though we may not fully understand his purpose here, yet we shall know hereafter. {ST, October 28, 1880 par. 13}

Regarding "army" obedience:
Quote:
Every good soldier is implicit and prompt in the obedience he renders to his captain. The will of the commander is to be the will of the soldier. Sometimes the soldier may be surprised at the command given, but he is not to stop to inquire the reason for it. When the order of the captain crosses the wishes of the soldier, he is not to hesitate and complain, saying, I see no consistency in these plans. He must not frame excuses and leave his work undone. Such soldiers would not be accepted as fitted to engage in earthly conflicts, and much more will they not be accepted in Christ's army. When Christ commands, His soldiers must obey without hesitation. They must be faithful soldiers, or He cannot accept them. Freedom of choice is given to every soul, but after a man has enlisted, he is required to be as true as steel, come life or come death.--Manuscript 7 1/2, 1900. {Ev 648.1}

He stood up proudly and urged that he should be equal with God, and should be taken into conference with the Father and understand his purposes. God informed Satan that to his Son alone he would reveal his secret purposes, and he required all the family in heaven, even Satan, to yield him implicit, unquestioned obedience; but that he (Satan) had proved himself unworthy a place in heaven. {ST, January 9, 1879 par. 9}


Does your paradigm accept this kind of "blind obedience"?
Posted By: Tom

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 11/28/08 07:50 AM

Quote:
God does not force the will or judgment of any. He takes no pleasure in a slavish obedience. He desires that the creatures of His hands shall love Him because He is worthy of love. He would have them obey Him because they have an intelligent appreciation of His wisdom, justice, and benevolence. And all who have a just conception of these qualities will love Him because they are drawn toward Him in admiration of His attributes.


Does your paradigm accept this kind of "intelligent appreciation"?

Quote:
God might have created man without the power to transgress His law; He might have withheld the hand of Adam from touching the forbidden fruit; but in that case man would have been, not a free moral agent, but a mere automation. Without freedom of choice, his obedience would not have been voluntary, but forced. There could have been no development of character. . . . It would have been unworthy of man as an intelligent being, and would have sustained Satan's charge of God's arbitrary rule. (Conflict and Courage page 13)


Quote:
The law of love being the foundation of the government of God, the happiness of all intelligent beings depends upon their perfect accord with its great principles of righteousness. God desires from all His creatures the service of love--service that springs from an appreciation of His character. He takes no pleasure in a forced obedience; and to all He grants freedom of will, that they may render Him voluntary service. (LHU 50)


Quote:
Christ attaches a weight of importance to the obedience of His people to the commandments of God. They are to have an intelligent knowledge of them, and bring them into their daily life. (This Day With God page 142)


Quote:
God gives sufficient evidence to every soul. He does not promise to remove every doubt, but He gives a reason for faith. (RH 1/24/99)


These quotes are bringing out the points I've been trying to make.

I'm interested in your answer to this question:

Quote:
If you are going to do something about which you have no understanding, how can you know you are obeying God and not the enemy?
Posted By: asygo

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 11/28/08 11:01 AM

Originally Posted By: Tom
Quote:
God does not force the will or judgment of any. He takes no pleasure in a slavish obedience. He desires that the creatures of His hands shall love Him because He is worthy of love. He would have them obey Him because they have an intelligent appreciation of His wisdom, justice, and benevolence. And all who have a just conception of these qualities will love Him because they are drawn toward Him in admiration of His attributes.

Does your paradigm accept this kind of "intelligent appreciation"?

Of course it does. I will try to explain this again, for the third time. Quote from post #104884:
Quote:
"If God intended to leave us at Ed 287.1, that would be slavish obedience." That means slavish obedience requires the intent to "leave us at Ed 287.1."

"But to pass through Ed 287.1 on the way to Ed 287.2 is trust." That means that if Ed 287.1 only happens "on the way to Ed 287.2" - as a temporary situation until one arrives at Ed 287.2 - then it is implicit, even "blind," obedience.

Does that make any sense? "Intelligent appreciation" is a good thing. In case you missed it, "intelligent appreciation" is a good thing.

But I do not make it my god. My brain is too small and weak to trust its intelligence as the basis of my life. I would rather trust the God of heaven.

Originally Posted By: Tom
<snip>

These quotes are bringing out the points I've been trying to make.

But nobody is disputing that God wants us to understand what He's saying and doing. The problem is that you say it is impossible to obey without understanding, while the SOP has a number of examples to the contrary.

Originally Posted By: Tom
I'm interested in your answer to this question:

Quote:
If you are going to do something about which you have no understanding, how can you know you are obeying God and not the enemy?

Like, for example, someone telling Abraham to kill his son, and him knowing that it was God telling him that, and not Satan? But when Satan tried to get Jesus to sin by quoting Scripture to Him, Jesus wasn't fooled? I suppose His sheep know His voice. I can't give you a foolproof algorithm to tell the difference, because it is probably a spiritual matter, not an intellectual one.

How about you? If you read instructions in the Bible for which you could not discern an acceptable rationale, would you disregard it until you understood why? Or would you consider the possibility that human wisdom is infantile in comparison to God's, and that you're simply not as smart as God?

I'll redo something I wrote in my lost post.

When I lived in the jungle, I learned the importance of quick and complete obedience. Living in such a place with a wife and a toddler is a serious matter. If I gave a command and someone took the time to ask for an explanation before obeying, it could be disastrous. The time it takes to find out why may be the time it takes for a wild boar to insert its tusk in your abdomen or for a cobra to bite your foot. The choice to immediately obey when you hear, "Stop!" may be the difference between standing on solid ground or taking the first step down a cliff.

That's why I asked you if you have ever led a group through a dangerous situation. I have an idea what it's like to be a leader and a follower in such a group. Mutual trust - trust to the point of immediate and complete obedience - is not optional.

Aren't you of the belief that if God wasn't constantly protecting us, all hell would break loose, snakes would be biting us, we would be killing each other, and all sorts of other bad things would happen as an immediate result? Our sin-marred environment is a dangerous place. If we don't trust God implicitly, we won't make it through alive.

Those who obey His word because they trust Him, lack of understanding notwithstanding, are being guided by One who has been through it before and came out fine. Those who need an explanation for everything are being guided by the faulty reasoning of a sin-damaged mind. The choice looks pretty simple to me.
Posted By: Tom

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 11/29/08 09:19 AM

Quote:
Does that make any sense? "Intelligent appreciation" is a good thing. In case you missed it, "intelligent appreciation" is a good thing.


I can understand your being frustrated, but let's keep the tone of the conversation friendly, OK?

Quote:
But I do not make it my god. My brain is too small and weak to trust its intelligence as the basis of my life. I would rather trust the God of heaven.


On the one hand, you say that "intelligent appreciation" is a good thing, even emphasizing the point, but on the other hand you write, "I would rather trust the God of heaven." This implies you perceive a tension between the two, that trusting in the God of heaven is better than intelligent appreciation. But if God desires intelligent appreciation, wouldn't it be the case that intelligent appreciation would be the fruit of trusting Him?

Quote:
How about you? If you read instructions in the Bible for which you could not discern an acceptable rationale, would you disregard it until you understood why?


If the instructions I read were something I didn't discern an acceptable rationale, there would have to be a reason I did not deem it acceptable. The two main criteria I would have would be the law of God, and the life and teachings of Christ. So there's a good chance I would disregard it, if I saw some disharmony there.

Here's a hypothetical question we may consider: If a voice told you to kill someone, would you do it?

A point I've been dwelling on is that God does not desire a slavish obedience. What is a slavish obedience? Isn't it the obedience of a slave, who does something simply because his master says, "do!"? He doesn't question, or even think, about they why; he just does what he's told.

I hear Jesus say that we are "not servants, but friends,"

Quote:
Henceforth I call you not servants; for the servant knoweth not what his lord doeth: but I have called you friends; for all things that I have heard of my Father I have made known unto you.(John 15:15)


This seems to me to be diametrically opposed to a slavish disobedience. What's the difference between a slavish disobedience and the obedience of a friend? It seems to me it's that a slave just does, whereas a friend is given a confidence.

You've mentioned that you see Ed. 278.1 as a temporary situation, on the way to Ed. 278.2. So may I infer from this is that the only thing you are disagreeing with me is regarding 278.1? Or, to phrase this question another way, let's say I agreed with you regarding Ed. 278.1, would you then be in agreement with me?
Posted By: Mountain Man

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 12/02/08 04:34 AM

Tom, I agree with the point Arnold made regarding making our ability to grasp and comprehend why God commands us to obey Him the criteria of rendering obedience. It is better to obey than to delay. It is better to obey now and to ask questions later.
Posted By: asygo

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 12/02/08 05:04 AM

Originally Posted By: Mountain Man
It is better to obey than to delay.

I like that.
Posted By: Tom

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 12/02/08 05:36 AM

This is assuming we can obey without understanding. It seems unlikely to me this is even possible. For example, consider the commandment "Remember the Sabbath day, to keep it holy." How can this be kept without understanding?
Posted By: asygo

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 12/02/08 07:24 AM

Originally Posted By: Tom
This is assuming we can obey without understanding. It seems unlikely to me this is even possible. For example, consider the commandment "Remember the Sabbath day, to keep it holy." How can this be kept without understanding?

While understanding its full meaning may take a while, one can immediately obey what is clearly written: don't work on the Sabbath, don't have people work for you on the Sabbath, etc. Not understanding the fine details is no excuse to disregard the obvious.

Let's look at another commandment: Thou shalt not kill. Jesus said that if you hate your brother, you have killed him. The SOP tells us that killing oneself slowly by unhealthy habits constitutes breaking that command. Many people, including SDAs, do not understand those fine details. Does that mean that one who doesn't really know all that the law entails should feel free to whack his annoying neighbor, since he doesn't really understand that law anyway?

In my view, the answer is a definite No. You might not understand all there is to understand, but you can do what you know. So if God tells you not to eat a certain fruit, stay away from it even if you don't understand why. If you obey, you may survive long enough to find out why.

Take the commandment against idols. A few weeks after God gave that one, the Israelites were bowing down to a golden calf. Can we say that the Israelites fully understood the command against idolatry? I've been thinking about that commandment for years, and I'm pretty sure I still don't fully understand it; I doubt the Israelites, fresh out of slavery, had much of an idea after a few weeks. However, God still required them to obey, and when they broke its obvious requirement, they got in big trouble.

So, back to the 4th commandment, if God says to keep the Sabbath day, we should trust that He knows what He's talking about, and He's looking out for our best interests, and do what He says to the best of our ability and knowledge. Disregarding His plain command will be painful for you, because if it wasn't, He wouldn't have commanded what He did. You just have to trust Him if you lack understanding.
Posted By: Tom

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 12/02/08 08:51 AM

You wrote this earlier:

Quote:
For example, my father does not keep the Sabbath. Why? Because he, along with the rest of his church, does not see any reason why God would require it. They believe that every day is as holy as any other. They are too proud to think that God can require their obedience before He requires their understanding.


You write that your father, and other's are "too proud to think that God can require their obedience before He requires their understanding." because they feel every day is as holy as any other. What would you have them to do? Keep the Sabbath, even though they have no conviction it is a holy day? Why would they do this? Why would this please God?

Quote:
Disregarding His plain command will be painful for you, because if it wasn't, He wouldn't have commanded what He did. You just have to trust Him if you lack understanding.


Wouldn't it be better to gain understanding?

Quote:
But if any of you needs wisdom, you should ask God for it. He is generous to everyone and will give you wisdom without criticizing you.(James 1:5)


If God takes no pleasure in a slavish obedience, why would He want us to obey without understanding? Or, to ask another question, what would it say about God to suggest that He would want us to do what He says without caring if we understand why?

Jesus said that we were no longer servants, but friends, because He communicated to us all that He had received from His Father. Doesn't this suggest that God wants us to cooperate with Him from a foundation of understanding?
Posted By: asygo

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 12/02/08 10:59 AM

Originally Posted By: Tom
You wrote this earlier:

Quote:
For example, my father does not keep the Sabbath. Why? Because he, along with the rest of his church, does not see any reason why God would require it. They believe that every day is as holy as any other. They are too proud to think that God can require their obedience before He requires their understanding.

You write that your father, and other's are "too proud to think that God can require their obedience before He requires their understanding." because they feel every day is as holy as any other. What would you have them to do? Keep the Sabbath, even though they have no conviction it is a holy day? Why would they do this? Why would this please God?

Answer this first: Did God just command that on a whim, like some kind of arbitrary requirement? Or did He have a good reason to do it?

Your questions seem to imply that disregarding what God commanded is not inherently bad, as if God arbitrarily imposes bad consequences for going against His stated instructions.
Posted By: asygo

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 12/02/08 11:11 AM

Originally Posted By: Tom
Quote:
Disregarding His plain command will be painful for you, because if it wasn't, He wouldn't have commanded what He did. You just have to trust Him if you lack understanding.

Wouldn't it be better to gain understanding?

Quote:
But if any of you needs wisdom, you should ask God for it. He is generous to everyone and will give you wisdom without criticizing you.(James 1:5)

If God takes no pleasure in a slavish obedience, why would He want us to obey without understanding? Or, to ask another question, what would it say about God to suggest that He would want us to do what He says without caring if we understand why?

Gaining understanding is surely better. But I do not hold the view that I can understand everything God has in mind. Like Paul, I often see that His ways are past finding out.

You seem to see only two extreme options: we understand everything, or God doesn't care if we understand anything. You are missing a ginormous area in between. That's where most of us live.
Posted By: asygo

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 12/02/08 11:35 AM

Originally Posted By: Tom
Jesus said that we were no longer servants, but friends, because He communicated to us all that He had received from His Father. Doesn't this suggest that God wants us to cooperate with Him from a foundation of understanding?

Jesus also said that God is our Father. And as any father will tell you, even the best children are, obviously, still children. When they ask "why" (and they do that a lot), you want to help them understand, but there are times when the situation is beyond their capacity to understand. For such cases, for their own safety and well-being, they need to trust that Daddy knows best, even if they don't understand. It's basic father stuff.

As for being friends, when my friends seek my help, they trust that my advice to them is for their good. They don't need (and often don't want) me to go into the details of electromagnetic theory and Newton's laws of motion before they will follow my advice to defrag their drives to improve computer performance. Our relationship as friends gives them peace of mind, even without asking why, because they trust me.

Those who don't trust me always ask lots of questions before obeying. And when the math gets too difficult and they can't handle it anymore, they stop listening to the explanation. And the tell-tale sign that they don't trust me? They don't follow my instructions.

Yes, God wants a foundation of understanding. But more fundamental than that, God wants a foundation of faith. Grace comes through faith, not understanding. Even those who are too dumb to understand, and I fall into this category for many things, can still partake of God's grace through faith.
Posted By: Tom

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 12/03/08 01:52 AM

Quote:
But more fundamental than that, God wants a foundation of faith.


Agreed. The foundation of faith is a right concept of God's character.

Quote:
God does not force the will or judgment of any. He takes no pleasure in a slavish obedience. He desires that the creatures of His hands shall love Him because He is worthy of love. He would have them obey Him because they have an intelligent appreciation of His wisdom, justice, and benevolence. And all who have a just conception of these qualities will love Him because they are drawn toward Him in admiration of His attributes. (GC 543)


God desires an obedience based on a right conception of His character, which is the foundation of faith. This agrees with the idea that He does not desire a slavish obedience, one which is not based on understanding.
Posted By: asygo

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 12/03/08 08:12 PM

Originally Posted By: Tom
God desires an obedience based on a right conception of His character, which is the foundation of faith. This agrees with the idea that He does not desire a slavish obedience, one which is not based on understanding.

Understanding His character, but not necessarily understanding the reasons for His commands. Those are two different things.
Posted By: Mountain Man

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 12/04/08 08:26 AM

Tom, does God expect us to obey His commandments even if we don't completely understand all the reasons why? Is it still a sin if we choose not obey a certain commandment until after we understand all the reasons why?
Posted By: Tom

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 12/05/08 05:44 AM

Quote:
T:God desires an obedience based on a right conception of His character, which is the foundation of faith. This agrees with the idea that He does not desire a slavish obedience, one which is not based on understanding.

A:Understanding His character, but not necessarily understanding the reasons for His commands. Those are two different things.[quote]

Jesus said He calls us "servants, not friends" because a servant does not know what His master is doing. This indicates, to me, that God intends that we understand the reasons behind His commands. In addition, I understand the statement from the SOP saying that God does not desire a slavish obedience to be communicating the same idea that Jesus is in John 15.

[quote]M:Tom, does God expect us to obey His commandments even if we don't completely understand all the reasons why?


Yes. I've pointed this out. You may wish to re-look at the thread, this latter part. See the comments about having hooks upon which to hang our doubts.

Quote:
Is it still a sin if we choose not obey a certain commandment until after we understand all the reasons why?


A sin is when you know something is right and you choose not to do it, or if you know something is wrong and you choose not to do it anyway. You can know something is right (or wrong) without knowing *all* the reasons why. Indeed, we'll never understand everything. That wouldn't be in harmony with the principle of free will. God doesn't overwhelm us with evidence. He gives us enough evidence to make a well informed, reasonable decision. He won't remove every hook upon which we can hang a doubt.
Posted By: asygo

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 12/05/08 06:04 AM

Originally Posted By: Tom
A sin is when you know something is right and you choose not to do it, or if you know something is wrong and you choose not to do it anyway.

If God said to keep the 7th day holy, as opposed to another day holy or every day as equally holy, is the fact that God said it enough for you to conclude that it is right to do that?

Conversely (or is that inversely), if God said to not do something, is that enough for you to conclude that it is wrong to do that?

IOW, is God's word, apart from your understanding of His word, a sufficient guide to determine what is right or wrong? IOW, in case the first set didn't make sense, if God said it, is that good enough for you?
Posted By: Tom

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 12/05/08 06:36 AM

Quote:
T:A sin is when you know something is right and you choose not to do it, or if you know something is wrong and you choose not to do it anyway.

If God said to keep the 7th day holy, as opposed to another day holy or every day as equally holy, is the fact that God said it enough for you to conclude that it is right to do that?


I don't think this would be enough for God. That is, God is not interested in an obedience which would be based on something arbitrary, like His simply saying something with no reason at all. I don't think God wants us to do what He says for no other reason than "I said so."

Quote:
Conversely (or is that inversely), if God said to not do something, is that enough for you to conclude that it is wrong to do that?


Certainly God is trustworthy, so His saying not to do something is reason enough not to do the thing, but I don't believe He is interested in an obedience based simply on His say so.

Quote:
IOW, is God's word, apart from your understanding of His word, a sufficient guide to determine what is right or wrong?


I don't see how this makes sense. God's word, apart from someone understanding it, doesn't mean anything, it seems to me. I guess it's like the question if a tree falling in the woods makes a sound if nobody hears it.

Quote:
IOW, in case the first set didn't make sense, if God said it, is that good enough for you?


You mean like "God said it. I believe it. That settles it." This seems to me like a description of slavish obedience. This doesn't seem like "I have called you friends, not servants."

You have asked me a bunch of questions about what's good enough for me, but I don't think this is the issue. The issue is what's good enough for God, and I don't think an obedience based on nothing other than "I said so" is good enough.
Posted By: asygo

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 12/05/08 07:36 AM

Originally Posted By: Tom
The issue is what's good enough for God, and I don't think an obedience based on nothing other than "I said so" is good enough.

I gave this historical evidence earlier, but you didn't address it. I'll try again.

God gave the Israelites 10 commandments, rather than 10 explanations. Yet, He still expected them to do as He said while He was meeting with Moses and giving him more details. And when they disregarded His "say so" He almost wiped them out for it.

The Biblical evidence is that God's word is binding, with or without an explanation.
Posted By: Tom

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 12/05/08 08:26 AM

Quote:
I gave this historical evidence earlier, but you didn't address it. I'll try again.

God gave the Israelites 10 commandments, rather than 10 explanations. Yet, He still expected them to do as He said while He was meeting with Moses and giving him more details. And when they disregarded His "say so" He almost wiped them out for it.


What is this from? Is this just your idea, or are you quoting this from something?

Quote:
The Biblical evidence is that God's word is binding, with or without an explanation.


I don't think God is like what you're implying. I think the ideas you are presenting here are diametrically opposed to those taught by Jesus when He said, "I no longer call you servants but friends."

It seems you and I have very different ideas as to God's character.
Posted By: asygo

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 12/05/08 08:59 AM

Originally Posted By: Tom
Quote:
I gave this historical evidence earlier, but you didn't address it. I'll try again.

God gave the Israelites 10 commandments, rather than 10 explanations. Yet, He still expected them to do as He said while He was meeting with Moses and giving him more details. And when they disregarded His "say so" He almost wiped them out for it.

What is this from? Is this just your idea, or are you quoting this from something?

Exodus. Around the section the 10 commandments.

Originally Posted By: Tom
Quote:
The Biblical evidence is that God's word is binding, with or without an explanation.

I don't think God is like what you're implying. I think the ideas you are presenting here are diametrically opposed to those taught by Jesus when He said, "I no longer call you servants but friends."

It seems you and I have very different ideas as to God's character.

While God is your buddy, God is my Daddy. Yes, we may have very different ideas.

Do you ever submit to your friends?
Posted By: Tom

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 12/05/08 10:07 AM

Exodus doesn't say anything about 10 explanations. I disagree with your take on what happened in Exodus. I don't believe God "wipes people out" because they don't do what He says. Jesus Christ was the revelation of God. Did He wipe people out because they didn't do what He said? No, He allowed Himself to suffer the most atrocious death rather than "wipe them out." He could have "wiped them out," as He explained to Peter, but this simply isn't God's character, as Jesus explained:

Quote:
54And when his disciples James and John saw this, they said, Lord, wilt thou that we command fire to come down from heaven, and consume them, even as Elias did?

55But he turned, and rebuked them, and said, Ye know not what manner of spirit ye are of.

56For the Son of man is not come to destroy men's lives, but to save them.(Luke 9:54-56)


This is God's character! Rather than "wiping out" those who don't do what He says, He gives His life for them.


Quote:
The Biblical evidence is that God's word is binding, with or without an explanation.

I don't think God is like what you're implying. I think the ideas you are presenting here are diametrically opposed to those taught by Jesus when He said, "I no longer call you servants but friends."

It seems you and I have very different ideas as to God's character.

While God is your buddy, God is my Daddy. Yes, we may have very different ideas.

Do you ever submit to your friends?


That God is our Father is not opposed to the idea that He is our friend. Abraham was called the "friend of God," and he is the father of all who believe.
Posted By: asygo

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 12/05/08 10:45 AM

Originally Posted By: Tom
Exodus doesn't say anything about 10 explanations.

BINGO!
Posted By: asygo

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 12/05/08 10:47 AM

Originally Posted By: Tom
Quote:
While God is your buddy, God is my Daddy. Yes, we may have very different ideas.

Do you ever submit to your friends?

That God is our Father is not opposed to the idea that He is our friend. Abraham was called the "friend of God," and he is the father of all who believe.

You didn't answer my question.
Posted By: Tom

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 12/05/08 08:01 PM

Yes.
Posted By: Tom

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 12/05/08 08:03 PM

(Repost)

Exodus doesn't say anything about 10 explanations. I disagree with your take on what happened in Exodus. I don't believe God "wipes people out" because they don't do what He says. Jesus Christ was the revelation of God. Did He wipe people out because they didn't do what He said? No, He allowed Himself to suffer the most atrocious death rather than "wipe them out." He could have "wiped them out," as He explained to Peter, but this simply isn't God's character, as Jesus explained:

Quote:

54And when his disciples James and John saw this, they said, Lord, wilt thou that we command fire to come down from heaven, and consume them, even as Elias did?

55But he turned, and rebuked them, and said, Ye know not what manner of spirit ye are of.

56For the Son of man is not come to destroy men's lives, but to save them.(Luke 9:54-56)



This is God's character! Rather than "wiping out" those who don't do what He says, He gives His life for them.


Quote:

A:The Biblical evidence is that God's word is binding, with or without an explanation.

T:I don't think God is like what you're implying. I think the ideas you are presenting here are diametrically opposed to those taught by Jesus when He said, "I no longer call you servants but friends."

It seems you and I have very different ideas as to God's character.

A:While God is your buddy, God is my Daddy. Yes, we may have very different ideas.

Do you ever submit to your friends?


That God is our Father is not opposed to the idea that He is our friend. Abraham was called the "friend of God," and he is the father of all who believe.
Posted By: Mountain Man

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 12/06/08 11:57 PM

Tom, I'm having a hard time understanding your position and understanding what you're opposing. It sounds like you agree God expects us to obey Him even if we don't understand all the reasons why. You also seem to admit that God wants us to seek answers as to why He requires us to obey because He prefers intelligent obedience. Then you seem to argue that God's ultimate goal is for us to obey Him as friends. There seems to be a progression.

If this is what you believe, and I'm not just misunderstanding you, then it sounds like people who obey God before they understand all the reasons why, are not rendering intelligent obedience, nor are they acting like God's friends.
Posted By: Tom

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 12/07/08 06:18 AM

MM, there's a context to this discussion. It started with the idea that God will zap our memories so that we no longer remember certain things. This is based on what I perceive to be an overly literal interpretation of a statement by Ellen White. I've presented the explanation of this statement by Waggoner, a contemporary of Ellen White who wrote at a time when Ellen White could have responded to correct him had he been wrong. Waggoner's explanation makes perfect sense to me.

From that discussion arose the current one. In the former discussion Arnold made the following comment, which is also posted on this thread:

Quote:
For example, my father does not keep the Sabbath. Why? Because he, along with the rest of his church, does not see any reason why God would require it. They believe that every day is as holy as any other. They are too proud to think that God can require their obedience before He requires their understanding.


I've taken issue with this idea. I don't believe the problem here (just based on this small description; of course, I'm sure there's much more to what's going on than this small description) looks to be that Arnold's father, along with the rest of his church, is too proud, but that they don't understand that there is a reason that they should keep the Sabbath.

This isn't a question of understanding "all the reasons why" but of not understanding *any* reason why. If you read through the thread, you will see I've pointed out that God will not remove every hook upon which a doubt could be hanged, which is akin to understanding "all the reasons why." "All the reasons why" has not been what this discussion has been regarding.
Posted By: asygo

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 12/07/08 07:32 PM

Originally Posted By: Tom
This isn't a question of understanding "all the reasons why" but of not understanding *any* reason why.

If a person believes just two simple facts - God is good, God is wise - they will consider "God said so" as not just *any* reason, but a *really good* reason to obey. Anything short of that reveals a misapprehension of God's character.

BTW, you left out an important piece of context. My father gave instructions to a business associate, without giving any reasons for it. When the person refused to do it unless my father gave him a reason, my father cut off all business dealings with him. He said, "When I give instructions, he needs to obey, whether or not he knows my reasons for it."

Then I asked him, "Why don't you do that when God gives you instructions that you can't think of reasons for?" He changed the subject.
Posted By: Tom

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 12/08/08 09:14 AM

Quote:
If a person believes just two simple facts - God is good, God is wise - they will consider "God said so" as not just *any* reason, but a *really good* reason to obey. Anything short of that reveals a misapprehension of God's character.


I don't think this is the basis upon which God wants us to obey the principles of His government. I think He wants us to obey them because *we* have a conviction that these principles are right and true.

Again, the issue is not what's good enough for us, but what's good enough for God. I agree that it would be enough for *us* to simply do whatever God says, since God is good and wise, but, as I've been saying, I don't believe this is good enough for God. This would be the obedience of a slave. That's not what God wants. Jesus said that He's called not servants, but friends because a servant does not know what his master does, but He has told us all things. I understand this to mean that God desires obedience based on an intelligent understanding of His principles.

Quote:
BTW, you left out an important piece of context. My father gave instructions to a business associate, without giving any reasons for it. When the person refused to do it unless my father gave him a reason, my father cut off all business dealings with him. He said, "When I give instructions, he needs to obey, whether or not he knows my reasons for it."

Then I asked him, "Why don't you do that when God gives you instructions that you can't think of reasons for?" He changed the subject.


I think he was wrong in his attitude towards his business associate. This wouldn't affect his being correct in regards to not keeping a day for which he saw no reason.
Posted By: asygo

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 12/08/08 08:09 PM

But the problem is that you are advocating disobeying God's clear instructions until YOU are good and ready to obey. That is not faith. And whatever your theories are about what does or does not please God regarding obedience and understanding, it is impossible to please God without faith.
Posted By: asygo

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 12/08/08 08:20 PM

And if God wasn't expecting you to do what He says, why would He tell you in the first place? Basically, you're saying that God sometimes gives us commands that He does not want us to obey. Opposed to that, I believe He gives us everything we need to walk in His will, including whatever light may be lacking.
Posted By: Tom

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 12/08/08 09:55 PM

Quote:
But the problem is that you are advocating disobeying God's clear instructions until YOU are good and ready to obey.


No, I've never said this.

Quote:
That is not faith. And whatever your theories are about what does or does not please God regarding obedience and understanding, it is impossible to please God without faith.


If faith involves understanding, then this is harmony with what I've been saying.

Quote:
And if God wasn't expecting you to do what He says, why would He tell you in the first place? Basically, you're saying that God sometimes gives us commands that He does not want us to obey.


No, I haven't been saying this. I've been saying that God does not desire slavish obedience. I've been saying it's not enough for God that He simply tells us what to do, and we do it, with no understanding of why. If we have no idea what we're doing, or why, how would we even know we are following God? This seems like a perfect formula for following an impostor.

Quote:
Opposed to that, I believe He gives us everything we need to walk in His will, including whatever light may be lacking.


If I'm arguing that obedience includes understanding, that means it includes light, so what you're writing here would not be in opposition to what I've been discussing, but in harmony with it.
Posted By: Mountain Man

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 12/09/08 10:16 PM

Tom, it sounds like you're saying God expects us to obey Him so long as we understand at least one of all the reasons why. You also seem to think that expecting us to obey Him because He said so does not count as a reason why, that obeying Him simply because He said so would constitute slavish obedience, something God would never expect or require of us. Did I hear you right?

You've mentioned a few times you believe God's goal is for us to obey Him as friends rather than as servants. You seem to think the difference has to do fully informed obedience versus partially informed obedience. But, in cases where God has only revealed some of the reasons why, wouldn't it be impossible to obey Him as friends rather than as servants?

So the question is - If God is okay with people obeying Him as servants, because He hasn't revealed enough reasons to obey Him as friends, why would obedience under such circumstances be viewed less favorably since it is God who is to blame?
Posted By: Tom

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 12/10/08 02:11 AM

Quote:
Tom, it sounds like you're saying God expects us to obey Him so long as we understand at least one of all the reasons why. You also seem to think that expecting us to obey Him because He said so does not count as a reason why, that obeying Him simply because He said so would constitute slavish obedience, something God would never expect or require of us. Did I hear you right?


We should obey God if we are convicted to do so. Such conviction should include reason as an element, as God does not desire a slavish obedience from us. I don't believe it is enough for *God* to give a command to us for no other reason than "I said so."

Quote:
You've mentioned a few times you believe God's goal is for us to obey Him as friends rather than as servants.


I've quoted what Jesus said, that He has called us "not servants but friends," and that He explained the reason why as being because a servant does not know what His master is doing. I have suggested that EGW's statement that God does not desire a slavish obedience from us is in harmony with Jesus' teaching.

Quote:
You seem to think the difference has to do fully informed obedience versus partially informed obedience.


No. I don't think I've written anything to indicate this. I've been discussing the difference between an obedience in which reason plays no part vs. an obedience in which reason does play a part.

Quote:
But, in cases where God has only revealed some of the reasons why, wouldn't it be impossible to obey Him as friends rather than as servants?


No.

Quote:
So the question is - If God is okay with people obeying Him as servants, because He hasn't revealed enough reasons to obey Him as friends, why would obedience under such circumstances be viewed less favorably since it is God who is to blame?


Your premise is false. God isn't OK with what you're suggesting; He does not desire a slavish obedience.
Posted By: asygo

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 12/10/08 04:42 AM

Originally Posted By: Tom
Quote:
But the problem is that you are advocating disobeying God's clear instructions until YOU are good and ready to obey.

No, I've never said this.

Then what do you mean when you say that my father is right to not keep the 7th day, even though it is clear that God said to keep the 7th day, just because he doesn't think there's a good enough reason to do it? And having been an SDA for 20 years, he's probably heard a few sermons and studies on this. But then, it's not just the Sabbath that is unnecessary, but all of God's law.

BTW, the leader of his church was an SDA elder for many years, running countless evangelistic and revival meetings. His father was a pastor who was very prominent in the Filipino SDA community. His father-in-law was such an influential figure in the history of Adventism in the Philippines that the book he wrote on evangelism is the standard text used to this day among the lay people, and is referred to, not by the title, but by the author's last name. So it's not likely that ignorance is a factor there either.
Posted By: Tom

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 12/10/08 09:21 AM

Quote:
A:But the problem is that you are advocating disobeying God's clear instructions until YOU are good and ready to obey.

T:No, I've never said this.

A:Then what do you mean when you say that my father is right to not keep the 7th day, even though it is clear that God said to keep the 7th day, just because he doesn't think there's a good enough reason to do it?


Not if it wasn't clear to him.

Regarding the rest of your post, I wasn't commenting on any of this, but simply on the point that I quoted, which had to do with your comment that your father was "too proud to think that God can require their obedience before He requires their understanding."
Posted By: asygo

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 12/10/08 08:25 PM

Originally Posted By: Tom
Quote:
A:But the problem is that you are advocating disobeying God's clear instructions until YOU are good and ready to obey.

T:No, I've never said this.

A:Then what do you mean when you say that my father is right to not keep the 7th day, even though it is clear that God said to keep the 7th day, just because he doesn't think there's a good enough reason to do it?

Not if it wasn't clear to him.

That assumes that God gives unclear instructions. I think He is more competent than that.

And that assumes my father can't understand plain English. I can guarantee that he is more competent than that.
Posted By: teresaq

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 12/10/08 11:28 PM

Originally Posted By: asygo
Originally Posted By: Tom
Quote:
A:But the problem is that you are advocating disobeying God's clear instructions until YOU are good and ready to obey.

T:No, I've never said this.

A:Then what do you mean when you say that my father is right to not keep the 7th day, even though it is clear that God said to keep the 7th day, just because he doesn't think there's a good enough reason to do it?

Not if it wasn't clear to him.

That assumes that God gives unclear instructions. I think He is more competent than that.

snipped


not really, i dont think. i was born into this church, like many others, and "knew" our doctrines and beliefs. but over the years ive had "aha" moments, then i did know.

before i didnt understand how people could not see the importance of the sabbath or see it clearly but i can better now. it doesnt have anything to do with "Gods competence". it has to do with our mental dullness for one and with the fact that God works on us individually. i mean God may be working on other issues with any particular individual.
Posted By: asygo

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 12/11/08 05:43 AM

Originally Posted By: teresaq
Originally Posted By: asygo

That assumes that God gives unclear instructions. I think He is more competent than that.

snipped

not really, i dont think. i was born into this church, like many others, and "knew" our doctrines and beliefs. but over the years ive had "aha" moments, then i did know.

before i didnt understand how people could not see the importance of the sabbath or see it clearly but i can better now. it doesnt have anything to do with "Gods competence". it has to do with our mental dullness for one and with the fact that God works on us individually. i mean God may be working on other issues with any particular individual.

I've had my aha moments as well. There were times of clarity when I said, "Oh, so that's what He meant about keeping the day holy."

However, there has never been a time when I said, "Oh, so He meant don't go to work when He said 'thou shalt not do any work' on the Sabbath" or "Oh, so He meant the seventh day when He said 'seventh day,' not any day I want."

There are some things that are clearer than others. But confusion in the things that are unclear is not a license to disregard the things that are clear.

I should note that there were times when I did go to work on the Sabbath. But that was not because I didn't understand, but because I rebelled.
Posted By: Tom

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 12/11/08 05:50 AM

Quote:
That assumes that God gives unclear instructions. I think He is more competent than that.


Communication involves a sender and receiver. The sender in this case is competent, but not necessarily the receiver.

Quote:
And that assumes my father can't understand plain English. I can guarantee that he is more competent than that.


I was just taking your statement at fact value. As I pointed out, I'm not privy to additional information.
Posted By: asygo

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 12/11/08 06:19 AM

Originally Posted By: Tom
Quote:
That assumes that God gives unclear instructions. I think He is more competent than that.

Communication involves a sender and receiver. The sender in this case is competent, but not necessarily the receiver.

Right. And your stance makes your obedience dependent on your competence. I don't trust my competence that much.

If I were you, I would obey, regardless of my competence or lack thereof. Walk in the light you have, and you'll be better able to receive more light to clear up any confusion.
Posted By: Tom

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 12/11/08 11:00 AM

Quote:
A:That assumes that God gives unclear instructions. I think He is more competent than that.

T:Communication involves a sender and receiver. The sender in this case is competent, but not necessarily the receiver.

A:Right. And your stance makes your obedience dependent on your competence. I don't trust my competence that much.


Obedience depends upon faith. Faith depends upon understanding. You don't need to put trust, or have faith, in your competence, but trust, or faith, depends upon understanding.

God has given to each one a measure of faith. He has made us in His image, with the ability to reason. God desires that we use our ability to reason to weigh the evidence and act accordingly. He does not desire a slavish obedience which does not involve the mind or reason. This isn't to say that faith is only reason, or understanding, but these are certainly elements of faith.

Quote:
If I were you, I would obey, regardless of my competence or lack thereof. Walk in the light you have, and you'll be better able to receive more light to clear up any confusion.


If you have no understanding, you have no light; you just have darkness.
Posted By: asygo

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 12/11/08 11:09 AM

If one believes that "Keep the seventh day holy by abstaining from work" is so complicated so as to make it impossible to obey, then it is he who has no understanding. Tom, you sound like my 10-year-old daughter when she's making up a bunch of excuses to avoiding doing that which she does not want to do.

Faith depends upon understanding - understanding God's character. If one has not the faith to obey God's word apart from the approval of fallen man, he has not the faith that will gain him entrance into eternal bliss, for his faith is in himself.
Posted By: Tom

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 12/11/08 11:50 AM

Quote:
If one believes that "Keep the seventh day holy by abstaining from work" is so complicated so as to make it impossible to obey, then it is he who has no understanding.


Who is suggesting this?

Quote:
Tom, you sound like my 10-year-old daughter when she's making up a bunch of excuses to avoiding doing that which she does not want to do.


How so? Really, I don't understand why you would take the suggestion that God does not desire a slavish obedience, but wants us to obey Him based on reason and understanding as "making up a bunch of excuses" for doing something one does not wish to do.

The issue isn't us, but God. It is God who does not desire a slavish obedience. If He did, then He would ask us to do things for no reason.

Quote:
Faith depends upon understanding - understanding God's character. If one has not the faith to obey God's word apart from the approval of fallen man, he has not the faith that will gain him entrance into eternal bliss, for his faith is in himself.


I'm not seeing the connection here to our discussion, but I agree what you wrote here.
Posted By: asygo

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 12/11/08 07:56 PM

Originally Posted By: Tom
Quote:
If one believes that "Keep the seventh day holy by abstaining from work" is so complicated so as to make it impossible to obey, then it is he who has no understanding.

Who is suggesting this?

You are, by saying that my father is correct in his disregard of God's plain instructions. You and he, apparently, both require convincing rather than commanding.

Originally Posted By: Tom
Quote:
Tom, you sound like my 10-year-old daughter when she's making up a bunch of excuses to avoiding doing that which she does not want to do.

How so? Really, I don't understand why you would take the suggestion that God does not desire a slavish obedience, but wants us to obey Him based on reason and understanding as "making up a bunch of excuses" for doing something one does not wish to do.

Those who have ever raised smart but unwise kids know exactly what I'm talking about. This is, whether you realize it or not, a parenting issue. God is our Father, but you think you are qualified to enter into His thought processes before you are required to obey. You're not that smart; none of us are. As the Bible said, His ways are past finding out.

Originally Posted By: Tom
The issue isn't us, but God. It is God who does not desire a slavish obedience. If He did, then He would ask us to do things for no reason.

But what you say God does not require, the Bible record has shown that He does. So my conclusion is that your understanding of "slavish obedience" is not the same as inspiration's. Your position is incongruent with the SOP I quoted about "blind obedience" and how God's army works.

Originally Posted By: Tom
Quote:
Faith depends upon understanding - understanding God's character. If one has not the faith to obey God's word apart from the approval of fallen man, he has not the faith that will gain him entrance into eternal bliss, for his faith is in himself.

I'm not seeing the connection here to our discussion, but I agree what you wrote here.

Here's the connection: You require your own stamp of approval before you will do what God commands. For you, God's love and God's wisdom are insufficient reason to obey; you require a more compelling reason, namely, Tom's wisdom. That is trusting in the arm of flesh.

When my 10yo gets into this sort of foolishness, she is invariably unhappy. I point out to her that she feels that way because she has no peace, and that is because, deep down, she is scared that instead of being raised by wise parents, she is being raised by an unwise 10-year-old. When you make your understanding a requirement for obedience, you are being led by Tom, not the Spirit. And we know who are the children of God - those led by the Spirit.

Your persistence in thinking of God as a friend, while correct, has made you lose sight of the truth that He is our Father, first and foremost. It is a dangerous position you are in.
Posted By: Mountain Man

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 12/12/08 09:29 PM

Quote:
We should obey God if we are convicted to do so. Such conviction should include reason as an element, as God does not desire a slavish obedience from us. I don't believe it is enough for *God* to give a command to us for no other reason than "I said so."

In the case of the Sabbath commandment, God simply said rest because I rested. Is that reason enough to obey as a friend rather than as a servant or as a slave?

What about the stranger within thy gates? What is the status of their obedience - friend or servant or slave?

Is obeying God as a servant or as a slave acceptable to Him? Or, is it no better than rebelling?
Posted By: Mountain Man

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 12/12/08 09:33 PM

Originally Posted By: asygo
. . . require convincing rather than commanding.

Nicely worded.
Posted By: Tom

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 12/14/08 08:31 AM

Quote:
M:If one believes that "Keep the seventh day holy by abstaining from work" is so complicated so as to make it impossible to obey, then it is he who has no understanding.

T:Who is suggesting this?

M:You are, by saying that my father is correct in his disregard of God's plain instructions. You and he, apparently, both require convincing rather than commanding.


Arnold, I'm an SDA. I don't know why you make this comment in regards to me. Obviously I don't believe the Sabbath commandment is over-complicated. Regarding your father, I said nothing of the sort that he was correct in his disregard of God's plain instructions. You said that he was too proud to believe God would require obedience without understanding. I took issue with what you said here. God does not desire a slavish obedience.

Regarding your convincing vs. commanding comment, we are told that God does not desire slavish obedience, and that Jesus said He calls us "friends, not servants. I agree with these sentiments.

There are untold numbers of Christians who do not keep the Sabbath. Do you think they are all guilty of what you accuse me and your father of?

Quote:
T:How so? Really, I don't understand why you would take the suggestion that God does not desire a slavish obedience, but wants us to obey Him based on reason and understanding as "making up a bunch of excuses" for doing something one does not wish to do.

A:Those who have ever raised smart but unwise kids know exactly what I'm talking about. This is, whether you realize it or not, a parenting issue. God is our Father, but you think you are qualified to enter into His thought processes before you are required to obey. You're not that smart; none of us are. As the Bible said, His ways are past finding out.


I think this analogy, on this particular point, fails badly because children before the age of accountability to not have the capability to reason things out like an adult would.

Quote:
God never asks us to believe, without giving sufficient evidence upon which to base our faith.... Yet God has never removed the possibility of doubt. Our faith must rest upon evidence, not demonstration. Those who wish to doubt will have opportunity; while those who really desire to know the truth, will find plenty of evidence on which to rest their faith." Steps to Christ 105


This is exactly what I've been saying.

Quote:
T:The issue isn't us, but God. It is God who does not desire a slavish obedience. If He did, then He would ask us to do things for no reason.

A:But what you say God does not require, the Bible record has shown that He does. So my conclusion is that your understanding of "slavish obedience" is not the same as inspiration's. Your position is incongruent with the SOP I quoted about "blind obedience" and how God's army works.


I've quoted what Jesus Christ said. Your ideas are incongruent with what He said.

Quote:
Here's the connection: You require your own stamp of approval before you will do what God commands.


I disagree. I've been pointing out that *God* requires that we render an obedience by faith based on evidence, as stated above in SC.

Quote:
For you, God's love and God's wisdom are insufficient reason to obey; you require a more compelling reason, namely, Tom's wisdom. That is trusting in the arm of flesh.


For God, His commanding "blind obedience" without reference to reason or evidence is not desirable. God does not wish a slavish obedience. This isn't "Tom's wisdom." There are plenty more quotes like the above in SC:

Quote:
God gives sufficient evidence for the candid mind to believe." Testimonies, vol. 4, p. 232


Quote:
God gives sufficient evidence to every soul. He does not promise to remove every doubt, but He gives a reason for faith. And sufficient evidence was given to the Jews." Review and Herald, January 24, 1899


Quote:
Those who desire to doubt will have plenty of room. God does not propose to remove all occasion for unbelief. He gives evidence, which must be carefully investigated with a humble mind and teachable spirit. All should decide from the weight of evidence. Review and Herald, Sept. 16, 1873, emphaisis mine


Quote:
There is always sufficient evidence upon which to base an intelligent faith. But God will never remove from any man all occasion for doubts. Those who love to dwell in the atmosphere of doubt and questioning unbelief can have the unenviable privilege. He who turns from the weight of evidence because there are a few things that he cannot make plain to his finite understanding, will be left to the cold, chilling atmosphere of unbelief and skepticism, and will make shipwreck of faith. Signs of the Times, December 30, 1886


Quote:
Your persistence in thinking of God as a friend, while correct, has made you lose sight of the truth that He is our Father, first and foremost. It is a dangerous position you are in.


You seem to have the idea that because God is our Father, that means He wants obedience that is not based on evidence or reason. It seems to me that precisely because God is a kind and wise Father that He does not desire a slavish obedience.

Quote:
Here is an example of intelligent prayer,--an appeal to the reason and the sympathy of Jehovah; and Moses' prayer was answered, because God is reasonable and compassionate. The sorrows of his people touch his heart of love; and will he not hear our prevailing prayer? Will not our very urgency be regarded? His loving-kindness faileth not. As a kind Father, he does not mock the miseries of his children. (The Signs of the Times , August 14, 1884)


This speaks of God's being "reasonable," and of His being a "kind Father." These go hand in hand.

It seems to me that it is the idea that God would be pleased with an obedience which involves neither evidence nor reason that is dangerous.
Posted By: Tom

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 12/14/08 08:37 AM

Quote:
In the case of the Sabbath commandment, God simply said rest because I rested.


No He didn't. As an SDA, you should know there were reasons other than this to keep that Sabbath.

Quote:
Is that reason enough to obey as a friend rather than as a servant or as a slave?


This is a FOTAP question. God gave more reasons than this.

Quote:
What about the stranger within thy gates? What is the status of their obedience - friend or servant or slave?


This is a FOTAP question. Their obedience is not in question in the commandment, which is directed to the master of the house, not the stranger.

Quote:
Is obeying God as a servant or as a slave acceptable to Him? Or, is it no better than rebelling?


If a person has the mentality of an ignorant slave, and wishes to obey, I don't see why God would refuse such. God is very gracious, and may accept things He does not desire. But He would prefer us to be "friends, not servants," as Jesus explained.
Posted By: asygo

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 12/14/08 11:40 AM

Originally Posted By: Tom
You seem to have the idea that because God is our Father, that means He wants obedience that is not based on evidence or reason.

Let me try this again for the 4th time: "Intelligent appreciation" is a good thing. (I'm going to be an expert at copy/paste before this is over, it seems.)

Why do you keep saying I believe something that I obviously do not? It is a straw man, and is beneath one of your skills as a logician.

Furthermore, I think I explained before that trusting that 1) God is good, and 2) God is wise constitute a good reason to do what He says. At least, for some of us it does. We walk by faith, not by sight - as in, "seeing" that He has a good reason for commanding what He does.
Posted By: asygo

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 12/14/08 11:59 AM

Originally Posted By: Tom
Regarding your convincing vs. commanding comment, we are told that God does not desire slavish obedience, and that Jesus said He calls us "friends, not servants. I agree with these sentiments.

Jesus also says that God is our Father, and that a wise father commands his children. My view accommodates both convincing and commanding.

Originally Posted By: Tom
I've quoted what Jesus Christ said. Your ideas are incongruent with what He said.

So, the SOP about "blind obedience" is incongruent with Christ's teachings? I don't trust my hermeneutics enough to say that.

Originally Posted By: Tom
It seems to me that precisely because God is a kind and wise Father that He does not desire a slavish obedience.

A kind and wise Father would not allow His children to raise themselves.

Since I live in a dangerous place, I expect complete and immediate obedience, whether or not my children concur with or even know my reasons. Only after they walk in the light they already have - my instructions - will they be in a position to receive more light - my explanations. But their faith in following my instructions before they get my explanations may prove crucial to them surviving long enough to hear my explanations.

If you've ever been in a position to have charge of souls, I don't need to spell it out. If not, no amount of spelling will make you see what I see.
Posted By: asygo

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 12/14/08 12:05 PM

Originally Posted By: Tom
Quote:
T:How so? Really, I don't understand why you would take the suggestion that God does not desire a slavish obedience, but wants us to obey Him based on reason and understanding as "making up a bunch of excuses" for doing something one does not wish to do.

A:Those who have ever raised smart but unwise kids know exactly what I'm talking about. This is, whether you realize it or not, a parenting issue. God is our Father, but you think you are qualified to enter into His thought processes before you are required to obey. You're not that smart; none of us are. As the Bible said, His ways are past finding out.

I think this analogy, on this particular point, fails badly because children before the age of accountability to not have the capability to reason things out like an adult would.

It works fine.

What is greater, the gap between an infant's reasoning ability and his father's, or your reasoning ability and you Heavenly Father's? You seem to think that while an infant cannot understand his father, and therefore must fully trust his father's judgment, you have a better chance and understanding the reasons for God's judgments.

I believe that no matter how "adult" or smart or wise we get, His ways are still past finding out.
Posted By: Tom

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 12/14/08 08:03 PM

Regarding #106147, I think my first comment below addresses this.

Quote:
T:Regarding your convincing vs. commanding comment, we are told that God does not desire slavish obedience, and that Jesus said He calls us "friends, not servants. I agree with these sentiments.

A:Jesus also says that God is our Father, and that a wise father commands his children. My view accommodates both convincing and commanding.


It's the "also" idea that I'm responding to. You seem to be presenting the idea that as friend, God works with us on the basis of evidence and reason (convincing) but as Father, He doesn't (commanding). This would have God sometimes expecting our faith to be based on evidence on reason, and sometimes not, which I don't believe is correct.

Quote:
I've quoted what Jesus Christ said. Your ideas are incongruent with what He said.

So, the SOP about "blind obedience" is incongruent with Christ's teachings? I don't trust my hermeneutics enough to say that.


If there's an apparent agreement between inspired statements, then something's not being understood fully.

Quote:
A:A kind and wise Father would not allow His children to raise themselves. Since I live in a dangerous place, I expect complete and immediate obedience, whether or not my children concur with or even know my reasons. Only after they walk in the light they already have - my instructions - will they be in a position to receive more light - my explanations.


As adults, we have the ability to weigh evidence and reason, and this is what God expects us to do. "All should decide from the weight of evidence." (RH 9/16/73) "God never asks us to believe, without giving sufficient evidence upon which to base our faith" (SC 105). The "instructions" which God gives come with sufficient evidence so that a reasoned choice may be made. Otherwise, we wouldn't be able to decide from the weight of evidence.

Quote:
If you've ever been in a position to have charge of souls, I don't need to spell it out. If not, no amount of spelling will make you see what I see.


What you see is not difficult to follow. I simply disagree with it. I disagree because you are considering beings who cannot reason to be equivalent, in terms of the point you are making, to beings who can.

Quote:
I think this analogy, on this particular point, fails badly because children before the age of accountability to not have the capability to reason things out like an adult would.

It works fine.

What is greater, the gap between an infant's reasoning ability and his father's, or your reasoning ability and you Heavenly Father's? You seem to think that while an infant cannot understand his father, and therefore must fully trust his father's judgment, you have a better chance and understanding the reasons for God's judgments.

I believe that no matter how "adult" or smart or wise we get, His ways are still past finding out.


It doesn't work because of the lack of ability to reason. It's not how much better one is able to reason than another, but the lack of ability to reason at all that causes the analogy to fail.

His ways are past finding out in the sense that we cannot know all that He considers, but this doesn't mean we can't know something about it. In particular, we are told that God gives us enough evidence upon which to make a reasoned decision. Certainly we can and should trust God in regards to the things we do not understand.

Quote:
A:A kind and wise Father would not allow His children to raise themselves. Since I live in a dangerous place, I expect complete and immediate obedience, whether or not my children concur with or even know my reasons. Only after they walk in the light they already have - my instructions - will they be in a position to receive more light - my explanations.


As adults, we have the ability to weigh evidence and reason, and this is what God expects us to do. "All should decide from the weight of evidence." (RH 9/16/73) "God never asks us to believe, without giving sufficient evidence upon which to base our faith" (SC 105). The "instructions" which God gives come with sufficient evidence so that a reasoned choice may be made. Otherwise, we wouldn't be able to decide from the weight of evidence.
Posted By: asygo

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 12/14/08 09:12 PM

Originally Posted By: Tom
Quote:
T:Regarding your convincing vs. commanding comment, we are told that God does not desire slavish obedience, and that Jesus said He calls us "friends, not servants. I agree with these sentiments.

A:Jesus also says that God is our Father, and that a wise father commands his children. My view accommodates both convincing and commanding.

It's the "also" idea that I'm responding to. You seem to be presenting the idea that as friend, God works with us on the basis of evidence and reason (convincing) but as Father, He doesn't (commanding). This would have God sometimes expecting our faith to be based on evidence on reason, and sometimes not, which I don't believe is correct.

No, you misunderstand me. What I'm presenting is that a friend needs to convince his friend of the merits of his suggestions, while a father only needs to convince his son of his overall love and wisdom. Therefore, a friend requires reasons, while a son obeys implicitly.

The big difference is not that I don't require evidence to obey God, but that I believe His love and wisdom are evidence enough that His commands are always good and I should obey completely and immediately. You require more than that.
Posted By: asygo

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 12/14/08 09:15 PM

Originally Posted By: Tom
Quote:
I've quoted what Jesus Christ said. Your ideas are incongruent with what He said.

So, the SOP about "blind obedience" is incongruent with Christ's teachings? I don't trust my hermeneutics enough to say that.

If there's an apparent agreement between inspired statements, then something's not being understood fully.

Then please explain how you reconcile them, since you feel that your understanding is complete enough to say that I am disagreeing with Jesus, even though I was only regurgitating what the SOP said. Is it possible that you don't understand it fully?
Posted By: Tom

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 12/14/08 09:23 PM

Quote:
The big difference is not that I don't require evidence to obey God, but that I believe His love and wisdom are evidence enough that His commands are always good and I should obey completely and immediately. You require more than that.


I've simply been saying what the inspiration says:

1.God does not desire a slavish obedience.
2.Jesus calls us "friends, not servants."
3.God always provides us sufficient evidence upon which to make decisions and base our faith.

I've been pointing out that I don't believe *God* is willing to give us commands that are not based on evidence or reason. I think God is correct in this, for a number of reasons. One is that it would be dangerous to have a faith not based on evidence or reason. It is this kind of "faith" that the enemy desires.

Another is that I don't believe this to be in harmony with God's character. Given that He does not desire a slavish obedience, that He desires obedience based on intelligent appreciation, evidence, and reason, why would God give us commands which would be contrary to these aspects of His character?

You keep framing things in terms of things which are not acceptable to me, but I don't see that as the issue. I see the issue as involving what's acceptable to God. I don't believe that "obedience" which is not based on understanding, evidence, or reason is something God desires, because of His character.
Posted By: asygo

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 12/14/08 09:32 PM

Originally Posted By: Tom
Quote:
If you've ever been in a position to have charge of souls, I don't need to spell it out. If not, no amount of spelling will make you see what I see.

What you see is not difficult to follow. I simply disagree with it.

But the problem is not mental assent. If you ever get yourself into similar shoes, it will become clear to you. Maybe be a babysitter for a few hours, and see how you deal with it when the kid runs across the street after a ball. Do you give a command or an explanation?

Let me give you a glimpse of how it works in my family. We were visiting some friends and my son was playing in the backyard with the other kids. Out of the corner of my eye, I saw him running toward the area where the dogs relieve themselves. Not wanting to have to clean his shoes, I called out his name to tell him why he doesn't want to go there. Before I could even tell him anything else, when he heard his name, he immediately turned around and ran toward me. Without any explanation, he knew where safety was.

That instance didn't carry much risk, but it was training for bigger and better things. There was another time when he was playing about 30 yards away from me and he ran toward the street. When I saw it, I yelled out, "Stop!" With no more than that, he immediately stopped and waited for my next word. My sheep know my voice and follow me.

Do you train your children to know your voice and obey, or do you always give them a dissertation before you expect them to obey?
Posted By: Tom

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 12/14/08 09:35 PM

Quote:
Then please explain how you reconcile them, since you feel that your understanding is complete enough to say that I am disagreeing with Jesus, even though I was only regurgitating what the SOP said.


I simply responded to what you said *using your own words* in regards to what Christ said as opposed to something Ellen White said. Therefore *you* must have felt your understanding was sufficient to say to me that I was disagreeing with Ellen White, even though I was "only regurgitating what the SOP said."

Quote:
Is it possible that you don't understand it fully?


IMO, without question, neither you nor I understand this issue fully.

In regards to reconciling the statements, I think in the army quotes, Ellen White was dealing with a different issue. If she were dealing with the same issue, this would be a contradiction, since in SC 105, and other places, she says that God always provides evidence sufficient for us to base our decisions. The issue I think she is dealing with in the other quotes is one of a rebellious attitude.

How would you reconcile these statements?
Posted By: asygo

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 12/14/08 09:38 PM

Originally Posted By: Tom
I've simply been saying what the inspiration says:

1.God does not desire a slavish obedience.

But your idea of slavish obedience is sometimes described by inspiration as a good thing.

Originally Posted By: Tom
2.Jesus calls us "friends, not servants."

Abraham, the friend of God, did something that you would call slavish obedience.

Originally Posted By: Tom
3.God always provides us sufficient evidence upon which to make decisions and base our faith.

But you don't think God's love and wisdom are sufficient evidence. That's the biggest weakness of your position.
Posted By: Tom

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 12/14/08 09:59 PM

Quote:
A:But your idea of slavish obedience is sometimes described by inspiration as a good thing.

1.My idea of slavish obedience is obedience not based on evidence, reason or understanding. Since inspiration says that God always provides sufficient evidence upon which we may base our decisions, inspiration would have to be disagreeing with itself for your suggestion to be true.


Quote:
2.Jesus calls us "friends, not servants."

Abraham, the friend of God, did something that you would call slavish obedience.


The case of Abraham is an involved one. To put things as simply and briefly as possible, given where Abraham was coming from, I don't think his was a slavish obedience, but one based on evidence, reason and understanding. I would agree that given what we know today, that what Abraham did could be characterized as "slavish obedience," but Abraham did not know what we know today.

Quote:
3.God always provides us sufficient evidence upon which to make decisions and base our faith.

But you don't think God's love and wisdom are sufficient evidence. That's the biggest weakness of your position.


Your idea is that once we are convinced that God is loving and wise, He no longer desires that we obey His commands based on weighing evidence? (since we've already done this, and come to the conclusion that God is loving and wise).

If we take a specific command, say to keep the Sabbath, any sincere Christ would believe God is loving and wise. The decision to keep the Sabbath would therefore have to be based on the evidence in regards to the Sabbath. One would need to consider what the Bible says in regards to whether the Sabbath has been replaced by Sunday, if it was done away with, if the law as a whole should be kept by Christians at all, and similar arguments. So I understand the evidence that SC 105 and the other quotes is referring to is in regards to the specific command being considered, not simply to the general idea that God is loving and wise.
Posted By: asygo

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 12/15/08 12:03 AM

Originally Posted By: Tom
Your idea is that once we are convinced that God is loving and wise, He no longer desires that we obey His commands based on weighing evidence? (since we've already done this, and come to the conclusion that God is loving and wise).

"He no longer desires that we obey His commands based on weighing evidence"? Are you serious? I wrote this somewhere? Is this the best argument you can muster to bolster your position, to impute this idea to me? Either I am a very bad writer, or you are a very bad exegete.

That's as wrong this time as the last time you threw it out to see if it would stick. For the 5th time: "Intelligent appreciation" is a good thing. (Please take note of it, because my Control, C, and V keys are being worn out.) If you're not sure what that means, ask me and I can try to explain. But I can tell you right now that what you think I meant barely resembles what I actually meant. Good thing I'm still around to explain myself yet again.

Straw men are easier to knock down than real ones, but the activity is ultimately fruitless.
Posted By: asygo

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 12/15/08 12:14 AM

Originally Posted By: Tom
If we take a specific command, say to keep the Sabbath, any sincere Christ would believe God is loving and wise. The decision to keep the Sabbath would therefore have to be based on the evidence in regards to the Sabbath. One would need to consider what the Bible says in regards to whether the Sabbath has been replaced by Sunday, if it was done away with, if the law as a whole should be kept by Christians at all, and similar arguments. So I understand the evidence that SC 105 and the other quotes is referring to is in regards to the specific command being considered, not simply to the general idea that God is loving and wise.

Apparently, we've been talking about different things. I am talking about whether or not to obey what God told you. But your problem is that you can't tell what God is telling you, or maybe even if it is God telling you those things. Your problem, then, is not lack of evidence, but lack of discernment. That's an entirely different topic.
Posted By: Tom

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 12/15/08 12:15 AM

Arthur, I'm not setting up a straw man. I asked a question, trying to understand what you wrote. I don't think you are expressing yourself very clearly. You could get someone else's opinion on this. If you are expressing yourself clearly, someone else should be able to present your argument for you. If they can do that, then I'll be happy to admit that you were a better writer than I was an exegete.

I don't understand why you feel it's necessary to resort to sarcasm. How does this help your position?

I also don't understand why you think it's OK for you to ascribe bad motivations to my questions and comments. I can assure you with a clear conscience, the Holy Spirit bearing witness, that all I was trying to do was to clarify your thought.

Please consider the last paragraph of my previous post. I would be interested in your thoughts on this. Do you agree with what I wrote?
Posted By: asygo

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 12/15/08 12:19 AM

Originally Posted By: Tom
A:But your idea of slavish obedience is sometimes described by inspiration as a good thing.

1.My idea of slavish obedience is obedience not based on evidence, reason or understanding. Since inspiration says that God always provides sufficient evidence upon which we may base our decisions, inspiration would have to be disagreeing with itself for your suggestion to be true.

There is no disagreement, because inspiration tells us that we have evidence of God's voice based on our previous experience with Him, reason to believe that He always wants what is best for us, and understanding that He knows what is best for us. You just don't understand how that can be sufficient, without more details. It is implicit faith in our loving and wise Father.
Posted By: Tom

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 12/15/08 02:27 AM

Quote:
Apparently, we've been talking about different things. I am talking about whether or not to obey what God told you. But your problem is that you can't tell what God is telling you, or maybe even if it is God telling you those things. Your problem, then, is not lack of evidence, but lack of discernment. That's an entirely different topic.


I'm questioning the whole premise, that God would tell you to do something without providing evidence for why, by which I mean evidence as to the command itself (not simply evidence that God wants what's best for us, for example).

Regarding discernment/evidence, I asked you the question as to how you would know it was God telling you something if one accepts the premise that He will tell you to do things without your having to have any understanding as to why. Do you have something to go on beyond simply being confident of your ability to recognize God's voice?

Quote:
There is no disagreement, because inspiration tells us that we have evidence of God's voice based on our previous experience with Him, reason to believe that He always wants what is best for us, and understanding that He knows what is best for us. You just don't understand how that can be sufficient, without more details. It is implicit faith in our loving and wise Father.


I don't think this is what she's talking about in SC 105, or the other quotes I provided.
Posted By: teresaq

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 12/15/08 06:34 AM

Originally Posted By: asygo
Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? Are we required to render obedience even if we don't understand why? Is it safe to refuse to comply with God's command while we don't know His rationale for giving the command?


sometimes yes, sometimes no. it depends on the commands and the circumstances.
Posted By: asygo

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 12/15/08 10:42 AM

Originally Posted By: Tom
I'm questioning the whole premise, that God would tell you to do something without providing evidence for why, by which I mean evidence as to the command itself (not simply evidence that God wants what's best for us, for example).

God said, "Thou shalt have no other gods before me, thou shalt not kill, shalt not commit adultery, thou shalt not steal." He gave no explanations. Do you think that God did not expect them to keep these commandments until He had explained His reasons for giving them?

Originally Posted By: Tom
Regarding discernment/evidence, I asked you the question as to how you would know it was God telling you something if one accepts the premise that He will tell you to do things without your having to have any understanding as to why. Do you have something to go on beyond simply being confident of your ability to recognize God's voice?

I don't know. Abraham didn't have much to go on either. Yet, he was going to kill his son.

In any case, you are now dragging a red herring into the discussion. You are now talking about not being sure if God is the one telling you stuff, and not someone else. What we have been talking about all this time was whether or not we should obey commands given by God, even if He gave no rationale. Those are very different things.

Originally Posted By: Tom
Quote:
There is no disagreement, because inspiration tells us that we have evidence of God's voice based on our previous experience with Him, reason to believe that He always wants what is best for us, and understanding that He knows what is best for us. You just don't understand how that can be sufficient, without more details. It is implicit faith in our loving and wise Father.

I don't think this is what she's talking about in SC 105, or the other quotes I provided.

Just because she's not talking about that in any particular place, does not make it wrong. That's simple logic.

However, she does talk about it in the other quotes I presented. That, IMO, goes a long way toward the concept being right.
Posted By: Tom

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 12/15/08 11:34 AM

Quote:
T:I'm questioning the whole premise, that God would tell you to do something without providing evidence for why, by which I mean evidence as to the command itself (not simply evidence that God wants what's best for us, for example).

A:God said, "Thou shalt have no other gods before me, thou shalt not kill, shalt not commit adultery, thou shalt not steal." He gave no explanations. Do you think that God did not expect them to keep these commandments until He had explained His reasons for giving them?


What I've been saying is that God does not desire a slavish obedience, that He desires that we obey Him on the basis of weighing evidence and by using reason and understanding. In the case of "thou shalt have no other gods before me" there's a whole bunch of evidence involved here! Just think of all that happened before this command was given. There's the whole experience of the Exodus, and the happenings on Mt. Sinai.

Regarding stealing, don't you think it's likely that the Israelites understood stealing was wrong? If they understood it was wrong, then they could obey with understanding.

Quote:
T:Regarding discernment/evidence, I asked you the question as to how you would know it was God telling you something if one accepts the premise that He will tell you to do things without your having to have any understanding as to why. Do you have something to go on beyond simply being confident of your ability to recognize God's voice?

A: I don't know. Abraham didn't have much to go on either. Yet, he was going to kill his son.

In any case, you are now dragging a red herring into the discussion. You are now talking about not being sure if God is the one telling you stuff, and not someone else. What we have been talking about all this time was whether or not we should obey commands given by God, even if He gave no rationale. Those are very different things.


It's not a red herring. It's a very serious matter. This is one of the principle reasons I feel the point of view you are presenting is dangerous. IMO, it leaves one wide open to the deceptions of the enemy.

I think the idea that one can obey God with no understanding or reason is the sort of thinking behind fundamentalist extremism in many forms of religion. Once one takes reason out of the equation, that's very dangerous. People can do, and have done, very terrible things under the conviction that they were following God's orders.

Quote:
There is no disagreement, because inspiration tells us that we have evidence of God's voice based on our previous experience with Him, reason to believe that He always wants what is best for us, and understanding that He knows what is best for us. You just don't understand how that can be sufficient, without more details. It is implicit faith in our loving and wise Father.

I don't think this is what she's talking about in SC 105, or the other quotes I provided.

Just because she's not talking about that in any particular place, does not make it wrong. That's simple logic.

However, she does talk about it in the other quotes I presented. That, IMO, goes a long way toward the concept being right.


Here's the SC 105 quote:

Quote:
God never asks us to believe, without giving sufficient evidence upon which to base our faith. His existence, His character, the truthfulness of His word, are all established by testimony that appeals to our reason; and this testimony is abundant. Yet God has never removed the possibility of doubt. Our faith must rest upon evidence, not demonstration. Those who wish to doubt will have opportunity; while those who really desire to know the truth will find plenty of evidence on which to rest their faith.


These are the ideas I've been trying to share. God *never* asks us to believe without evidence upon which to base our faith. Why not? Because He does not desire a slavish obedience. He wants an obedience based on reason.

Quote:
God wants us all to have common sense, and He wants us to reason from common sense.(3SM 217)


That God desires that we rely on common sense and reason tells us something about who He is.
Posted By: Mountain Man

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 12/17/08 11:18 PM

Originally Posted By: Tom
M: In the case of the Sabbath commandment, God simply said rest because I rested.

T: No He didn't. As an SDA, you should know there were reasons other than this to keep that Sabbath.

Here is how the creation account and commandment read. I've underlined the words that explain why God commanded people to rest on the seventh day.

Genesis
2:2 And on the seventh day God ended his work which he had made; and he rested on the seventh day from all his work which he had made.
2:3 And God blessed the seventh day, and sanctified it: because that in it he had rested from all his work which God created and made.

Exodus
20:8 Remember the sabbath day, to keep it holy.
20:9 Six days shalt thou labour, and do all thy work:
20:10 But the seventh day [is] the sabbath of the LORD thy God: [in it] thou shalt not do any work, thou, nor thy son, nor thy daughter, thy manservant, nor thy maidservant, nor thy cattle, nor thy stranger that [is] within thy gates:
20:11 For [in] six days the LORD made heaven and earth, the sea, and all that in them [is], and rested the seventh day: wherefore the LORD blessed the sabbath day, and hallowed it.

The point is - The commandment to rest on the seventh day is based on, Because I rested on the seventh day, rather than on an elaborate explanation.

The question is - Do these verses require "slavish" obedience since they do not contain better reasons why God commands people to rest on the seventh day?
Posted By: Mountain Man

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 12/17/08 11:37 PM

Originally Posted By: asygo
A: If you've ever been in a position to have charge of souls, I don't need to spell it out. If not, no amount of spelling will make you see what I see.

T: What you see is not difficult to follow. I simply disagree with it.

A: But the problem is not mental assent. If you ever get yourself into similar shoes, it will become clear to you. Maybe be a babysitter for a few hours, and see how you deal with it when the kid runs across the street after a ball. Do you give a command or an explanation?

Let me give you a glimpse of how it works in my family. We were visiting some friends and my son was playing in the backyard with the other kids. Out of the corner of my eye, I saw him running toward the area where the dogs relieve themselves. Not wanting to have to clean his shoes, I called out his name to tell him why he doesn't want to go there. Before I could even tell him anything else, when he heard his name, he immediately turned around and ran toward me. Without any explanation, he knew where safety was.

That instance didn't carry much risk, but it was training for bigger and better things. There was another time when he was playing about 30 yards away from me and he ran toward the street. When I saw it, I yelled out, "Stop!" With no more than that, he immediately stopped and waited for my next word. My sheep know my voice and follow me.

Do you train your children to know your voice and obey, or do you always give them a dissertation before you expect them to obey?

Arnold, thank you for this excellent example. I appreciate how you present things using practical examples. I trained my children in the same way. On one occasion it paid off dearly. When my oldest son was 10 years old he was about to walk in front of four people swinging on a pallet swing. I hollered, "Jeff, stop!" He obeyed my command immediately. It saved his life. My heart and knees were so weak I collapsed and cried like a baby.

Tom, I was disappointed you didn't respond to this post. It explains things so nicely. Did you overlook it?
Posted By: teresaq

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 12/18/08 12:32 AM

yes, it is an excellent point. now, why did your children obey instantly, assuming that they were raised with love, and not like my dad?
Posted By: Tom

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 12/18/08 01:08 AM

Regarding #106209, there's also this:

Quote:
12Keep the sabbath day to sanctify it, as the LORD thy God hath commanded thee.

13Six days thou shalt labour, and do all thy work:

14But the seventh day is the sabbath of the LORD thy God: in it thou shalt not do any work, thou, nor thy son, nor thy daughter, nor thy manservant, nor thy maidservant, nor thine ox, nor thine ass, nor any of thy cattle, nor thy stranger that is within thy gates; that thy manservant and thy maidservant may rest as well as thou.

15And remember that thou wast a servant in the land of Egypt, and that the LORD thy God brought thee out thence through a mighty hand and by a stretched out arm: therefore the LORD thy God commanded thee to keep the sabbath day. (Deut. 5)


And this:

Quote:
13Speak thou also unto the children of Israel, saying, Verily my sabbaths ye shall keep: for it is a sign between me and you throughout your generations; that ye may know that I am the LORD that doth sanctify you.(Ex. 31)


And this:

Quote:
13If thou turn away thy foot from the sabbath, from doing thy pleasure on my holy day; and call the sabbath a delight, the holy of the LORD, honourable; and shalt honour him, not doing thine own ways, nor finding thine own pleasure, nor speaking thine own words:

14Then shalt thou delight thyself in the LORD; and I will cause thee to ride upon the high places of the earth, and feed thee with the heritage of Jacob thy father: for the mouth of the LORD hath spoken it.(Isa. 58)


One could argue that Isa. 58 was written afterward, but it seems likely the Israelites would have had an oral tradition already involving the principle Isaiah lays out.

Regarding #106210, my posts #106055 #106037 deal with the points raised in what you cited.

A couple of questions for you MM.

1.What does it mean that Jesus said He calls us "friends, not servants," because He has made things known to us?

2.What is "a slavish obedience," as spoken of here?

Quote:
He takes no pleasure in a slavish obedience. He desires that the creatures of His hands shall love Him because He is worthy of love. He would have them obey Him because they have an intelligent appreciation of His wisdom, justice, and benevolence. And all who have a just conception of these qualities will love Him because they are drawn toward Him in admiration of His attributes. (GC 541)
Posted By: asygo

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 12/18/08 05:36 AM

Originally Posted By: Tom
What I've been saying is that God does not desire a slavish obedience, that He desires that we obey Him on the basis of weighing evidence and by using reason and understanding. In the case of "thou shalt have no other gods before me" there's a whole bunch of evidence involved here! Just think of all that happened before this command was given. There's the whole experience of the Exodus, and the happenings on Mt. Sinai.

Regarding stealing, don't you think it's likely that the Israelites understood stealing was wrong? If they understood it was wrong, then they could obey with understanding.

This points out the danger I've been trying to show you. Your position has human understanding and reasoning as its foundation for obedience. If sinless man was a failure in this regard, so much more is sinful man.

Originally Posted By: Tom
Quote:
In any case, you are now dragging a red herring into the discussion. You are now talking about not being sure if God is the one telling you stuff, and not someone else. What we have been talking about all this time was whether or not we should obey commands given by God, even if He gave no rationale. Those are very different things.

It's not a red herring. It's a very serious matter. This is one of the principle reasons I feel the point of view you are presenting is dangerous. IMO, it leaves one wide open to the deceptions of the enemy.

It is a serious matter, but it is still a red herring because it is another matter. The thread has been, all along, about whether or not we should obey what God says, apart from our understanding His reasons for it. Now, you are switching topics to, the inability to discern God's voice among the many that we hear. Can't you see that it's a different topic.

If you want a new topic, I have no qualms. But this thread assumes that we already know God is the one giving us instructions. Given that, how much convincing do you need in order to obey? How much convincing does God require in order to expect you to obey?

Originally Posted By: Tom
I think the idea that one can obey God with no understanding or reason is the sort of thinking behind fundamentalist extremism in many forms of religion. Once one takes reason out of the equation, that's very dangerous. People can do, and have done, very terrible things under the conviction that they were following God's orders.

It is also dangerous to rely on human wisdom as the final arbiter of what should and should not be done. Eve tried it, and it didn't work out so well.

Originally Posted By: Tom
Quote:
God never asks us to believe, without giving sufficient evidence upon which to base our faith. His existence, His character, the truthfulness of His word, are all established by testimony that appeals to our reason; and this testimony is abundant. Yet God has never removed the possibility of doubt. Our faith must rest upon evidence, not demonstration. Those who wish to doubt will have opportunity; while those who really desire to know the truth will find plenty of evidence on which to rest their faith.

These are the ideas I've been trying to share. God *never* asks us to believe without evidence upon which to base our faith. Why not? Because He does not desire a slavish obedience. He wants an obedience based on reason.

Look at the part I underlined. His character has been established by reasonable evidence, at least for me it has. That alone is reason enough for me to trust Him implicitly, even with the "blind obedience" the SOP commends.

But you seem to argue that it is not enough. God has to convince you every time He tells you something, that He knows what He's doing. I hope you never run across a busy street.
Posted By: asygo

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 12/18/08 05:39 AM

Originally Posted By: teresaq
yes, it is an excellent point. now, why did your children obey instantly, assuming that they were raised with love, and not like my dad?

For me, I hope it is because they know that I always have their best interests in mind, and that I know what's good for them better than they do.

I also do this with friends I trust. With those who are not my friends, I always make them explain to me before I make my final decision based on my own understanding of the situation.
Posted By: teresaq

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 12/18/08 06:18 AM

Originally Posted By: asygo
Originally Posted By: teresaq
yes, it is an excellent point. now, why did your children obey instantly, assuming that they were raised with love, and not like my dad?

For me, I hope it is because they know that I always have their best interests in mind, and that I know what's good for them better than they do.

I also do this with friends I trust. With those who are not my friends, I always make them explain to me before I make my final decision based on my own understanding of the situation.


i think the bolded is toms point. smile he can correct me if im way off base.

i dont think that knowing why, asking God why is always bad. i have gotten some pretty convicting reasons when ive asked. after a while there comes a point when i pretty much trust that what He asks is for my good, "such as turn the other cheek".

the 10 commandments can seem pretty cut and dried, and even tho i didnt actually ask why i shouldnt steal, i couldnt figure out why i should meditate on the commandments, as david says. one time i got irritated-i have a problem in that area-and thought, whats there to meditate on? dont steal, dont kill.....some time later i felt like God had said, Im glad you asked.

i saw how stealing and killing can go very deep and deeper still. i can steal peoples time, self-worth, among other things. i can kill bits of people by the way i treat them and etc.


see, i can use the caps, guys, for the important stuff. now you wouldnt want me to put the common on a par with God, would you? smile
Posted By: Tom

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 12/18/08 10:11 AM

Quote:
T:Regarding stealing, don't you think it's likely that the Israelites understood stealing was wrong? If they understood it was wrong, then they could obey with understanding.

A:This points out the danger I've been trying to show you. Your position has human understanding and reasoning as its foundation for obedience. If sinless man was a failure in this regard, so much more is sinful man.


This doesn't look to make any sense. I wrote "If they understood it was wrong, then they could obey with understanding." and you conclude from this that this points out the danger you've been trying to show me? How so? What's the danger in what I wrote? Or, better yet, how do you get from "If they understood it was wrong, then they could obey with understanding" to "Your position has human understanding and reasoning as its foundation for obedience."

Anyway, this hasn't been what I've been saying at all. You'll see that in all the threads that we've been conversing in that I've pointed out that:

a)Satan desired to exalt himself.
b)To do so, he misrepresented God.
c)Thus he deceived man, leading him to distrust God.
d)This led man into disobedience and rebellion.

The counter side to this is:

a)Man must know the truth about God.
b)This leads man to have faith in God.
c)Which leads to obedience.

Thus faith is the foundation for obedience, which is itself built upon an understanding of God's character.

Quote:
T:It's not a red herring. It's a very serious matter. This is one of the principle reasons I feel the point of view you are presenting is dangerous. IMO, it leaves one wide open to the deceptions of the enemy.

A.It is a serious matter, but it is still a red herring because it is another matter.


It's part of the same matter; it's part of the same discussion. I've been discussing why understanding and reason are important to obey God in a way that He desires.

Quote:
T:I think the idea that one can obey God with no understanding or reason is the sort of thinking behind fundamentalist extremism in many forms of religion. Once one takes reason out of the equation, that's very dangerous. People can do, and have done, very terrible things under the conviction that they were following God's orders.

A:It is also dangerous to rely on human wisdom as the final arbiter of what should and should not be done.


Here's a red herring! I've not suggested this.

Quote:
Eve tried it, and it didn't work out so well.


She should have believed the serpent's lies. She should have trusted God.

Quote:
Look at the part I underlined. His character has been established by reasonable evidence, at least for me it has. That alone is reason enough for me to trust Him implicitly, even with the "blind obedience" the SOP commends.

But you seem to argue that it is not enough.


It's not enough for God. Jesus said:

Quote:
Servants don't know what their master is doing, and so I don't speak to you as my servants. I speak to you as my friends, and I have told you everything that my Father has told me.(John 15:15)


You keep framing this as if I were saying it's not enough for us to trust God implicitly and do whatever He says without understanding why, but I've not framed the issue in this way. I've consistently pointed out I don't believe this is what *God* desires.

Jesus above says that He calls us not servants but friends. Why? Because He has informed us of what His Father is doing. This looks to me to be exactly what the SOP tells us. God wants us to have an intelligent, well-reasoned faith, based on evidence and sound arguments, that we may be able to give a reason for what we believe. For example:

Quote:
It is important that in defending the doctrines which we consider fundamental articles of faith we should never allow ourselves to employ arguments that are not wholly sound. These may avail to silence an opposer but they do not honor the truth. We should present sound arguments, that will not only silence our opponents, but will bear the closest and most searching scrutiny." Testimonies, vol. 5, pp. 707,708 (1889)


Because "God said so," is not a sufficient argument. Anyone can present this argument to defend the actions of anything one does.

Quote:
God has to convince you every time He tells you something, that He knows what He's doing. I hope you never run across a busy street.


The issue has not to do with God's competence, but with His character. What is God like? Does He desire a slavish obedience, once that is based not on reason or evidence?
Posted By: asygo

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 12/18/08 12:01 PM

Just a quickie for now....

Originally Posted By: Tom
Quote:
God has to convince you every time He tells you something, that He knows what He's doing. I hope you never run across a busy street.

The issue has not to do with God's competence, but with His character. What is God like? Does He desire a slavish obedience, once that is based not on reason or evidence?

I've been saying that it's about His character. I believe that, based on His character, He would never tell me to do something that I would not do voluntarily if I knew what He knew and was as holy as He is holy. And that applies across the board.

You seem to be saying that you think God wants to convince you of His character every time out. How would you like it if you had to convince your kids of your good intentions every time you told them something? Is that how a father wants to be treated? As a father, I don't.

How about your wife? Do you always have to convince her that you love her whenever you tell her something?
Posted By: Tom

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 12/18/08 11:48 PM

What I've been saying is that God does not desire a slavish obedience, that because of His character He wants us to obey Him on the basis of evidence and reason. Jesus said we are "not friends, but servants," because He has informed us of what God does. I understand this to be the same principle of obedience based on evidence and reason, as opposed to the obedience of a servant (i.e. slavish obedience).

I'm not disagreeing with the concept that because we trust God, that we should be willing to do what He says just based on His say so. I'm disagreeing with the idea that this is something God would wish to do.
Posted By: Mountain Man

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 12/20/08 12:01 AM

Originally Posted By: teresaq
yes, it is an excellent point. now, why did your children obey instantly, assuming that they were raised with love, and not like my dad?

My children obeyed me because they trusted my judgment. Plus, they knew I had their best interest at heart. We were best friends. I never punished them out of anger or lost my cool around them. Of course, I have Jesus to thank for that. To this day (my children are adults with children of their own), they trust my judgment and know I love them dearly.

I'm sorry things weren't so good with your dad. I can relate. My parents orphaned us because they didn't enjoy being responsible for three energetic boys. Things are okay now, but the loss hurts just the same, especially since neither one of them get it. How are you doing now?
Posted By: teresaq

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 12/20/08 12:10 AM

we "obeyed" because if we didnt we would be beat. but i wont say that we really obeyed.

i have a somewhat similar story. hopefully, ive been growing up. smile

it seems like ive had so many lifetimes, that that is just one. mostly i was angry when i thought of it. i guess there were times when it hurt, but i cant say it does much anymore. for one thing its over. they cant do that anymore. i dont know, it just doesnt seem to hurt anymore.
Posted By: Mountain Man

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 12/20/08 01:30 AM

Originally Posted By: Tom
1.What does it mean that Jesus said He calls us "friends, not servants," because He has made things known to us?

2.What is "a slavish obedience," as spoken of here? "He takes no pleasure in a slavish obedience. He desires that the creatures of His hands shall love Him because He is worthy of love. He would have them obey Him because they have an intelligent appreciation of His wisdom, justice, and benevolence. And all who have a just conception of these qualities will love Him because they are drawn toward Him in admiration of His attributes. (GC 541)

First of all, you didn't answer my question. Here they are again:

The point is - The commandment to rest on the seventh day is based on, Because I rested on the seventh day, rather than on an elaborate explanation.

The question is - Do these verses require "slavish" obedience since they do not contain "better" reasons why God commands people to rest on the seventh day? NOTE: The passage in Genesis is all people had for 2500 years. It could be argued that people also understood the commandment as it reads in Exodus 20:8-11. even the post-exilic passages you cited do not provide significantly better reasons why God commands people to rest on the seventh day. That is, referring to it as a "sign" isn't an improvement on the original reason given, namely, because it's the day God rested on.

---

Now, as to your first question. Jesus said, "Ye are my friends, if ye do whatsoever I command you." Obviously, the kind of friendship Jesus is referring to isn't an ordinary friendship. How can it be? Jesus is, after all, God, and we're only human, and sinful to boot. My earthly friendships are not predicated on doing whatever they command me to do.

Jesus also said, "Henceforth I call you not servants; for the servant knoweth not what his lord doeth: but I have called you friends; for all things that I have heard of my Father I have made known unto you." This must be understood in a limited sense, because obviously Jesus didn't tell them everything His Father told Him.

For example, Jesus said, "I have yet many things to say unto you, but ye cannot bear them now." He left it to the Holy Spirit to explain certain things to the disciples later on. But not even the Holy Spirit could tell them everything. Elsewhere we read, "O the depth of the riches both of the wisdom and knowledge of God! How unsearchable are his judgments, and his ways past finding out!"

"Henceforth I call you not servants." Even this statement must be understood in a limited sense. Jesus also said, "He that is greatest among you shall be your servant. If any man desire to be first, the same shall be last of all, and servant of all. Blessed is that servant, whom his lord when he cometh shall find so doing. Well done, thou good and faithful servant . . . enter thou into the joy of thy lord. The servant is not greater than his lord. If they have persecuted me, they will also persecute you; if they have kept my saying, they will keep yours also."

There is also the fact the disciples and apostles referred to themselves as servants. For example, "Paul, a servant of Jesus Christ. Epaphras, who is one of you, a servant of Christ. James, a servant of God and of the Lord Jesus Christ. Simon Peter, a servant and an apostle of Jesus Christ. Jude, the servant of Jesus Christ. The Revelation of Jesus Christ, which God gave unto him, to show unto his servants things which must shortly come to pass; and he sent and signified it by his angel unto his servant John."

"For the servant knoweth not what his lord doeth." Again, this statement must be understood in a limited sense. Jesus also said, "And that servant, which knew his lord's will, and prepared not himself, neither did according to his will, shall be beaten with many stripes." Obviously this servant was in the know. Nevertheless, he didn't obey his master. The end of such servants is less than desirable. "Cast ye the unprofitable servant into outer darkness: there shall be weeping and gnashing of teeth."

So, what did Jesus mean when He said, "Ye are my friends, if ye do whatsoever I command you. Henceforth I call you not servants; for the servant knoweth not what his lord doeth: but I have called you friends; for all things that I have heard of my Father I have made known unto you." Again, I believe it must be understood within the immediate context. Here it is:

Quote:
John
15:1 I am the true vine, and my Father is the husbandman.
15:2 Every branch in me that beareth not fruit he taketh away: and every [branch] that beareth fruit, he purgeth it, that it may bring forth more fruit.
15:3 Now ye are clean through the word which I have spoken unto you.
15:4 Abide in me, and I in you. As the branch cannot bear fruit of itself, except it abide in the vine; no more can ye, except ye abide in me.
15:5 I am the vine, ye [are] the branches: He that abideth in me, and I in him, the same bringeth forth much fruit: for without me ye can do nothing.
15:6 If a man abide not in me, he is cast forth as a branch, and is withered; and men gather them, and cast [them] into the fire, and they are burned.
15:7 If ye abide in me, and my words abide in you, ye shall ask what ye will, and it shall be done unto you.
15:8 Herein is my Father glorified, that ye bear much fruit; so shall ye be my disciples.
15:9 As the Father hath loved me, so have I loved you: continue ye in my love.
15:10 If ye keep my commandments, ye shall abide in my love; even as I have kept my Father's commandments, and abide in his love.
15:11 These things have I spoken unto you, that my joy might remain in you, and [that] your joy might be full.
15:12 This is my commandment, That ye love one another, as I have loved you.
15:13 Greater love hath no man than this, that a man lay down his life for his friends.
15:14 Ye are my friends, if ye do whatsoever I command you.
15:15 Henceforth I call you not servants; for the servant knoweth not what his lord doeth: but I have called you friends; for all things that I have heard of my Father I have made known unto you.
15:16 Ye have not chosen me, but I have chosen you, and ordained you, that ye should go and bring forth fruit, and [that] your fruit should remain: that whatsoever ye shall ask of the Father in my name, he may give it you.
15:17 These things I command you, that ye love one another.

This is the context of the statement, "All things that I have heard of my Father I have made known unto you." Especially, the following is what Jesus told them:

Now ye are clean through the word which I have spoken unto you. Abide in me, and I in you. As the branch cannot bear fruit of itself, except it abide in the vine; no more can ye, except ye abide in me. Herein is my Father glorified, that ye bear much fruit; so shall ye be my disciples. These things have I spoken unto you, that my joy might remain in you, and that your joy might be full. This is my commandment, That ye love one another, as I have loved you.

This is what it takes to be Jesus' friend. But being His friend does not mean we stop being His servant. He will always be our Lord and Master, and we will always be His servants and friends.

---

And, regarding your second question. "What is 'a slavish obedience,' as spoken of here?" It means doing all the right things for all the wrong reasons. It means obeying the rules begrudgingly, not as a cheerful giver. In reality, though, all such obedience is offensive to God. It does not flow out of a heart of love and adoration for God. For example:

"God loveth a cheerful giver," and those who love Him will give freely and cheerfully when by so doing they can advance His cause and promote His glory. The Lord never requires His people to offer more than they are able, but according to their ability He is pleased to accept and bless their thank offerings. Let willing obedience and pure love bind upon the altar every offering that is made to God; for with such sacrifices He is well pleased, while those that are offered grudgingly are an offense to Him. {5T 269.2}
Posted By: Mountain Man

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 12/20/08 01:49 AM

Originally Posted By: Tom
I'm not disagreeing with the concept that because we trust God, that we should be willing to do what He says just based on His say so. I'm disagreeing with the idea that this is something God would wish to do.

Arnold isn't arguing we should be "willing" to obey; instead, he is saying we should obey Him, that God expects such obedience. Remember, God is in a position where He cannot tell us everything He knows. We are too dense and dimwitted. So, He is often forced to command us to obey Him without providing better reasons than, Because I said so; or, You're just going to have to trust me on this one.
Posted By: Mountain Man

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 12/20/08 02:02 AM

Originally Posted By: teresaq
it seems like ive had so many lifetimes, that that is just one. mostly i was angry when i thought of it. i guess there were times when it hurt, but i cant say it does much anymore. for one thing its over. they cant do that anymore. i dont know, it just doesnt seem to hurt anymore.

As a pastor, I have counseled many precious souls in a similar state as you seem to be in. Let me just say - There are good reasons to fear not hurting anymore. It is usually a bad sign. It can mean important things are in danger of dying in you, things you desperately don't want to lose. I nearly died inside because I mishandled the hurt. But, thank you Jesus, I was able to recover.
Posted By: Tom

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 12/20/08 02:36 AM

Quote:
T:I'm not disagreeing with the concept that because we trust God, that we should be willing to do what He says just based on His say so. I'm disagreeing with the idea that this is something God would wish to do.

M:Arnold isn't arguing we should be "willing" to obey; instead, he is saying we should obey Him, that God expects such obedience.


You're suggesting I'm saying we should be willing to obey but not actually obey? I'm not understanding why you felt compelled to comment here.

Quote:
Remember, God is in a position where He cannot tell us everything He knows. We are too dense and dimwitted. So, He is often forced to command us to obey Him without providing better reasons than, Because I said so; or, You're just going to have to trust me on this one.


Jesus said:

Quote:
Henceforth I call you not servants; for the servant knoweth not what his lord doeth: but I have called you friends; for all things that I have heard of my Father I have made known unto you.(John 15:15)


Jesus wasn't dense or dimwitted, so God was able to communicate fine to Him, right? Jesus says He has called us "friends" because "all things that I have heard of my Father I have made known unto you."

Where did Jesus say we should obey Him (or the Father) because "I said so." (or "He said so.")?

This seems to be diametrically opposed to what Jesus is saying in John 15:15.
Posted By: teresaq

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 12/20/08 05:00 AM

Originally Posted By: Mountain Man
Originally Posted By: teresaq
it seems like ive had so many lifetimes, that that is just one. mostly i was angry when i thought of it. i guess there were times when it hurt, but i cant say it does much anymore. for one thing its over. they cant do that anymore. i dont know, it just doesnt seem to hurt anymore.

As a pastor, I have counseled many precious souls in a similar state as you seem to be in. Let me just say - There are good reasons to fear not hurting anymore. It is usually a bad sign. It can mean important things are in danger of dying in you, things you desperately don't want to lose. I nearly died inside because I mishandled the hurt. But, thank you Jesus, I was able to recover.


hmmmmm, i didnt realize anyone would come to that conclusion.
i believe it doesnt hurt anymore for a variety of reasons. one because i understand somewhat of their circumstances, and another because i have forgiven them and only want their best.
Posted By: asygo

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 12/20/08 05:24 AM

Originally Posted By: Mountain Man
... Jesus said, "Ye are my friends, if ye do whatsoever I command you." ...

Excellent response, MM.
Posted By: asygo

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 12/20/08 05:27 AM

Originally Posted By: Tom
Jesus wasn't dense or dimwitted, so God was able to communicate fine to Him, right? Jesus says He has called us "friends" because "all things that I have heard of my Father I have made known unto you."

So are you saying that Jesus revealed everything 2000 years ago, and there's nothing new to learn since then? If so, how could Paul say "How unsearchable are His judgments and His ways past finding out!" many years after Jesus spilled all the beans? Was he not paying attention? Or was he not as friendly with Jesus as I had assumed?
Posted By: Tom

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 12/20/08 09:47 AM

Quote:
T:Jesus wasn't dense or dimwitted, so God was able to communicate fine to Him, right? Jesus says He has called us "friends" because "all things that I have heard of my Father I have made known unto you."

A:So are you saying that Jesus revealed everything 2000 years ago, and there's nothing new to learn since then?


I just quoted Jesus, so wouldn't your question have been better posed as, "Was Jesus saying that He revealed everything 2000 years ago, and there's nothing new to learn since then?"

Quote:
If so, how could Paul say "How unsearchable are His judgments and His ways past finding out!" many years after Jesus spilled all the beans? Was he not paying attention? Or was he not as friendly with Jesus as I had assumed?


Perhaps what you're suggesting is not what Jesus was saying.
Posted By: Tom

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 12/20/08 11:31 AM

Quote:
First of all, you didn't answer my question. Here they are again:

The point is - The commandment to rest on the seventh day is based on, Because I rested on the seventh day, rather than on an elaborate explanation.


As I pointed out, there are several reasons given for keeping the Sabbath.

The foundation of observing the Sabbath is that God rested on this day, the crowning act of creation. The Sabbath is a memorial of creation, and its observance recognizes God as the Creator.

It's also a memorial of redemption, a them which is explained in detail in Hebrews. By faith we enter into the rest of God, which is what the Sabbath is all about.

The Sabbath is also the seal of God and a sign of sanctification.

This is just scratching the service!

Quote:
So, what did Jesus mean when He said, "Ye are my friends, if ye do whatsoever I command you. Henceforth I call you not servants; for the servant knoweth not what his lord doeth: but I have called you friends; for all things that I have heard of my Father I have made known unto you." Again, I believe it must be understood within the immediate context. Here it is:

This is the context of the statement, "All things that I have heard of my Father I have made known unto you." Especially, the following is what Jesus told them:

Now ye are clean through the word which I have spoken unto you. Abide in me, and I in you. As the branch cannot bear fruit of itself, except it abide in the vine; no more can ye, except ye abide in me. Herein is my Father glorified, that ye bear much fruit; so shall ye be my disciples. These things have I spoken unto you, that my joy might remain in you, and that your joy might be full. This is my commandment, That ye love one another, as I have loved you.

This is what it takes to be Jesus' friend. But being His friend does not mean we stop being His servant. He will always be our Lord and Master, and we will always be His servants and friends.


MM, I hear you saying:

1.Jesus calls us friends if we do what He commands. (agreed)
2.Being His friend does not mean we stop being His servant.

However, regarding the second point, I still don't understand what you think Jesus meant by saying He no longer calls us servants but friends because He has told us all things He heard from His Father. Jesus makes two points here:

a.He calls us not servants, but friends.
b.His reason for doing this is because He has made known to us all things He heard from His Father.

You seem to be denying both of Jesus' points. Surely by saying "not servants but friends," Jesus did not mean "both servants and friends." He must have had something in mind in making this distinction. What was it?

He tells us what it is. "A servant does not know what his master is doing." That's the different. He calls us not servants but friends because He has told us what God revealed to Him, so that it cannot be said that we don't know what the master is doing, unlike the ignorant servant. Clearly this is Jesus' point, isn't it?

Quote:
And, regarding your second question. "What is 'a slavish obedience,' as spoken of here?" It means doing all the right things for all the wrong reasons. It means obeying the rules begrudgingly, not as a cheerful giver. In reality, though, all such obedience is offensive to God. It does not flow out of a heart of love and adoration for God. For example:

"God loveth a cheerful giver," and those who love Him will give freely and cheerfully when by so doing they can advance His cause and promote His glory. The Lord never requires His people to offer more than they are able, but according to their ability He is pleased to accept and bless their thank offerings. Let willing obedience and pure love bind upon the altar every offering that is made to God; for with such sacrifices He is well pleased, while those that are offered grudgingly are an offense to Him. {5T 269.2}


MM, I agree that our obedience to God should not be egocentric, I point I've often made to you in our discussions regarding sins of ignorance, and I also agree that the points your are mentioning are elements of what slavish obedience encompasses. However, it is not what EGW is dealing with in the context of the statement I quoted, which is the following:

Quote:
God does not force the will or judgment of any. He takes no pleasure in a slavish obedience. He desires that the creatures of His hands shall love Him because He is worthy of love. He would have them obey Him because they have an intelligent appreciation of His wisdom, justice, and benevolence. And all who have a just conception of these qualities will love Him because they are drawn toward Him in admiration of His attributes.

The principles of kindness, mercy, and love, taught and exemplified by our Saviour, are a transcript of the will and character of God. Christ declared that He taught nothing except that which He had received from His Father. The principles of the divine government are in perfect harmony with the Saviour's precept, "Love your enemies." (GC 541)


What she brings out here is that slavish obedience is in contrast to intelligent appreciation. These, by the way, are the differences of the Old and New Covenants.

Quote:
The same law that was engraved upon the tables of stone is written by the Holy Spirit upon the tables of the heart. Instead of going about to establish our own righteousness we accept the righteousness of Christ.(PP 372)


The Old Covenant consists of a slavish obedience to laws written on stone, which is why it "gendereth to bondage." In the New Covenant the law is written in the heart, and one is constrained to obey by the agape of God, revealed in the cross of Calvary (which agrees with the 5T 269.2 quote you pointed out).
Posted By: asygo

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 12/21/08 06:27 AM

Originally Posted By: Tom
Quote:
T:Jesus wasn't dense or dimwitted, so God was able to communicate fine to Him, right? Jesus says He has called us "friends" because "all things that I have heard of my Father I have made known unto you."

A:So are you saying that Jesus revealed everything 2000 years ago, and there's nothing new to learn since then?

I just quoted Jesus, so wouldn't your question have been better posed as, "Was Jesus saying that He revealed everything 2000 years ago, and there's nothing new to learn since then?"

Jesus also said, "But the Helper, the Holy Spirit, whom the Father will send in My name, He will teach you all things, and bring to your remembrance all things that I said to you." So I know He knew there was more to learn after He left.

Originally Posted By: Tom
Quote:
If so, how could Paul say "How unsearchable are His judgments and His ways past finding out!" many years after Jesus spilled all the beans? Was he not paying attention? Or was he not as friendly with Jesus as I had assumed?

Perhaps what you're suggesting is not what Jesus was saying.

I know it wasn't what Jesus was saying. Paul, whom He tutored personally for 3 years, still considered God's judgments unsearchable and His ways past finding out. Yet, you imply that His friends have all the info He has to give. And in this thread, you teach that God does not expect obedience simply based on trusting His character, but requires understanding from His dense and dimwitted creatures.
Posted By: Tom

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 12/21/08 11:46 AM

Quote:
I know it wasn't what Jesus was saying. Paul, whom He tutored personally for 3 years, still considered God's judgments unsearchable and His ways past finding out. Yet, you imply that His friends have all the info He has to give. And in this thread, you teach that God does not expect obedience simply based on trusting His character, but requires understanding from His dense and dimwitted creatures.


You're not being accurate with your statements here. I quoted Jesus:

Quote:
15Henceforth I call you not servants; for the servant knoweth not what his lord doeth: but I have called you friends; for all things that I have heard of my Father I have made known unto you.


I didn't go beyond what He said. He said "for all things that I have heard of my Father I have made known unto you." I have said nothing beyond this.

Also I have not taught what you are suggesting. What I have said is that God does not desire a slavish obedience, but rather one based on evidence, reason and understanding. I've also said that Jesus said He calls us "not servants, but friends" because "all things that I have heard of my Father I have made known unto you."
Posted By: asygo

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 12/22/08 03:19 AM

Originally Posted By: Tom
Quote:
I know it wasn't what Jesus was saying. Paul, whom He tutored personally for 3 years, still considered God's judgments unsearchable and His ways past finding out. Yet, you imply that His friends have all the info He has to give. And in this thread, you teach that God does not expect obedience simply based on trusting His character, but requires understanding from His dense and dimwitted creatures.

You're not being accurate with your statements here. I quoted Jesus:

Quote:
15Henceforth I call you not servants; for the servant knoweth not what his lord doeth: but I have called you friends; for all things that I have heard of my Father I have made known unto you.

I didn't go beyond what He said. He said "for all things that I have heard of my Father I have made known unto you." I have said nothing beyond this.

That's why I'm now trying to figure out exactly what you are saying.

You wrote in post #106306, in response to MM:
Originally Posted By: Tom
Quote:
Remember, God is in a position where He cannot tell us everything He knows. We are too dense and dimwitted. So, He is often forced to command us to obey Him without providing better reasons than, Because I said so; or, You're just going to have to trust me on this one.

Jesus said:

Quote:
Henceforth I call you not servants; for the servant knoweth not what his lord doeth: but I have called you friends; for all things that I have heard of my Father I have made known unto you.(John 15:15)

Jesus wasn't dense or dimwitted, so God was able to communicate fine to Him, right? Jesus says He has called us "friends" because "all things that I have heard of my Father I have made known unto you."

MM was essentially saying, "God doesn't tell us everything that He could because we are too dumb. And sometimes we have to trust that He knows what He's doing even if we don't."

Were you agreeing with MM? It seemed to me that you were contradicting him by pointing out that Jesus wasn't too dumb. Am I right so far? Then, in this context, you throw in His statement that "all things that I have heard of my Father I have made known unto you."

MM said God knew stuff that He didn't tell the disciples. Are you agreeing with that or not?

Originally Posted By: Tom
Also I have not taught what you are suggesting. What I have said is that God does not desire a slavish obedience, but rather one based on evidence, reason and understanding.

Slavish obedience is bad, we agree. What I'm taking issue with is the concept that taking God at His word because we trust His goodness and wisdom, and distrust our own competence, constitutes slavish obedience. What I'm taking issue with is the teaching that God thinks it is good that we question His character, and make Him explain Himself every time He gives a command.

I don't want my children doing that; and I don't think God wants His children doing that.

Originally Posted By: Tom
I've also said that Jesus said He calls us "not servants, but friends" because "all things that I have heard of my Father I have made known unto you."

Jesus also said, "Ye are my friends, if ye do whatsoever I command you." It wasn't dependent on "understanding" His commands.
Posted By: Tom

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 12/22/08 05:45 AM

Quote:
MM was essentially saying, "God doesn't tell us everything that He could because we are too dumb. And sometimes we have to trust that He knows what He's doing even if we don't."

Were you agreeing with MM? It seemed to me that you were contradicting him by pointing out that Jesus wasn't too dumb. Am I right so far? Then, in this context, you throw in His statement that "all things that I have heard of my Father I have made known unto you."

MM said God knew stuff that He didn't tell the disciples. Are you agreeing with that or not?


MM said that God didn't communicate everything that He could communicate because of dimwittedness. Therefore if there are things which were not being communicated by God, the reason for this is being dimwitted. Jesus said He told us "all things that I have heard from my Father." So everything that God communicated to Jesus, Jesus communicated to the disciples. I pointed out that Jesus wasn't too dimwitted to hear things from God. The communication was God ==> Jesus ==> disciples. Since Jesus communicated all things He heard to the disciples, if God was holding things back, He had to have been holding them back from Jesus.

Obviously God knew things the disciples didn't. That's not a point that needs to be commented on.

Quote:
T:Also I have not taught what you are suggesting. What I have said is that God does not desire a slavish obedience, but rather one based on evidence, reason and understanding.

A:Slavish obedience is bad, we agree. What I'm taking issue with is the concept that taking God at His word because we trust His goodness and wisdom, and distrust our own competence, constitutes slavish obedience.


This hasn't been suggested. Again, what I've been saying is that God does not desire a slavish obedience, but rather one based on evidence, reason and understanding.

Quote:
What I'm taking issue with is the teaching that God thinks it is good that we question His character, and make Him explain Himself every time He gives a command.


This hasn't been suggested either.

Quote:
I don't want my children doing that; and I don't think God wants His children doing that.


Again, what I've been saying is that God does not desire a slavish obedience, but rather one based on evidence, reason and understanding.
Posted By: Mountain Man

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 12/24/08 08:24 PM

Originally Posted By: teresaq
T: it seems like ive had so many lifetimes, that that is just one. mostly i was angry when i thought of it. i guess there were times when it hurt, but i cant say it does much anymore. for one thing its over. they cant do that anymore. i dont know, it just doesnt seem to hurt anymore.

M: As a pastor, I have counseled many precious souls in a similar state as you seem to be in. Let me just say - There are good reasons to fear not hurting anymore. It is usually a bad sign. It can mean important things are in danger of dying in you, things you desperately don't want to lose. I nearly died inside because I mishandled the hurt. But, thank you Jesus, I was able to recover.

T: hmmmmm, i didnt realize anyone would come to that conclusion. i believe it doesnt hurt anymore for a variety of reasons. one because i understand somewhat of their circumstances, and another because i have forgiven them and only want their best.

Have you heard how repentance deepens the more like Jesus we become? I like how Tom explains this experience (if you're listening Tom please feel free to share). The closer I draw to Jesus the more sorry I am for some of the sins I committed in the past. I know I am forgiven but it doesn't stop me from feeling bad for what I did, especially those times when I wounded my wife with unkind words. I feel worse about it now than I did when I first asked her to forgive me. Of course I do not burden her with this fact. But at odd times here and there it hits me and an overwhelming sense of sorrow floods my soul. It motivates me to stick close to Jesus. Even the thought of wounding my precious wife is enough to cause hot tears to flow.

A similar thing happens to me when I recall the losses I suffered as a child. All of a sudden, out of the blue, it will hit me. Especially this time of the year. I see parents and children having fun and full of love for one another. Then I remember it wasn't that way for me. Such love and affection was foreign to me as a little orphan boy. The pain is never the same; sometimes it is worse than at other times. But it hurts nonetheless. I forgave my parents long ago for abandoning me. There was even a time when I thought I was over the hurt. But I was only hardening my heart making matters worse. Now I welcome the pain. It prevents me from becoming an unfeeling monster. It never hinders me. It always helps me. And, it continues to deepen and intensify.

Jesus bears the scars of His crucifixion. Forever and ever we will remember that Jesus suffered and died to ransom and redeem us from death row. The hurt of hurting Him will deepen more and more throughout eternity. It serves to motivate us now to love and obey Him more and more unto the perfect day. That's one of the many blessed results of being like Jesus. In this way sadness and sorrow for sin serves to inspire us love God and to love one another. The thought of hurting one of God's dear loved ones, one of our brothers or sisters, is so painful that we would rather tie a millstone around our neck and jump over board than to follow through on such a revolting thought. Such a thought is an enemy to our soul; we flee to Jesus and He sets us free, and we are free indeed. Thank you Jesus!

I share these things hoping it will help others like me who are living with hurtful histories and painful pasts. Embrace the sorrow as a friend, for it is making your heart soft and supple, a warm and cozy place for the indwelling of the Holy Spirit. Peace and good tidings.
Posted By: Mountain Man

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 12/24/08 08:36 PM

Originally Posted By: Tom
T:I'm not disagreeing with the concept that because we trust God, that we should be willing to do what He says just based on His say so. I'm disagreeing with the idea that this is something God would wish to do.

M:Arnold isn't arguing we should be "willing" to obey; instead, he is saying we should obey Him, that God expects such obedience.

T: You're suggesting I'm saying we should be willing to obey but not actually obey? I'm not understanding why you felt compelled to comment here.

Not at all, Tom. I was simply commenting on what Arnold posted about it.

Quote:
M: Remember, God is in a position where He cannot tell us everything He knows. We are too dense and dimwitted. So, He is often forced to command us to obey Him without providing better reasons than, Because I said so; or, You're just going to have to trust me on this one.

T: Jesus said: Henceforth I call you not servants; for the servant knoweth not what his lord doeth: but I have called you friends; for all things that I have heard of my Father I have made known unto you.(John 15:15)

Jesus wasn't dense or dimwitted, so God was able to communicate fine to Him, right? Jesus says He has called us "friends" because "all things that I have heard of my Father I have made known unto you."

Where did Jesus say we should obey Him (or the Father) because "I said so." (or "He said so.")? This seems to be diametrically opposed to what Jesus is saying in John 15:15.

I addressed these issues in a previous post.
Posted By: asygo

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 12/24/08 09:03 PM

Originally Posted By: Tom
Quote:
What I'm taking issue with is the teaching that God thinks it is good that we question His character, and make Him explain Himself every time He gives a command.

This hasn't been suggested either.

Perhaps I misunderstood you. Let me try to understand.

If God gave a command, e.g. keep the seventh day holy, and I could see no good reason for it other than God says I should do it, should I immediately do as He says or disregard it until I see a reason?
Posted By: Mountain Man

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 12/24/08 09:38 PM

Originally Posted By: Tom
M: First of all, you didn't address my point or answer my question. Here they are again:

The point is - The commandment to rest on the seventh day is based on, Because I rested on the seventh day, rather than on an elaborate explanation.

The question is - Do these verses require "slavish" obedience since they do not contain "better" reasons why God commands people to rest on the seventh day? NOTE: The passage in Genesis is the only command people had for 2500 years. It could be argued that people also understood the commandment as it reads in Exodus 20:8-11. Even the post-exilic passages you cited do not provide significantly better reasons why God commands people to rest on the seventh day. That is, referring to it as a "sign" isn't an improvement on the original reason given, namely, because it's the day God rested on.

T: As I pointed out, there are several reasons given for keeping the Sabbath. The foundation of observing the Sabbath is that God rested on this day, the crowning act of creation. The Sabbath is a memorial of creation, and its observance recognizes God as the Creator.

It's also a memorial of redemption, a them which is explained in detail in Hebrews. By faith we enter into the rest of God, which is what the Sabbath is all about. The Sabbath is also the seal of God and a sign of sanctification. This is just scratching the service!

You didn't answer my question. Here it is again: Do these verses require "slavish" obedience since they do not contain "better" reasons why God commands people to rest on the seventh day? NOTE: The passage in Genesis is the only thing people had for 2500 years. It could be argued that people also understood the commandment as it reads in Exodus 20:8-11. Did these people render slavish obedience?

Quote:
M: Now, as to your first question. Jesus said, "Ye are my friends, if ye do whatsoever I command you." Obviously, the kind of friendship Jesus is referring to isn't an ordinary friendship. How can it be? Jesus is, after all, God, and we're only human, and sinful to boot. My earthly friendships are not predicated on doing whatever they command me to do.

Jesus also said, "Henceforth I call you not servants; for the servant knoweth not what his lord doeth: but I have called you friends; for all things that I have heard of my Father I have made known unto you." This must be understood in a limited sense, because obviously Jesus didn't tell them everything His Father told Him.

For example, Jesus said, "I have yet many things to say unto you, but ye cannot bear them now." He left it to the Holy Spirit to explain certain things to the disciples later on. But not even the Holy Spirit could tell them everything. Elsewhere we read, "O the depth of the riches both of the wisdom and knowledge of God! How unsearchable are his judgments, and his ways past finding out!"

"Henceforth I call you not servants." Even this statement must be understood in a limited sense. Jesus also said, "He that is greatest among you shall be your servant. If any man desire to be first, the same shall be last of all, and servant of all. Blessed is that servant, whom his lord when he cometh shall find so doing. Well done, thou good and faithful servant . . . enter thou into the joy of thy lord. The servant is not greater than his lord. If they have persecuted me, they will also persecute you; if they have kept my saying, they will keep yours also."

There is also the fact the disciples and apostles referred to themselves as servants. For example, "Paul, a servant of Jesus Christ. Epaphras, who is one of you, a servant of Christ. James, a servant of God and of the Lord Jesus Christ. Simon Peter, a servant and an apostle of Jesus Christ. Jude, the servant of Jesus Christ. The Revelation of Jesus Christ, which God gave unto him, to show unto his servants things which must shortly come to pass; and he sent and signified it by his angel unto his servant John."

"For the servant knoweth not what his lord doeth." Again, this statement must be understood in a limited sense. Jesus also said, "And that servant, which knew his lord's will, and prepared not himself, neither did according to his will, shall be beaten with many stripes." Obviously this servant was in the know. Nevertheless, he didn't obey his master. The end of such servants is less than desirable. "Cast ye the unprofitable servant into outer darkness: there shall be weeping and gnashing of teeth."

So, what did Jesus mean when He said, "Ye are my friends, if ye do whatsoever I command you. Henceforth I call you not servants; for the servant knoweth not what his lord doeth: but I have called you friends; for all things that I have heard of my Father I have made known unto you." Again, I believe it must be understood within the immediate context. Here it is: [John 15:1-17 quoted]

This is the context of the statement, "All things that I have heard of my Father I have made known unto you." Especially, Jesus made known to them the following:

Now ye are clean through the word which I have spoken unto you. Abide in me, and I in you. As the branch cannot bear fruit of itself, except it abide in the vine; no more can ye, except ye abide in me. Herein is my Father glorified, that ye bear much fruit; so shall ye be my disciples. These things have I spoken unto you, that my joy might remain in you, and that your joy might be full. This is my commandment, That ye love one another, as I have loved you.

This is what it takes to be Jesus' friend. But being His friend does not mean we stop being His servant. He will always be our Lord and Master, and we will always be His servants and friends.

T: MM, I hear you saying:

1.Jesus calls us friends if we do what He commands. (agreed)
2.Being His friend does not mean we stop being His servant.

However, regarding the second point, I still don't understand what you think Jesus meant by saying He no longer calls us servants but friends because He has told us all things He heard from His Father. Jesus makes two points here:

a.He calls us not servants, but friends.
b.His reason for doing this is because He has made known to us all things He heard from His Father.

You seem to be denying both of Jesus' points. Surely by saying "not servants but friends," Jesus did not mean "both servants and friends." He must have had something in mind in making this distinction. What was it?

He tells us what it is. "A servant does not know what his master is doing." That's the different. He calls us not servants but friends because He has told us what God revealed to Him, so that it cannot be said that we don't know what the master is doing, unlike the ignorant servant. Clearly this is Jesus' point, isn't it?

Tom, I addressed the points you raised in my response above. I explained things in great detail. Jesus made the servant-friends comment in a specific context. You seem to think it applies to every other context too. But, if you are right, how do you explain everything I posted about it above? In addition to everything I posted above, please consider the following:

Quote:
Those who live in close fellowship with Christ will be promoted by Him to positions of trust. The servant who does the best he can for his Master is admitted to familiar intercourse with the One whose commands he loves to obey. In the faithful discharge of duty we may become one with Christ, for those who are obeying God's commands may speak to Him freely. The one who talks most familiarly with his divine leader has the most exalted conception of His greatness and is the most obedient to His commands. {TMK 296.2}

"If ye abide in me, and my words abide in you, ye shall ask what ye will, and it shall be done unto you. . . . Ye are my friends, if ye do whatsoever I command you. Henceforth I call you not servants; for the servant knoweth not what his lord doeth; but I have called you friends; for all things that I have heard of my Father I have made known unto you." . . . {TMK 296.3}

The character of the one who comes to God in faith will bear witness that the Saviour has entered into his life, directing all, pervading all. Such a one is continually asking, "Is this Thy will and way, O my Saviour?" Constantly he looks to Jesus, the Author and Finisher of his faith. He consults the will of his divine Friend in reference to all his actions, for he knows that in this confidence is his strength. He has made it a habit to lift up the heart to God in every perplexity. . . . {TMK 296.4}

Again, this type of friendship is unique in that it doesn't resemble normal earthly friendships. Beings friends with the Lord and Master of the Universe is not the same thing as being friends with angels or humans or any other FMA. For one thing, we are not His equal.

Consider also the fact Jesus called Judas "friend" the night he betrayed Jesus into the hands of sinners. "Friend, wherefore art thou come?" A similar thing exists in the following passages where Jesus is portrayed as calling people "friend" when they are in fact not His friends. "Friend, I do thee no wrong: didst not thou agree with me for a penny?" "Friend, how camest thou in hither not having a wedding garment?"

Quote:
M: And, regarding your second question. "What is 'a slavish obedience,' as spoken of here?" It means doing all the right things for all the wrong reasons. It means obeying the rules begrudgingly, not as a cheerful giver. In reality, though, all such obedience is offensive to God. It does not flow out of a heart of love and adoration for God. For example:

"God loveth a cheerful giver," and those who love Him will give freely and cheerfully when by so doing they can advance His cause and promote His glory. The Lord never requires His people to offer more than they are able, but according to their ability He is pleased to accept and bless their thank offerings. Let willing obedience and pure love bind upon the altar every offering that is made to God; for with such sacrifices He is well pleased, while those that are offered grudgingly are an offense to Him. {5T 269.2}

T: MM, I agree that our obedience to God should not be egocentric, I point I've often made to you in our discussions regarding sins of ignorance, and I also agree that the points your are mentioning are elements of what slavish obedience encompasses. However, it is not what EGW is dealing with in the context of the statement I quoted, which is the following:

Quote:
God does not force the will or judgment of any. He takes no pleasure in a slavish obedience. He desires that the creatures of His hands shall love Him because He is worthy of love. He would have them obey Him because they have an intelligent appreciation of His wisdom, justice, and benevolence. And all who have a just conception of these qualities will love Him because they are drawn toward Him in admiration of His attributes.

The principles of kindness, mercy, and love, taught and exemplified by our Saviour, are a transcript of the will and character of God. Christ declared that He taught nothing except that which He had received from His Father. The principles of the divine government are in perfect harmony with the Saviour's precept, "Love your enemies." (GC 541)

What she brings out here is that slavish obedience is in contrast to intelligent appreciation. These, by the way, are the differences of the Old and New Covenants.

Quote:
The same law that was engraved upon the tables of stone is written by the Holy Spirit upon the tables of the heart. Instead of going about to establish our own righteousness we accept the righteousness of Christ.(PP 372)

The Old Covenant consists of a slavish obedience to laws written on stone, which is why it "gendereth to bondage." In the New Covenant the law is written in the heart, and one is constrained to obey by the agape of God, revealed in the cross of Calvary (which agrees with the 5T 269.2 quote you pointed out).

I, too, agree with the points you raised here, except I do not agree that obeying God for less than optimum reasons constitutes slavish obedience. I do not agree with you that obeying God based on reasons no better than, Because I said so, is slavish obedience. All true obedience springs forth from a heart wherein the Holy Spirit dwells triumphantly even when such obedience has a foundation no better than, Because I said so.
Posted By: Mountain Man

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 12/24/08 09:48 PM

Originally Posted By: Tom
MM said that God didn't communicate everything that He could communicate because of dimwittedness. Therefore if there are things which were not being communicated by God, the reason for this is being dimwitted. Jesus said He told us "all things that I have heard from my Father." So everything that God communicated to Jesus, Jesus communicated to the disciples. I pointed out that Jesus wasn't too dimwitted to hear things from God. The communication was God ==> Jesus ==> disciples. Since Jesus communicated all things He heard to the disciples, if God was holding things back, He had to have been holding them back from Jesus.

Tom, you are taking Jesus' words out of context and applying it to everything. Moments afterward Jesus said, "I have yet many things to say unto you, but ye cannot bear them now." How do you reconcile what you believe with what Jesus said here?
Posted By: teresaq

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 12/24/08 09:49 PM

Quote:
There was even a time when I thought I was over the hurt. But I was only hardening my heart making matters worse. Now I welcome the pain.


aaaahhh, you think im hardening my heart. i havent seen any evidence of that in my life, since i still reach out to those i see in pain, and with much more wisdom and reliance on the Lord for Him to minister through me, i believe, than i ever did in my "pain".

but i dont "fear" hurting from what they did. i gave up the anger and felt the pain. its not the same as losing a loved one. that pain never goes away. we may forget at times, but when thinking about it it still hurts. but that is a different kind of pain. right now im worried about whether they will accept salvation and change than "feeling my pain".
maybe that is why it doesnt hurt anymore. its just not that important compared to whether they will come to know the Lord or not.

that is the struggle, staying in Jesus and out of myself.

another issue you touched on was repentence for what i have done. i have also had that experience. it seems repentence can go deeper and deeper.
Posted By: Tom

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 12/24/08 11:15 PM

Quote:
Tom, you are taking Jesus' words out of context and applying it to everything. Moments afterward Jesus said, "I have yet many things to say unto you, but ye cannot bear them now." How do you reconcile what you believe with what Jesus said here?


Jesus said the following:

Quote:
15Henceforth I call you not servants; for the servant knoweth not what his lord doeth: but I have called you friends; for all things that I have heard of my Father I have made known unto you.


This looks to me to be saying that the reason He called them not friends but servants was tied to the fact that He told them things He had heard from His Father. He said, "for the servant knoweth not what his lord doeth".

So what distinguishes the servant from the friend? Isn't it that the servant does not know that his lord doeth, but the friend does? And isn't the reason for this because the lord has communicated these things? So the difference between servant and the friend is understanding. This seems to me to be in harmony with EGW's statement that God does not desire a slavish obedience, but one based on intelligent appreciation.
Posted By: Tom

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 12/24/08 11:20 PM

Quote:
A:What I'm taking issue with is the teaching that God thinks it is good that we question His character, and make Him explain Himself every time He gives a command.

T:This hasn't been suggested either.

A:Perhaps I misunderstood you. Let me try to understand.

If God gave a command, e.g. keep the seventh day holy, and I could see no good reason for it other than God says I should do it, should I immediately do as He says or disregard it until I see a reason?


I've been saying I don't think God would do this, because He does not desire a slavish obedience, but one based on evidence, which involves one's reason, and understanding.
Posted By: Tom

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 12/24/08 11:59 PM

Quote:
You didn't answer my question. Here it is again: Do these verses require "slavish" obedience since they do not contain "better" reasons why God commands people to rest on the seventh day? NOTE: The passage in Genesis is the only thing people had for 2500 years.


No it's not. I don't know why you would think this. There was a vast oral tradition, a part of which was included in the books of Moses, which include Job, as well as the Pentateuch.

Quote:
It could be argued that people also understood the commandment as it reads in Exodus 20:8-11. Did these people render slavish obedience?


Since they were slaves, and needed to be educated in the things of God, it is not surprising that they would render a slavish obedience. Indeed, this is what the Old Covenant is about, rendering slavish obedience. However God was always interested in writing the law in their heart, and in obedience motivated by an intelligent appreciation of His character.

I don't understand how your points about friends has to do with Jesus' point, that He was calling His disciples not servants, but friends, because a servant does not know what his lord is doing, but Jesus told them all things He had heard from His Father. This seems to me like the same idea EGW communicated in saying that God does not desire a slavish obedience, but one based on an intelligent appreciation of God's character.

Quote:
T:The Old Covenant consists of a slavish obedience to laws written on stone, which is why it "gendereth to bondage." In the New Covenant the law is written in the heart, and one is constrained to obey by the agape of God, revealed in the cross of Calvary (which agrees with the 5T 269.2 quote you pointed out).

M:I, too, agree with the points you raised here, except I do not agree that obeying God for less than optimum reasons constitutes slavish obedience.


This is a bit vague. That is "less than optimum reason" is vague, but, depending upon how this is interpreted, I think this is exactly what constitutes slavish obedience.

Quote:
I do not agree with you that obeying God based on reasons no better than, Because I said so, is slavish obedience.


Ok, we disagree on this point then. I don't see how this idea harmonizes with what Jesus said in John 15:15.

Quote:
All true obedience springs forth from a heart wherein the Holy Spirit dwells triumphantly even when such obedience has a foundation no better than, Because I said so.


How would this be different than an automaton?

Quote:
The government of God is not, as Satan would make it appear, founded upon a blind submission, an unreasoning control. It appeals to the intellect and the conscience. "Come now, and let us reason together" is the Creator's invitation to the beings He has made. Isaiah 1:18. God does not force the will of His creatures. He cannot accept an homage that is not willingly and intelligently given.(SC 43)


How does, "Because I said so" appeal to the intellect? How does this involve reasoning together?
Posted By: asygo

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 12/25/08 02:20 AM

Originally Posted By: Tom
Quote:
A:What I'm taking issue with is the teaching that God thinks it is good that we question His character, and make Him explain Himself every time He gives a command.

T:This hasn't been suggested either.

A:Perhaps I misunderstood you. Let me try to understand.

If God gave a command, e.g. keep the seventh day holy, and I could see no good reason for it other than God says I should do it, should I immediately do as He says or disregard it until I see a reason?

I've been saying I don't think God would do this, because He does not desire a slavish obedience, but one based on evidence, which involves one's reason, and understanding.

I was afraid you would say that, but I'm not surprised that you did.

You don't think God can tell us something that is beyond our ability to comprehend? If you believe that you will always see a good reason for God's commands, you have more faith in your abilities than I do in mine and Abraham's. And it looks like I'm not going to be able to convince you otherwise. I have a revival series to attend to; maybe we can pick this up again in a few months.

BTW, I used to think highly of my own ability to understand God's words and commands also. Fatherhood cured me of that really fast. Commands and counsel that I felt safe to disregard because I saw no reason for them, suddenly made perfect sense. I have since learned to trust God more implicitly.
Posted By: Tom

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 12/25/08 03:06 AM

Quote:
You don't think God can tell us something that is beyond our ability to comprehend?


No, this isn't what I said. What I said is I believe God does not desire a slavish obedience, but one based on evidence, which involves one's reason, and understanding.

Quote:
If you believe that you will always see a good reason for God's commands, you have more faith in your abilities than I do in mine and Abraham's. And it looks like I'm not going to be able to convince you otherwise.


Well since I don't believe what you're suggesting, this seems moot.

Quote:
I have a revival series to attend to; maybe we can pick this up again in a few months.

BTW, I used to think highly of my own ability to understand God's words and commands also.


I wonder if you can have a post that doesn't have insults in it. It's Christmas Eve. How about some good cheer?
Posted By: asygo

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 12/25/08 04:43 AM

I did not mean to insult you. I was just stating an unfortunate fact. I thought I was "all that," but I wasn't. Fatherhood tends to open one's eyes to one's shortcomings. Even Enoch learned a few things when he became a father.

BTW, this was my question:
Quote:
If God gave a command, e.g. keep the seventh day holy, and I could see no good reason for it other than God says I should do it, should I immediately do as He says or disregard it until I see a reason?

To which you replied, "I don't think God would do this..." IOW, you don't think God would give a command to which I could see no reason.

You keep talking about what you believe God desires, but it all boils down to your ability to see the reason for it, because you don't think God will give you a command that is beyond your ability to find a reason for. If your obedience is dependent on your ability to find an acceptable reason, it is assent, not submission.
Posted By: Tom

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 12/25/08 05:23 AM

The insult was in the word "also." If you had left that out, then you would have been simply stating "an unfortunate fact."

Regarding your question:

Quote:
If God gave a command, e.g. keep the seventh day holy, and I could see no good reason for it other than God says I should do it, should I immediately do as He says or disregard it until I see a reason?


If you don't see the reason, how do you know it's a command? For example, how do you know that the Sabbath wasn't done away with, as so many think, unless you investigate the issue? Or that is was changed for Sunday?

Quote:
You keep talking about what you believe God desires, but it all boils down to your ability to see the reason for it, because you don't think God will give you a command that is beyond your ability to find a reason for.


I don't see how the idea that God does not desire a slavish obedience, which is not based on evidence, reason, or understanding, why this would boil down to me and not God. If God doesn't desire such obedience, doesn't it behoove Him to provide evidence? From my reading of the SOP, this is something God "always" does; that is, He doesn't ask us to believe without providing sufficient evidence for that belief. This shouldn't be taken to mean that God will provide overwhelming evidence that would knock away any possible objection -- we will always have hooks available upon which to hang our doubts -- but God will provide enough evidence upon which a well-reasoned, intelligent decision can be made.

This is really a question of God's character, not of me or my willingness to do something. I've made no statements regarding my willingness or unwillingness to obey.

Quote:
If your obedience is dependent on your ability to find an acceptable reason, it is assent, not submission.


If you mean dependent at all, I disagree, as I think such obedience, which is completely divorced from understanding, evidence, or reason, is exactly what comprises a slavish obedience, which God does not desire. I believe God desires intelligent, willful obedience, based on an investigation of the evidence He has provided.

If you mean dependent only upon this, then this is something I haven't been suggesting. I've been suggesting reason, evidence and understand are involved in obedience, but not that these are the only factors.
Posted By: asygo

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 12/25/08 08:21 AM

Originally Posted By: Tom
The insult was in the word "also." If you had left that out, then you would have been simply stating "an unfortunate fact."

Unfortunately, I was stating it about both of us. But if you don't think I have assessed your position properly, given that you have chosen to leave out certain pieces of info, then feel free to ignore it. But in any case, iron sharpens iron, and it's not always a picnic.

Originally Posted By: Tom
Regarding your question:

Quote:
If God gave a command, e.g. keep the seventh day holy, and I could see no good reason for it other than God says I should do it, should I immediately do as He says or disregard it until I see a reason?

If you don't see the reason, how do you know it's a command? For example, how do you know that the Sabbath wasn't done away with, as so many think, unless you investigate the issue? Or that is was changed for Sunday?

...

This shouldn't be taken to mean that God will provide overwhelming evidence that would knock away any possible objection -- we will always have hooks available upon which to hang our doubts -- but God will provide enough evidence upon which a well-reasoned, intelligent decision can be made.

You say that your position shouldn't be taken as God removing every possible hook to hang doubts on. But when I give a specific example, you use every conceivable hook, even hypothetical ones, to justify failure to obey.

Look at the excuses you gave. I presented the situation where God tells you to keep the seventh day. Then you come up with some hooks:
1) maybe it wasn't really a command
2) maybe it was done away with, notwithstanding that God just told you to do it
3) maybe it was changed

Remember I mentioned once that you remind me of my 10-year-old? She does the same thing when she doesn't want to obey a plainly stated command - she comes up with a list of possible reasons why she doesn't have to obey.

Fold clothes? What clothes? I have a lot of clothes. Which do you mean? Oh, the ones I just got out of the dryer?

Why didn't I clear the table? I thought you changed your mind because you went to your room. I didn't know I was supposed to clear off the dishes, too. My brother usually does that.


My father does the same thing about a host of plain commands. I guess it runs in the family.

I deal with this quite a bit. I can spot it a mile away. But you know what I tell my daughter? Obey the light you have, then you'll be prepared for more light. There will always be hooks to hang your doubt on. Don't let that lead you into disobedience.

Originally Posted By: Tom
Quote:
You keep talking about what you believe God desires, but it all boils down to your ability to see the reason for it, because you don't think God will give you a command that is beyond your ability to find a reason for.

I don't see how the idea that God does not desire a slavish obedience, which is not based on evidence, reason, or understanding, why this would boil down to me and not God. If God doesn't desire such obedience, doesn't it behoove Him to provide evidence? From my reading of the SOP, this is something God "always" does; that is, He doesn't ask us to believe without providing sufficient evidence for that belief.

Yes, God always provides a reason. What I've been trying to point out to you, but you seem unable to accept, is that sometimes we are just too dumb to understand it. That's why you come across as having an unwarranted amount of confidence in your own abilities.

God always provides a reason. I believe that sometimes we are too dense to "get it" and we just have to take God at His word. But you keep disagreeing with me on that. That's why I said it boils down to you.

Originally Posted By: Tom
This is really a question of God's character, not of me or my willingness to do something. I've made no statements regarding my willingness or unwillingness to obey.

But you have said that if someone doesn't see any good reason to obey God's commands, they should not obey. That's not about God's character; that's about the rebel's.

Originally Posted By: Tom
Quote:
If your obedience is dependent on your ability to find an acceptable reason, it is assent, not submission.

If you mean dependent at all, I disagree, as I think such obedience, which is completely divorced from understanding, evidence, or reason, is exactly what comprises a slavish obedience, which God does not desire. I believe God desires intelligent, willful obedience, based on an investigation of the evidence He has provided.

We agree on the need for evidence. I say that the evidence of God's goodness and wisdom - His good character - is a big enough blanket to cover any questions and confusion I may have. But you say that is not enough. And that is a slap in God's face - to say that you know His character, then to say that He has to explain Himself to your satisfaction at every command before you will obey. God may have died, but He certainly didn't put any of us in charge.
Posted By: Tom

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 12/25/08 09:17 AM

Quote:
Unfortunately, I was stating it about both of us. But if you don't think I have assessed your position properly, given that you have chosen to leave out certain pieces of info, then feel free to ignore it. But in any case, iron sharpens iron, and it's not always a picnic.


Arnold, you wrote that you "used to" think highly of your ability to understand God's words and commands "also." "Used to" means you don't any more. "Also" means I still do. So I think highly of my own ability to understand God's words and commands, but you don't.

The issue isn't whether you have assessed my position rightly or not, but that you would take it upon yourself to undertake this task.

Quote:
You say that your position shouldn't be taken as God removing every possible hook to hang doubts on.


Yes, I keep repeating this, so the point will be clear. Enough evidence to make an well-reasoned, intelligent decision does not mean that any opportunity for doubt will be removed.

Quote:
God never asks us to believe, without giving sufficient evidence upon which to base our faith....Yet God has never removed the possibility of doubt. Our faith must rest upon evidence, not demonstration. Those who wish to doubt will have opportunity; while those who really desire to know the truth, will find plenty of evidence on which to rest their faith. (SC 105)


Quote:
But when I give a specific example, you use every conceivable hook, even hypothetical ones, to justify failure to obey.

Look at the excuses you gave. I presented the situation where God tells you to keep the seventh day. Then you come up with some hooks:
1) maybe it wasn't really a command
2) maybe it was done away with, notwithstanding that God just told you to do it
3) maybe it was changed


Arnold, I'm an SDA! I'm not using any hook at all as an excuse not to keep the Sabbath! I investigated the evidence, and became convinced that what SDA's taught regarding the Sabbath was truth. I don't understand on what other basis you would expect someone to keep the Sabbath. Would you reject out of hand the claims of millions of Christians that the Sabbath shouldn't be kept without investigation? On what basis would you do so?

I really don't understand what you're arguing against here.

Quote:
T:This is really a question of God's character, not of me or my willingness to do something. I've made no statements regarding my willingness or unwillingness to obey.

A:But you have said that if someone doesn't see any good reason to obey God's commands, they should not obey.


No I didn't.

Quote:
We agree on the need for evidence. I say that the evidence of God's goodness and wisdom - His good character - is a big enough blanket to cover any questions and confusion I may have. But you say that is not enough. And that is a slap in God's face - to say that you know His character, then to say that He has to explain Himself to your satisfaction at every command before you will obey. God may have died, but He certainly didn't put any of us in charge.


I didn't say this either, Arnold.

You keep asserting things I've not said. Especially flagrant is the part in italics. Please quit doing this. This is not fair. Please quote things I've actually written.

You got upset when I simply asked clarifying questions about your position. How you would feel if I actually asserted that you said things you never said?
Posted By: Mountain Man

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 12/27/08 08:37 PM

Originally Posted By: teresaq
Quote:
There was even a time when I thought I was over the hurt. But I was only hardening my heart making matters worse. Now I welcome the pain.

aaaahhh, you think im hardening my heart.

God forbid. I was talking about myself. I shared my personal testimony. I would never speak to you that way.

Originally Posted By: teresaq
i havent seen any evidence of that in my life, since i still reach out to those i see in pain, and with much more wisdom and reliance on the Lord for Him to minister through me, i believe, than i ever did in my "pain".

but i dont "fear" hurting from what they did. i gave up the anger and felt the pain. its not the same as losing a loved one. that pain never goes away. we may forget at times, but when thinking about it it still hurts. but that is a different kind of pain. right now im worried about whether they will accept salvation and change than "feeling my pain".
maybe that is why it doesnt hurt anymore. its just not that important compared to whether they will come to know the Lord or not.

that is the struggle, staying in Jesus and out of myself.

another issue you touched on was repentence for what i have done. i have also had that experience. it seems repentence can go deeper and deeper.

Amen! Thank you for sharing.
Posted By: Mountain Man

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 12/27/08 08:46 PM

Originally Posted By: Tom
Quote:
Tom, you are taking Jesus' words out of context and applying it to everything. Moments afterward Jesus said, "I have yet many things to say unto you, but ye cannot bear them now." How do you reconcile what you believe with what Jesus said here?

Jesus said the following:

Quote:
15Henceforth I call you not servants; for the servant knoweth not what his lord doeth: but I have called you friends; for all things that I have heard of my Father I have made known unto you.

This looks to me to be saying that the reason He called them not friends but servants was tied to the fact that He told them things He had heard from His Father. He said, "for the servant knoweth not what his lord doeth".

So what distinguishes the servant from the friend? Isn't it that the servant does not know that his lord doeth, but the friend does? And isn't the reason for this because the lord has communicated these things? So the difference between servant and the friend is understanding. This seems to me to be in harmony with EGW's statement that God does not desire a slavish obedience, but one based on intelligent appreciation.

You didn't reconcile it. Are you now saying Jesus didn't tell them everything His Father told Him?
Posted By: Tom

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 12/27/08 09:20 PM

I think it's a moot point to the discussion. The things Jesus had to tell them which they couldn't bear may not have not have been the "all things" the Father told Him. The following is the salient point to our discussion:

Jesus said the following:

Quote:
15Henceforth I call you not servants; for the servant knoweth not what his lord doeth: but I have called you friends; for all things that I have heard of my Father I have made known unto you.


This looks to me to be saying that the reason He called them not friends but servants was tied to the fact that He told them things He had heard from His Father. He said, "for the servant knoweth not what his lord doeth".

So what distinguishes the servant from the friend? Isn't it that the servant does not know that his lord doeth, but the friend does? And isn't the reason for this because the lord has communicated these things? So the difference between servant and the friend is understanding. This seems to me to be in harmony with EGW's statement that God does not desire a slavish obedience, but one based on intelligent appreciation.
Posted By: Mountain Man

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 12/27/08 09:24 PM

Originally Posted By: Tom
M: You didn't answer my question. Here it is again: Do these verses require "slavish" obedience since they do not contain "better" reasons why God commands people to rest on the seventh day? NOTE: The passage in Genesis is the only thing people had for 2500 years.

T: No it's not. I don't know why you would think this. There was a vast oral tradition, a part of which was included in the books of Moses, which include Job, as well as the Pentateuch.

The only thing they had before the Exodus was what Moses wrote about in Genesis. Job says nothing about the Sabbath. If you disagree, please post inspired passages that teach otherwise.

Again, you didn't answer my question. Here it is again: Do these verses [Gen 2:1-3 and Ex 20:8-11] require "slavish" obedience since they do not contain "better" reasons why God commands people to rest on the seventh day?

Quote:
M: It could be argued that people also understood the commandment as it reads in Exodus 20:8-11. Did these people render slavish obedience?

T: Since they were slaves, and needed to be educated in the things of God, it is not surprising that they would render a slavish obedience. Indeed, this is what the Old Covenant is about, rendering slavish obedience. However God was always interested in writing the law in their heart, and in obedience motivated by an intelligent appreciation of His character.

God's people were not slaves for 2500 years. The Jews were slaves for less than 200 years. My question pertains to everyone who lived and kept the Sabbath before the Exodus. Did they render slavish obedience since the only reason God gave for keeping the Sabbath was because He rested on that day?

Quote:
Originally Posted By: MM
M: Now, as to your first question. Jesus said, "Ye are my friends, if ye do whatsoever I command you." Obviously, the kind of friendship Jesus is referring to isn't an ordinary friendship. How can it be? Jesus is, after all, God, and we're only human, and sinful to boot. My earthly friendships are not predicated on doing whatever they command me to do.

Jesus also said, "Henceforth I call you not servants; for the servant knoweth not what his lord doeth: but I have called you friends; for all things that I have heard of my Father I have made known unto you." This must be understood in a limited sense, because obviously Jesus didn't tell them everything His Father told Him.

For example, Jesus said, "I have yet many things to say unto you, but ye cannot bear them now." He left it to the Holy Spirit to explain certain things to the disciples later on. But not even the Holy Spirit could tell them everything. Elsewhere we read, "O the depth of the riches both of the wisdom and knowledge of God! How unsearchable are his judgments, and his ways past finding out!"

"Henceforth I call you not servants." Even this statement must be understood in a limited sense. Jesus also said, "He that is greatest among you shall be your servant. If any man desire to be first, the same shall be last of all, and servant of all. Blessed is that servant, whom his lord when he cometh shall find so doing. Well done, thou good and faithful servant . . . enter thou into the joy of thy lord. The servant is not greater than his lord. If they have persecuted me, they will also persecute you; if they have kept my saying, they will keep yours also."

There is also the fact the disciples and apostles referred to themselves as servants. For example, "Paul, a servant of Jesus Christ. Epaphras, who is one of you, a servant of Christ. James, a servant of God and of the Lord Jesus Christ. Simon Peter, a servant and an apostle of Jesus Christ. Jude, the servant of Jesus Christ. The Revelation of Jesus Christ, which God gave unto him, to show unto his servants things which must shortly come to pass; and he sent and signified it by his angel unto his servant John."

"For the servant knoweth not what his lord doeth." Again, this statement must be understood in a limited sense. Jesus also said, "And that servant, which knew his lord's will, and prepared not himself, neither did according to his will, shall be beaten with many stripes." Obviously this servant was in the know. Nevertheless, he didn't obey his master. The end of such servants is less than desirable. "Cast ye the unprofitable servant into outer darkness: there shall be weeping and gnashing of teeth."

So, what did Jesus mean when He said, "Ye are my friends, if ye do whatsoever I command you. Henceforth I call you not servants; for the servant knoweth not what his lord doeth: but I have called you friends; for all things that I have heard of my Father I have made known unto you." Again, I believe it must be understood within the immediate context.

Here it is: [John 15:1-17 quoted] This is the context of the statement, "All things that I have heard of my Father I have made known unto you." Especially, Jesus made known to them the following:

"Now ye are clean through the word which I have spoken unto you. Abide in me, and I in you. As the branch cannot bear fruit of itself, except it abide in the vine; no more can ye, except ye abide in me. Herein is my Father glorified, that ye bear much fruit; so shall ye be my disciples. These things have I spoken unto you, that my joy might remain in you, and that your joy might be full. This is my commandment, That ye love one another, as I have loved you."

This is what it takes to be Jesus' friend. But being His friend does not mean we stop being His servant. He will always be our Lord and Master, and we will always be His servants and friends.

Again, this type of friendship is unique in that it doesn't resemble normal earthly friendships. Beings friends with the Lord and Master of the Universe is not the same thing as being friends with angels or humans or any other FMA. For one thing, we are not His equal.

Consider also the fact Jesus called Judas "friend" the night he betrayed Jesus into the hands of sinners. "Friend, wherefore art thou come?" A similar thing exists in the following passages where Jesus is portrayed as calling people "friend" when they are in fact not His friends. "Friend, I do thee no wrong: didst not thou agree with me for a penny?" "Friend, how camest thou in hither not having a wedding garment?"

I don't understand how your points about friends has to do with Jesus' point, that He was calling His disciples not servants, but friends, because a servant does not know what his lord is doing, but Jesus told them all things He had heard from His Father. This seems to me like the same idea EGW communicated in saying that God does not desire a slavish obedience, but one based on an intelligent appreciation of God's character.

Tom, please address each point I made. It took me quite awhile to write them out. I would like to discuss them.

Quote:
T: The Old Covenant consists of a slavish obedience to laws written on stone, which is why it "gendereth to bondage." In the New Covenant the law is written in the heart, and one is constrained to obey by the agape of God, revealed in the cross of Calvary (which agrees with the 5T 269.2 quote you pointed out).

M: I, too, agree with the points you raised here, except I do not agree that obeying God for less than optimum reasons constitutes slavish obedience.

T: This is a bit vague. That is "less than optimum reason" is vague, but, depending upon how this is interpreted, I think this is exactly what constitutes slavish obedience.

"Because I said so" is an example of a "less than optimum reason" for obeying God. Obeying God because He said so, if it is the fruit of faith that works by love, is righteousness and true holiness. As such there is nothing slavish about it. The concept of "slavish obedience" must necessarily apply to something else.

Quote:
M: I do not agree with you that obeying God based on reasons no better than, Because I said so, is slavish obedience.

T: Ok, we disagree on this point then. I don't see how this idea harmonizes with what Jesus said in John 15:15.

M: All true obedience springs forth from a heart wherein the Holy Spirit dwells triumphantly even when such obedience has a foundation no better than, Because I said so.

T: How would this be different than an automaton? "The government of God is not, as Satan would make it appear, founded upon a blind submission, an unreasoning control. It appeals to the intellect and the conscience. "Come now, and let us reason together" is the Creator's invitation to the beings He has made. Isaiah 1:18. God does not force the will of His creatures. He cannot accept an homage that is not willingly and intelligently given." (SC 43)

How does, "Because I said so" appeal to the intellect? How does this involve reasoning together?

Obedience that flows from a heart where the Holy Spirit resides is true obedience. There is nothing robotic or slavish about it. You seem to think true obedience is impossible if it is rendered in response to, Obey me because I said so. If what you say is right, how do you explain all the places in the Bible where God commanded people to do things without explaining why? On one occasion a guy didn't obey and he ended up in the belly of a whale.
Posted By: Mountain Man

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 12/27/08 10:22 PM

Tom, I just read your last post to Arnold (106514). If I were in your shoes I would wonder why three intelligent posters on this forum have so much trouble understanding your position. If you're open to ideas I would say it's because you rarely state your position clearly. For someone who spends so much time instructing others how to clearly state their position it seems strange to me that you often fail to do so yourself.
Posted By: teresaq

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 12/28/08 01:42 AM

Quote:
On one occasion a guy didn't obey and he ended up in the belly of a whale.


did God send the whale to keep jonah from drowning? how many of us would survive inside of any animal?
Posted By: Tom

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 12/28/08 08:22 AM

Quote:
M: You didn't answer my question. Here it is again: Do these verses require "slavish" obedience since they do not contain "better" reasons why God commands people to rest on the seventh day? NOTE: The passage in Genesis is the only thing people had for 2500 years.

T: No it's not. I don't know why you would think this. There was a vast oral tradition, a part of which was included in the books of Moses, which include Job, as well as the Pentateuch.

M:The only thing they had before the Exodus was what Moses wrote about in Genesis.


No, this isn't true. They had a vast oral tradition, as I pointed out. This is what Moses wrote Job and the books of the Pentateuch from. Not all of the oral tradition was written down (also, much of what was written down was not part of the oral tradition, since it hadn't happened yet; e.g. the oral tradition did not contain the Exodus).

Quote:
Job says nothing about the Sabbath. If you disagree, please post inspired passages that teach otherwise.

Again, you didn't answer my question. Here it is again: Do these verses [Gen 2:1-3 and Ex 20:8-11] require "slavish" obedience since they do not contain "better" reasons why God commands people to rest on the seventh day?


I did answer this. Your assumption that this is all they had is incorrect.

Quote:
God's people were not slaves for 2500 years. The Jews were slaves for less than 200 years. My question pertains to everyone who lived and kept the Sabbath before the Exodus. Did they render slavish obedience since the only reason God gave for keeping the Sabbath was because He rested on that day?


Same answer.

Quote:
M:Consider also the fact Jesus called Judas "friend" the night he betrayed Jesus into the hands of sinners. "Friend, wherefore art thou come?" A similar thing exists in the following passages where Jesus is portrayed as calling people "friend" when they are in fact not His friends. "Friend, I do thee no wrong: didst not thou agree with me for a penny?" "Friend, how camest thou in hither not having a wedding garment?"

T:I don't understand how your points about friends has to do with Jesus' point, that He was calling His disciples not servants, but friends, because a servant does not know what his lord is doing, but Jesus told them all things He had heard from His Father. This seems to me like the same idea EGW communicated in saying that God does not desire a slavish obedience, but one based on an intelligent appreciation of God's character.

M:Tom, please address each point I made. It took me quite awhile to write them out. I would like to discuss them.

T:I did address it. I said I didn't understand your points. Simply asking again that I respond isn't going to help, if you don't explain your points. I'll address your points in the same way I did before; I don't understand your points.

[quote]"Because I said so" is an example of a "less than optimum reason" for obeying God. Obeying God because He said so, if it is the fruit of faith that works by love, is righteousness and true holiness. As such there is nothing slavish about it. The concept of "slavish obedience" must necessarily apply to something else.


The faith that works by love is based on evidence, as God always gives us sufficient evidence upon which to base our faith: "God never asks us to believe, without giving sufficient evidence upon which to base our faith (SC 105)". Because I said so is not evidence. This is probably where you and I (and Arnold and I) disagree. At least, this is what I'm understanding. You and he view "Because I said so" as evidence upon which to base our faith, because we already know God, and therefore that's all that's needed. What I'm understanding is that God, even after we know Him, still does not want an obedience which is not based on evidence, reason, or understanding in relation to the item under consideration.

Without considering evidence, it would be very easy to be under the delusion that one is obeying God while actually obeying the enemy.

Regarding what the concept of slavish obedience encompasses, there's no need to speculate. We're told what it is. It's as opposed to "intelligent appreciation." Jesus describes it in terms of not knowing what the master is doing.

Quote:
I do not call you servants (slaves) any longer, for the servant does not know what his master is doing. (John 15:15; Amplified)


Quote:
Obedience that flows from a heart where the Holy Spirit resides is true obedience. There is nothing robotic or slavish about it. You seem to think true obedience is impossible if it is rendered in response to, Obey me because I said so. If what you say is right, how do you explain all the places in the Bible where God commanded people to do things without explaining why? On one occasion a guy didn't obey and he ended up in the belly of a whale.


Jesus said, "I do not call you servants (slaves) any longer" which implies there was a time when He did. So if one is unwilling to keep step with God, God will humble Himself and keep step with man. The Old and New Covenant is a perfect illustration of this theme.
Posted By: Tom

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 12/28/08 08:31 AM

Quote:
Tom, I just read your last post to Arnold (106514). If I were in your shoes I would wonder why three intelligent posters on this forum have so much trouble understanding your position. If you're open to ideas I would say it's because you rarely state your position clearly. For someone who spends so much time instructing others how to clearly state their position it seems strange to me that you often fail to do so yourself.


I've repeated asked that what I have written be quoted, and things be questioned or commented on the basis of that. If people take it upon themselves to assert that I believe or have stated things I've never said, I don't see how I can be held responsible for that, especially when I've been asking all along to be quoted.

Now if you, or Arnold, or whoever *quotes* something I said, and *that* is unclear, then I bear the responsibility of what I wrote being unclear.

For example, you state here that I rarely state my position clearly. On this thread I've stated my position over and over again, which is that God does not desire a slavish obedience, but one based on evidence, reason and understanding. What's unclear about that? I've stated that God does not ask us to believe without giving us sufficient evidence upon which to base our faith. Isn't that clear as well?
Posted By: Tom

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 12/28/08 08:32 AM

Quote:
How many of us would survive inside of any animal?


I think all of us have, for around 9 months or so. smile
Posted By: teresaq

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 12/28/08 09:03 AM

ok, too funny! smile
Posted By: Mountain Man

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 12/29/08 10:52 PM

Originally Posted By: teresaq
Quote:
On one occasion a guy didn't obey and he ended up in the belly of a whale.

did God send the whale to keep jonah from drowning? how many of us would survive inside of any animal?

You find the funniest things to comment on. You remind me of one of my best friends. She finds humor in almost everything. She rarely shows her serious side. Of course we enjoy her company the most. Thanx!!
Posted By: Mountain Man

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 12/29/08 11:22 PM

Originally Posted By: Tom
Quote:
Tom, I just read your last post to Arnold (106514). If I were in your shoes I would wonder why three intelligent posters on this forum have so much trouble understanding your position. If you're open to ideas I would say it's because you rarely state your position clearly. For someone who spends so much time instructing others how to clearly state their position it seems strange to me that you often fail to do so yourself.

I've repeated asked that what I have written be quoted, and things be questioned or commented on the basis of that. If people take it upon themselves to assert that I believe or have stated things I've never said, I don't see how I can be held responsible for that, especially when I've been asking all along to be quoted.

Now if you, or Arnold, or whoever *quotes* something I said, and *that* is unclear, then I bear the responsibility of what I wrote being unclear.

For example, you state here that I rarely state my position clearly. On this thread I've stated my position over and over again, which is that God does not desire a slavish obedience, but one based on evidence, reason and understanding. What's unclear about that? I've stated that God does not ask us to believe without giving us sufficient evidence upon which to base our faith. Isn't that clear as well?

Tom, the fact you must repeatedly restate your position suggests it wasn't clear enough the first time. I'm guessing the reason some people do not quote you is because what you posted wasn't clear enough to quote. But perhaps you are improving. I don't know.

You wrote, "God does not desire a slavish obedience, but one based on evidence, reason, and understanding." Are you implying people who obey God based on evidence alone counts as slavish? And, aren't you also implying "slavish obedience" is not true obedience (in the sense it is not the fruit of the Holy Spirit dwelling within)?

You also wrote, "I've stated that God does not ask us to believe without giving us sufficient evidence upon which to base our faith." What do you consider sufficient? Isn't it rather subjective? "God said it, I believe it, and that settles it for me." Does this song refer to sufficient evidence? For me it does. How about you?

For example, it matters not to me that I can't prove God exists, or that I can't prove He created everything in 7 days. Note: Some people argue God created everything in 6 days, but they overlook the fact God created the seventh day on the seventh day.
Posted By: teresaq

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 12/30/08 12:03 AM

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"God does not desire a slavish obedience, but one based on evidence, reason, and understanding."


have a few examples of what "slavish obedience" might look like already been presented? and then a few examples of what informed obedience looks like?
Posted By: Mountain Man

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 12/30/08 12:30 AM

Originally Posted By: Tom
M: You didn't answer my question. Here it is again: Do these verses require "slavish" obedience since they do not contain "better" reasons why God commands people to rest on the seventh day? NOTE: The passage in Genesis is the only thing people had for 2500 years.

T: No it's not. I don't know why you would think this. There was a vast oral tradition, a part of which was included in the books of Moses, which include Job, as well as the Pentateuch.

M: The only thing they had before the Exodus was what Moses wrote about in Genesis.

T: No, this isn't true. They had a vast oral tradition, as I pointed out. This is what Moses wrote Job and the books of the Pentateuch from. Not all of the oral tradition was written down (also, much of what was written down was not part of the oral tradition, since it hadn't happened yet; e.g. the oral tradition did not contain the Exodus).

You would be hard pressed to prove your point, Tom. You would have to turn to unbiblical sources to do so, and what good would that do? It wouldn’t prove a thing. Besides, do you know of any non-canonical sources which explain what people who lived before the Exodus knew about Sabbath-keeping above and beyond what Moses wrote in Genesis 2:1-3 and Exodus 20:8-11?

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M: Job says nothing about the Sabbath. If you disagree, please post inspired passages that teach otherwise.

Again, you didn't answer my question. Here it is again: Do these verses [Gen 2:1-3 and Ex 20:8-11] require "slavish" obedience since they do not contain "better" reasons why God commands people to rest on the seventh day?

T: I did answer this. Your assumption that this is all they had is incorrect.

Insisting it is so is not the answer I was looking for, Tom. Please post inspired quotes which clearly state what you think about it. BTW, do you agree the two passages referred to above lack the kind of evidence, reasoning, and understanding you think is necessary to qualify as sufficient to obey God intelligently and not slavishly?

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M: God's people were not slaves for 2500 years. The Jews were slaves for less than 200 years. My question pertains to everyone who lived and kept the Sabbath before the Exodus. Did they render slavish obedience since the only reason God gave for keeping the Sabbath was because He rested on that day?

T: Same answer.

You seem to expect me to render slavish obedience since your evidence is less than sufficient. Ha! That was an awkward attempt at humor. Perhaps I need to take lessons from Teresaq?

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M: Consider also the fact Jesus called Judas "friend" the night he betrayed Jesus into the hands of sinners. "Friend, wherefore art thou come?" A similar thing exists in the following passages where Jesus is portrayed as calling people "friend" when they are in fact not His friends. "Friend, I do thee no wrong: didst not thou agree with me for a penny?" "Friend, how camest thou in hither not having a wedding garment?"

T: I don't understand how your points about friends has to do with Jesus' point, that He was calling His disciples not servants, but friends, because a servant does not know what his lord is doing, but Jesus told them all things He had heard from His Father. This seems to me like the same idea EGW communicated in saying that God does not desire a slavish obedience, but one based on an intelligent appreciation of God's character.

M: Tom, please address each point I made. It took me quite awhile to write them out. I would like to discuss them.

T: I did address it. I said I didn't understand your points. Simply asking again that I respond isn't going to help, if you don't explain your points. I'll address your points in the same way I did before; I don't understand your points.

Thanx for pointing out that you did address the points I raised above. Must have misunderstood you. I’ll repost them again with changes trying to anticipate what you didn’t understand. Here goes:

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1. Now, as to your first question. Jesus said, "Ye are my friends, if ye do whatsoever I command you." Obviously, the kind of friendship Jesus is referring to isn't an ordinary friendship. Jesus is, after all, God, and we're only human, and sinful to boot. My earthly friendships are not predicated on doing whatever they command me to do. Do you see a difference? If not, please explain why you think the kind of friendship Jesus referred to is no different than the kind of friendships you and I form on earth with other humans.

2. Jesus also said, "Henceforth I call you not servants; for the servant knoweth not what his lord doeth: but I have called you friends; for all things that I have heard of my Father I have made known unto you." This must be understood in a limited sense, because obviously Jesus didn't tell them everything His Father told Him. Do you agree? By the way, when and where did Jesus ever call them servants?

For example, Jesus said, "I have yet many things to say unto you, but ye cannot bear them now." He left it to the Holy Spirit to explain certain things to the disciples later on. But not even the Holy Spirit could tell them everything. Elsewhere we read, "O the depth of the riches both of the wisdom and knowledge of God! How unsearchable are his judgments, and his ways past finding out!" Do you agree Jesus didn’t tell them everything His Father told Him, that the comment “all things that I have heard of my Father I have made known unto you” refers to a specific set of topics and not to everything else Jesus learned from His Father?

3. "Henceforth I call you not servants." Even this statement must be understood in a limited sense. Jesus also said, "He that is greatest among you shall be your servant. If any man desire to be first, the same shall be last of all, and servant of all. Blessed is that servant, whom his lord when he cometh shall find so doing. Well done, thou good and faithful servant . . . enter thou into the joy of thy lord. The servant is not greater than his lord. If they have persecuted me, they will also persecute you; if they have kept my saying, they will keep yours also." Do you agree that these passages imply Jesus still considers His informed and faithful followers as servants? If not, then please explain what you think they mean.

4. There is also the fact the disciples and apostles referred to themselves as servants. For example, "Paul, a servant of Jesus Christ. Epaphras, who is one of you, a servant of Christ. James, a servant of God and of the Lord Jesus Christ. Simon Peter, a servant and an apostle of Jesus Christ. Jude, the servant of Jesus Christ. The Revelation of Jesus Christ, which God gave unto him, to show unto his servants things which must shortly come to pass; and he sent and signified it by his angel unto his servant John." Why do you think these holy people of God continued referring to themselves as servants after Jesus said what He did about servants and friends?

5. "For the servant knoweth not what his lord doeth." Again, this statement must be understood in a limited sense. Jesus also said, "And that servant, which knew his lord's will, and prepared not himself, neither did according to his will, shall be beaten with many stripes." Obviously this servant was in the know. Nevertheless, he didn't obey his master. The end of such servants is less than desirable. "Cast ye the unprofitable servant into outer darkness: there shall be weeping and gnashing of teeth." Do you agree this servant knew the will of his lord? If so, how do you reconcile this passage with what Jesus said about servants in the passage under discussion, namely, "For the servant knoweth not what his lord doeth."

6. So, what did Jesus mean when He said, "Ye are my friends, if ye do whatsoever I command you. Henceforth I call you not servants; for the servant knoweth not what his lord doeth: but I have called you friends; for all things that I have heard of my Father I have made known unto you." Again, I believe it must be understood within the immediate context.

Here it is: [John 15:1-17 quoted] This is the context of the statement, "All things that I have heard of my Father I have made known unto you." In particular, Jesus made known to them the following things:

"Now ye are clean through the word which I have spoken unto you. Abide in me, and I in you. As the branch cannot bear fruit of itself, except it abide in the vine; no more can ye, except ye abide in me. Herein is my Father glorified, that ye bear much fruit; so shall ye be my disciples. These things have I spoken unto you, that my joy might remain in you, and that your joy might be full. This is my commandment, That ye love one another, as I have loved you."

This is what it takes to be Jesus' friend. But being His friend does not mean we stop being His servant. He will always be our Lord and Master, and we will always be His servants and friends. Again, this type of friendship is unique in that it doesn't resemble normal earthly friendships. Beings friends with the Lord and Master of the Universe is not the same thing as being friends with angels or humans or any other FMA. For one thing, we are not His equal.

Do you agree with these observations? If not, please explain exactly what and why you disagree with them. Thank you.

7. Consider also the fact Jesus called Judas "friend" the night he betrayed Jesus into the hands of sinners. "Friend, wherefore art thou come?" A similar thing exists in the following passages where Jesus is portrayed as calling people "friend" when they are in fact not His friends. "Friend, I do thee no wrong: didst not thou agree with me for a penny?" "Friend, how camest thou in hither not having a wedding garment?" Why does Jesus call such people friends? In what sense are they His friend? Do they know everything Jesus knows and is that what makes them His friend? Satan knows everything they know, does that make him Jesus’ friend, too? If not, why not? Please explain what you believe about it.

I hope that helps. If not, I’ll gladly restate them. It would be helpful, though, if clarified what you don’t understand; otherwise, I’m left to guessing again.

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M: "Because I said so" is an example of a "less than optimum reason" for obeying God. Obeying God because He said so, if it is the fruit of faith that works by love, is righteousness and true holiness. As such there is nothing slavish about it. The concept of "slavish obedience" must necessarily apply to something else.

T: The faith that works by love is based on evidence, as God always gives us sufficient evidence upon which to base our faith: "God never asks us to believe, without giving sufficient evidence upon which to base our faith (SC 105)". Because I said so is not evidence. This is probably where you and I (and Arnold and I) disagree. At least, this is what I'm understanding. You and he view "Because I said so" as evidence upon which to base our faith, because we already know God, and therefore that's all that's needed. What I'm understanding is that God, even after we know Him, still does not want an obedience which is not based on evidence, reason, or understanding in relation to the item under consideration.

Without considering evidence, it would be very easy to be under the delusion that one is obeying God while actually obeying the enemy. Regarding what the concept of slavish obedience encompasses, there's no need to speculate. We're told what it is. It's as opposed to "intelligent appreciation." Jesus describes it in terms of not knowing what the master is doing.

Let’s apply your logic to a real situation and see if it pans out the way you think. Moses killed the Sabbath-breaker and the blasphemer on the basis he believed God commanded him to do so. Was he “under the delusion that [he was] obeying God while [he was] actually obeying the enemy”?

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M: Obedience that flows from a heart where the Holy Spirit resides is true obedience. There is nothing robotic or slavish about it. You seem to think true obedience is impossible if it is rendered in response to, Obey me because I said so. If what you say is right, how do you explain all the places in the Bible where God commanded people to do things without explaining why? On one occasion a guy didn't obey and he ended up in the belly of a whale.

T: Jesus said, "I do not call you servants (slaves) any longer" which implies there was a time when He did. So if one is unwilling to keep step with God, God will humble Himself and keep step with man. The Old and New Covenant is a perfect illustration of this theme.

Are you implying rendering obedience in response to, Because I said so, is slavish? And, are you implying the obedience God required under the OC was slavish, that He compromised and required it to accommodate their less than favorable circumstances and mind set?

If so, are you not also implying that observing everything God required under the OC required slavish obedience, and that such slavish obedience was repulsive and unacceptable to God? Wouldn’t this include the feast days, the sanitary laws, the judicial laws, and dietary laws? If not, what else do you think God required under the OC that did not require slavish obedience?
Posted By: Tom

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 12/30/08 01:28 AM

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T: No, this isn't true. They had a vast oral tradition, as I pointed out. This is what Moses wrote Job and the books of the Pentateuch from. Not all of the oral tradition was written down (also, much of what was written down was not part of the oral tradition, since it hadn't happened yet; e.g. the oral tradition did not contain the Exodus).

M:You would be hard pressed to prove your point, Tom.


Not at all. This is common knowledge.

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You would have to turn to unbiblical sources to do so, and what good would that do? It wouldn’t prove a thing. Besides, do you know of any non-canonical sources which explain what people who lived before the Exodus knew about Sabbath-keeping above and beyond what Moses wrote in Genesis 2:1-3 and Exodus 20:8-11?


It's an oral tradition, MM, not a written one.

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M: Job says nothing about the Sabbath. If you disagree, please post inspired passages that teach otherwise.

Again, you didn't answer my question. Here it is again: Do these verses [Gen 2:1-3 and Ex 20:8-11] require "slavish" obedience since they do not contain "better" reasons why God commands people to rest on the seventh day?

T: I did answer this. Your assumption that this is all they had is incorrect.

M:Insisting it is so is not the answer I was looking for, Tom.


You're insisting all they had was Gen. 2:1-3. I'm pointing out this isn't the case.

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Please post inspired quotes which clearly state what you think about it. BTW, do you agree the two passages referred to above lack the kind of evidence, reasoning, and understanding you think is necessary to qualify as sufficient to obey God intelligently and not slavishly?


Scripture doesn't discuss how it was formed. It doesn't even define what is canonical. That there was knowledge obtained and passed along by holy men before the Bible is brought out here:

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Notwithstanding the prevailing iniquity, there was a line of holy men who, elevated and ennobled by communion with God, lived as in the companionship of heaven. They were men of massive intellect, of wonderful attainments. They had a great and holy mission--to develop a character of righteousness, to teach a lesson of godliness, not only to the men of their time, but for future generations. Only a few of the most prominent are mentioned in the Scriptures; but all through the ages God had faithfully witnesses, truehearted worshipers. (PP 84)


Regarding your question, no, I don't agree.

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M: God's people were not slaves for 2500 years. The Jews were slaves for less than 200 years. My question pertains to everyone who lived and kept the Sabbath before the Exodus. Did they render slavish obedience since the only reason God gave for keeping the Sabbath was because He rested on that day?

T: Same answer.

M:You seem to expect me to render slavish obedience since your evidence is less than sufficient. Ha! That was an awkward attempt at humor. Perhaps I need to take lessons from Teresaq?


I have absolutely no clue what you're talking about. You asked, "Did they render slavish obedience since the only reason God gave for keeping the Sabbath was because He rested on that day?" This is based on a false assumption. I already explained this. "Same answer" was referring to this explanation.

I'll treat your 7 points separately.

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T:Without considering evidence, it would be very easy to be under the delusion that one is obeying God while actually obeying the enemy. Regarding what the concept of slavish obedience encompasses, there's no need to speculate. We're told what it is. It's as opposed to "intelligent appreciation." Jesus describes it in terms of not knowing what the master is doing.

M:Let’s apply your logic to a real situation and see if it pans out the way you think. Moses killed the Sabbath-breaker and the blasphemer on the basis he believed God commanded him to do so. Was he “under the delusion that [he was] obeying God while [he was] actually obeying the enemy”?


Let me ask, do you disagree with what I wrote? If so, what did you disagree with? In response to your example, it doesn't apply, as Moses's faith was based on reason, evidence and understanding.

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T: Jesus said, "I do not call you servants (slaves) any longer" which implies there was a time when He did. So if one is unwilling to keep step with God, God will humble Himself and keep step with man. The Old and New Covenant is a perfect illustration of this theme.

M:Are you implying rendering obedience in response to, Because I said so, is slavish? And, are you implying the obedience God required under the OC was slavish, that He compromised and required it to accommodate their less than favorable circumstances and mind set?


No. I think you're missing the whole point here.

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If so, are you not also implying that observing everything God required under the OC required slavish obedience, and that such slavish obedience was repulsive and unacceptable to God? Wouldn’t this include the feast days, the sanitary laws, the judicial laws, and dietary laws? If not, what else do you think God required under the OC that did not require slavish obedience?


The following explains my point:

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What are the two covenants?--The two women, Hagar and Sarah; for we read that Hagar is Mount Sinai, "which gendereth to bondage." That is, just as Hagar could not bring forth any other kind of children than slaves, so the law, even the law that God spoke from Sinai, can not beget freemen. It can do nothing but hold them in bondage. "The law worketh wrath:" "for by the law is the knowledge of sin." The same is true of the covenant from Sinai, for it consisted merely of the promise of the people to keep that law, and had, therefore, no more power to make them free than the law itself had,--no more power than they already had in their bondage. Nay, rather, it "gendered to bondage," since their making it was simply a promise to make themselves righteous by their own works, and man in himself is "without strength."

Consider the situation: The people were in the bondage of sin; they had no power to break their chains; but the speaking of the law made no change in their condition; it introduced no new feature. If a man is in prison for crime, you can not release him by reading the statutes to him. It was the law that put him there, and the reading of it to him only makes his captivity more painful.

"Then did not God Himself lead them into bondage?"--Not by any means; since He did not induce them to make that covenant at Sinai. Four hundred and thirty years before that time He had made a covenant with Abraham, which was sufficient for all purposes. That covenant was confirmed in Christ, and, therefore, was a covenant from above. See John 8:23. It promised righteousness as a free gift of God through faith, and it included all nations. All the miracles that God had wrought in delivering the children of Israel from Egyptian bondage were but demonstrations of His power to deliver them and us from the bondage of sin. Yes, the deliverance from Egypt was itself a demonstration not only of God's power, but also of His desire to lead them from the bondage of sin, that bondage in which the covenant from Sinai holds men, because Hagar, who is the covenant from Sinai, was an Egyptian. So when the people came to Sinai, God simply referred them to what He had already done, and then said, "Now therefore, if ye will obey My voice indeed, and keep My covenant, then ye shall be a peculiar treasure unto Me above all people; for all the earth is Mine." Ex.19:5. To what covenant did He refer?--Evidently to the one already in existence, His covenant with Abraham. If they would simply keep God's covenant, that is, God's promise,--keep the faith,--they would be a peculiar treasure unto God, for God, as the possessor of all the earth, was able to do with them all that He had promised. The fact that they in their self-sufficiency rashly took the whole responsibility upon themselves, does not prove that God led them into making that covenant, but the contrary. He was leading them out of bondage, not into it, and the apostle plainly tells us that covenant from Sinai was nothing but bondage. (The Glad Tidings)


I underlined some spots of particular interest, which explain the logic involved.

I'd suggest reading the whole chapter: http://www.brooklawn.org/Books/GladTidings/GT05TheAdoptionofSons.htm

This chapter goes into a lengthy explanation. EGW spoke well of Waggoner's teaching on the covenants, which she called "clear as sunlight."
Posted By: teresaq

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 12/30/08 02:00 AM

God brought them to Sinai; He manifested His glory; He gave them His law, with the promise of great blessings on condition of obedience: "If ye will obey My voice indeed, and keep My covenant, then . . . ye shall be unto Me a kingdom of priests, and an holy nation." Exodus 19:5, 6.

The people did not realize the sinfulness of their own hearts, and that without Christ it was impossible for them to keep God's law; and they readily entered into covenant with God. Feeling that they were able to establish their own righteousness, they declared, "All that the Lord hath said will we do, and be obedient." Exodus 24:7.

They had witnessed the proclamation of the law in awful majesty, and had trembled with terror before the mount; and yet only a few weeks passed before they broke their covenant with God, and bowed down to worship a graven image.

They could not hope for the favor of God through a covenant which they had broken; and now, seeing their sinfulness and their need of pardon, they were brought to feel their need of the Saviour revealed in the Abrahamic covenant and shadowed forth in the sacrificial offerings. Now by faith and love they were bound to God as their deliverer from the bondage of sin. Now they were prepared to appreciate the blessings of the new covenant. {PP 371.4}
The terms of the "old covenant" were, Obey and live: "If a man do, he shall even live in them" (Ezekiel 20:11; Leviticus 18:5); but "cursed be he that confirmeth not all the words of this law to do them." Deuteronomy 27:26. The "new covenant" was established upon "better promises"--the promise of forgiveness of sins and of the grace of God to renew the heart and bring it into harmony with the principles of God's law. "This shall be the covenant that I will make with the house of Israel; After those days, saith the Lord, I will put my law in their inward parts, and write it in their hearts. . . . I will forgive their iniquity, and will remember their sin no more." Jeremiah 31:33, 34. {PP 372.1}
The same law that was engraved upon the tables of stone is written by the Holy Spirit upon the tables of the heart. Instead of going about to establish our own righteousness we accept the righteousness of Christ. His blood atones for our sins. His obedience is accepted for us. Then the heart renewed by the Holy Spirit will bring forth "the fruits of the Spirit." Through the grace of Christ we shall live in obedience to the law of God written upon our hearts. Having the Spirit of Christ, we shall walk even as He walked. Through the prophet He declared of Himself, "I delight to do Thy will, O My God: yea, Thy law is within My heart." Psalm 40:8. And when among men He said, "The Father hath not left Me alone; for I do always those things that please Him." John 8:29. {PP 372.2}
The apostle Paul clearly presents the relation between faith and the law under the new covenant. He says: "Being justified by faith, we have peace with God through our Lord Jesus Christ." "Do we then make void the law through faith? God forbid: yea, we establish the law." "For what the law could not do, in that it was weak through the flesh"--it could not justify man, because in his sinful nature he could not keep the law--"God sending His own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh, and for sin, condemned sin in the flesh: that the righteousness of the law might be fulfilled in us, who walk not after the flesh, but after the Spirit." Romans 5:1; 3:31; 8:3, 4. {PP 373.1}
Posted By: Tom

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 12/30/08 02:24 AM

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1. Now, as to your first question. Jesus said, "Ye are my friends, if ye do whatsoever I command you." Obviously, the kind of friendship Jesus is referring to isn't an ordinary friendship. Jesus is, after all, God, and we're only human, and sinful to boot. My earthly friendships are not predicated on doing whatever they command me to do. Do you see a difference? If not, please explain why you think the kind of friendship Jesus referred to is no different than the kind of friendships you and I form on earth with other humans.


In John 15 Jesus said that he no longer was calling His disciples servants (or slaves; same Greek word) but friends. The reason was because He had told them what He had heard from His father. So the difference between obedience as slaves (or servants) is that it lacks a knowledge of what the Master is doing.

I'm not understanding your point about a friendship with Christ being different than other friendships.

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2. Jesus also said, "Henceforth I call you not servants; for the servant knoweth not what his lord doeth: but I have called you friends; for all things that I have heard of my Father I have made known unto you." This must be understood in a limited sense, because obviously Jesus didn't tell them everything His Father told Him. Do you agree?


Jesus said, "for all things that I have heard from my Father I have made known unto you." You say, "obviously Jesus didn't tell them everything His Father told Him." You look to be contradicting what Jesus said here. Jesus said, "for all things that I have heard from my Father I have made known unto you." You say He didn't do this. I believe Jesus did what He said He did.

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By the way, when and where did Jesus ever call them servants?


Since Jesus said, "no longer," before He said this ("no longer" etc.) he did.

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For example, Jesus said, "I have yet many things to say unto you, but ye cannot bear them now." He left it to the Holy Spirit to explain certain things to the disciples later on. But not even the Holy Spirit could tell them everything. Elsewhere we read, "O the depth of the riches both of the wisdom and knowledge of God! How unsearchable are his judgments, and his ways past finding out!" Do you agree Jesus didn’t tell them everything His Father told Him, that the comment “all things that I have heard of my Father I have made known unto you” refers to a specific set of topics and not to everything else Jesus learned from His Father?


No. Jesus said, "for all things that I have heard from my Father I have made known unto you." I agree with what Jesus said. Since there were things Jesus didn't tell them, the logical inference is that the things Jesus didn't tell them were not the "all things I have heard from my Father," since Jesus said, of these, "I have made (them) known unto you."

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3. "Henceforth I call you not servants." Even this statement must be understood in a limited sense. Jesus also said, "He that is greatest among you shall be your servant. If any man desire to be first, the same shall be last of all, and servant of all. Blessed is that servant, whom his lord when he cometh shall find so doing. Well done, thou good and faithful servant . . . enter thou into the joy of thy lord. The servant is not greater than his lord. If they have persecuted me, they will also persecute you; if they have kept my saying, they will keep yours also." Do you agree that these passages imply Jesus still considers His informed and faithful followers as servants? If not, then please explain what you think they mean.


In John 15 Jesus said he no longer called them servants but friends, and He explained why. I believe what Jesus said. He's not saying "servants and friends," but "not servants, but friends." He's pointing out a contrast. He explains the reason for the contrast.

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4. There is also the fact the disciples and apostles referred to themselves as servants. For example, "Paul, a servant of Jesus Christ. Epaphras, who is one of you, a servant of Christ. James, a servant of God and of the Lord Jesus Christ. Simon Peter, a servant and an apostle of Jesus Christ. Jude, the servant of Jesus Christ. The Revelation of Jesus Christ, which God gave unto him, to show unto his servants things which must shortly come to pass; and he sent and signified it by his angel unto his servant John." Why do you think these holy people of God continued referring to themselves as servants after Jesus said what He did about servants and friends?


I think it's fine for followers of Jesus to refer to themselves as servants, if they are willing to do for the Lord what Paul was willing to do.

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5. "For the servant knoweth not what his lord doeth." Again, this statement must be understood in a limited sense. Jesus also said, "And that servant, which knew his lord's will, and prepared not himself, neither did according to his will, shall be beaten with many stripes." Obviously this servant was in the know. Nevertheless, he didn't obey his master. The end of such servants is less than desirable. "Cast ye the unprofitable servant into outer darkness: there shall be weeping and gnashing of teeth." Do you agree this servant knew the will of his lord? If so, how do you reconcile this passage with what Jesus said about servants in the passage under discussion, namely, "For the servant knoweth not what his lord doeth."


I don't see that there's anything to reconcile. I think Jesus' message in John 15 is clear. He "no longer" called His disciples servants but friends because He was now explaining to them all things which He had heard from His Father.

In regards to the parable you cited, I would say it, rather than Jesus statement in John 15, is what is limited. That is, that servant could hardly be described as knowing what his master was doing. The servant did not have faith, but viewed his master as a despot. In the parable, Jesus had the master answering in accordance to the misunderstanding that the servant had, explaining that even according to this misunderstanding of the master's true character, he was still guilty of behaving poorly. The servant in the parable was not even a true servant, let alone a friend.

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6. So, what did Jesus mean when He said, "Ye are my friends, if ye do whatsoever I command you. Henceforth I call you not servants; for the servant knoweth not what his lord doeth: but I have called you friends; for all things that I have heard of my Father I have made known unto you." Again, I believe it must be understood within the immediate context.

Here it is: [John 15:1-17 quoted] This is the context of the statement, "All things that I have heard of my Father I have made known unto you." In particular, Jesus made known to them the following things:

"Now ye are clean through the word which I have spoken unto you. Abide in me, and I in you. As the branch cannot bear fruit of itself, except it abide in the vine; no more can ye, except ye abide in me. Herein is my Father glorified, that ye bear much fruit; so shall ye be my disciples. These things have I spoken unto you, that my joy might remain in you, and that your joy might be full. This is my commandment, That ye love one another, as I have loved you."

This is what it takes to be Jesus' friend. But being His friend does not mean we stop being His servant.


Jesus said, "15Henceforth I call you not servants; for the servant knoweth not what his lord doeth: but I have called you friends; for all things that I have heard of my Father I have made known unto you."

This is very clear. Jesus says:

1.I call you not servants.
2.Why? Because the servant does not know what his master does.
3.I call you friends.
4.Why? Because all things I have heard of my Father I have made known unto you.

Jesus makes a contrast here, and explains the reason for the contrast.

Quote:
He will always be our Lord and Master, and we will always be His servants and friends. Again, this type of friendship is unique in that it doesn't resemble normal earthly friendships. Beings friends with the Lord and Master of the Universe is not the same thing as being friends with angels or humans or any other FMA. For one thing, we are not His equal.

Do you agree with these observations? If not, please explain exactly what and why you disagree with them. Thank you.


No, MM, I don't agree. I agree with what Jesus said. When Jesus said that He "no longer" was calling His disciples "servants," that means He used to, but was discontinuing doing so. He was now calling them "friends" instead. He says, "but I have called you friends." Not "and I am calling you friends too" rather "but" I have called you friends.

Quote:
7. Consider also the fact Jesus called Judas "friend" the night he betrayed Jesus into the hands of sinners. "Friend, wherefore art thou come?" A similar thing exists in the following passages where Jesus is portrayed as calling people "friend" when they are in fact not His friends. "Friend, I do thee no wrong: didst not thou agree with me for a penny?" "Friend, how camest thou in hither not having a wedding garment?" Why does Jesus call such people friends? In what sense are they His friend? Do they know everything Jesus knows and is that what makes them His friend? Satan knows everything they know, does that make him Jesus’ friend, too? If not, why not? Please explain what you believe about it.


I believe that God is gracious, and that God considers His enemies as friends, and treats them as such. So when Jesus called Judas "friend," He was disclosing how He felt about Judas in His heart. Jesus loved Judas, loved him as a friend, despite his treachery.

Regarding Satan, no, Satan does not know what God does.

Quote:
Unselfishness, the principle of God's kingdom, is the principle that Satan hates; its very existence he denies.(Ed 154)


Satan doesn't even understand what God does, let alone know it.

To know what God does encompasses more than the idea that God is physically performing some action. It involves an understanding of God's character and the principles of His government, as well as faith in God and love for Him.
Posted By: Mountain Man

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 12/31/08 01:16 AM

Originally Posted By: Tom
Quote:
Tom, I just read your last post to Arnold (106514). If I were in your shoes I would wonder why three intelligent posters on this forum have so much trouble understanding your position. If you're open to ideas I would say it's because you rarely state your position clearly. For someone who spends so much time instructing others how to clearly state their position it seems strange to me that you often fail to do so yourself.

I've repeated asked that what I have written be quoted, and things be questioned or commented on the basis of that. If people take it upon themselves to assert that I believe or have stated things I've never said, I don't see how I can be held responsible for that, especially when I've been asking all along to be quoted.

Now if you, or Arnold, or whoever *quotes* something I said, and *that* is unclear, then I bear the responsibility of what I wrote being unclear.

For example, you state here that I rarely state my position clearly. On this thread I've stated my position over and over again, which is that God does not desire a slavish obedience, but one based on evidence, reason and understanding. What's unclear about that? I've stated that God does not ask us to believe without giving us sufficient evidence upon which to base our faith. Isn't that clear as well?

Tom, the fact you must repeatedly restate your position suggests it wasn't clear enough the first time. I'm guessing the reason some people do not quote you is because what you posted wasn't clear enough to quote. But perhaps you are improving. I don't know.

You wrote, "God does not desire a slavish obedience, but one based on evidence, reason, and understanding." Are you implying people who obey God based on evidence alone counts as slavish? And, aren't you also implying "slavish obedience" is not true obedience (in the sense it is not the fruit of the Holy Spirit dwelling within)?

You also wrote, "I've stated that God does not ask us to believe without giving us sufficient evidence upon which to base our faith." What do you consider sufficient? Isn't it rather subjective? "God said it, I believe it, and that settles it for me." Does this song refer to sufficient evidence? For me it does. How about you?

For example, it matters not to me that I can't prove God exists, or that I can't prove He created everything in 7 days. Note: Some people argue God created everything in 6 days, but they overlook the fact God created the seventh day on the seventh day.
Posted By: Mountain Man

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 12/31/08 01:20 AM

Originally Posted By: teresaq
God brought them to Sinai; He manifested His glory; He gave them His law, with the promise of great blessings on condition of obedience: "If ye will obey My voice indeed, and keep My covenant, then . . . ye shall be unto Me a kingdom of priests, and an holy nation." Exodus 19:5, 6.

The people did not realize the sinfulness of their own hearts, and that without Christ it was impossible for them to keep God's law; and they readily entered into covenant with God. Feeling that they were able to establish their own righteousness, they declared, "All that the Lord hath said will we do, and be obedient." Exodus 24:7.

They had witnessed the proclamation of the law in awful majesty, and had trembled with terror before the mount; and yet only a few weeks passed before they broke their covenant with God, and bowed down to worship a graven image.

They could not hope for the favor of God through a covenant which they had broken; and now, seeing their sinfulness and their need of pardon, they were brought to feel their need of the Saviour revealed in the Abrahamic covenant and shadowed forth in the sacrificial offerings. Now by faith and love they were bound to God as their deliverer from the bondage of sin. Now they were prepared to appreciate the blessings of the new covenant. {PP 371.4}
The terms of the "old covenant" were, Obey and live: "If a man do, he shall even live in them" (Ezekiel 20:11; Leviticus 18:5); but "cursed be he that confirmeth not all the words of this law to do them." Deuteronomy 27:26. The "new covenant" was established upon "better promises"--the promise of forgiveness of sins and of the grace of God to renew the heart and bring it into harmony with the principles of God's law. "This shall be the covenant that I will make with the house of Israel; After those days, saith the Lord, I will put my law in their inward parts, and write it in their hearts. . . . I will forgive their iniquity, and will remember their sin no more." Jeremiah 31:33, 34. {PP 372.1}
The same law that was engraved upon the tables of stone is written by the Holy Spirit upon the tables of the heart. Instead of going about to establish our own righteousness we accept the righteousness of Christ. His blood atones for our sins. His obedience is accepted for us. Then the heart renewed by the Holy Spirit will bring forth "the fruits of the Spirit." Through the grace of Christ we shall live in obedience to the law of God written upon our hearts. Having the Spirit of Christ, we shall walk even as He walked. Through the prophet He declared of Himself, "I delight to do Thy will, O My God: yea, Thy law is within My heart." Psalm 40:8. And when among men He said, "The Father hath not left Me alone; for I do always those things that please Him." John 8:29. {PP 372.2}
The apostle Paul clearly presents the relation between faith and the law under the new covenant. He says: "Being justified by faith, we have peace with God through our Lord Jesus Christ." "Do we then make void the law through faith? God forbid: yea, we establish the law." "For what the law could not do, in that it was weak through the flesh"--it could not justify man, because in his sinful nature he could not keep the law--"God sending His own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh, and for sin, condemned sin in the flesh: that the righteousness of the law might be fulfilled in us, who walk not after the flesh, but after the Spirit." Romans 5:1; 3:31; 8:3, 4. {PP 373.1}

What point are you making in posting this quote? This would be a good quote for the Covenant thread.
Posted By: Tom

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 12/31/08 03:07 AM

Quote:
Tom, the fact you must repeatedly restate your position suggests it wasn't clear enough the first time. I'm guessing the reason some people do not quote you is because what you posted wasn't clear enough to quote.


That doesn't make any sense. You know how to quote people. You just highlight what they wrote with your mouse, and put the quote tags around it. If there's something unclear, select that, and quote it.

Quote:
But perhaps you are improving. I don't know.


It's not an unusual thing for people to be misquoted. This happens any time new positions are suggested. Jerome, I think it was, was pressured to retract "his" position. He complained that he had never taught the things he was being pressured to retract, and asked how he could retract some position he never held.

This isn't to detract from the possibility that I'm being unclear. If someone who holds to the same position I hold told me I was being unclear, I would certainly accept that. If someone who holds to a different position than mine refused to quote what I wrote and instead takes it upon themselves to assert things I've never said, it might or might not be the case that the problem is a lack of clarity on my part. If someone quotes something I said, and says they don't understand what that means, that would sound more like a lack of clarity or understanding what was said, and I would be glad to clarify.

Quote:
You wrote, "God does not desire a slavish obedience, but one based on evidence, reason, and understanding." Are you implying people who obey God based on evidence alone counts as slavish?


Evidence not based on reason and understanding? No, I didn't have this in mind. In fact, the possibility of such a thing is not something I would have thought of without your mentioning it. Now that you have mentioned it, I must admit your concept doesn't make sense to me. How can you have evidence that doesn't involve reason or understanding? What good is evidence that is not understood?

Quote:
And, aren't you also implying "slavish obedience" is not true obedience (in the sense it is not the fruit of the Holy Spirit dwelling within)?


No, I haven't addressed this. What I've said is that God does not desire a slavish obedience, but one based on evidence, reason and understanding.

Quote:
You also wrote, "I've stated that God does not ask us to believe without giving us sufficient evidence upon which to base our faith."


Actually Ellen White said it, in SC 105, which I cited.

Quote:
What do you consider sufficient?


She addresses this question in the quote.

Quote:
Isn't it rather subjective? "God said it, I believe it, and that settles it for me." Does this song refer to sufficient evidence? For me it does. How about you?


How is this different than the slavish obedience which God does not desire? Where does evidence, reason, or understanding fit into this?

Quote:
For example, it matters not to me that I can't prove God exists, or that I can't prove He created everything in 7 days. Note: Some people argue God created everything in 6 days, but they overlook the fact God created the seventh day on the seventh day.


Of course you can't prove this, but God has provided evidence for these things, so that a person looking for a faith based on evidence, reason and understanding can find the support needed for such faith.
Posted By: Mountain Man

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 01/01/09 09:18 PM

Originally Posted By: Tom
M: You wrote, "God does not desire a slavish obedience, but one based on evidence, reason, and understanding." Are you implying people who obey God based on evidence alone counts as slavish?

T: Evidence not based on reason and understanding? No, I didn't have this in mind. In fact, the possibility of such a thing is not something I would have thought of without your mentioning it. Now that you have mentioned it, I must admit your concept doesn't make sense to me. How can you have evidence that doesn't involve reason or understanding? What good is evidence that is not understood?

God can tell us what to do without providing evidence or reason, and neither would it be conditional upon our understanding or comprehending why. The fact God said it is all the motivation we need to trust the Holy Spirit to empower us to cheerfully comply. This is not to say additional reasons and evidence wouldn’t be helpful in understanding why. It’s just that it wouldn’t be necessary to rely on the Holy Spirit to empower us to obey.

Originally Posted By: Tom
M: "God said it, I believe it, and that settles it for me." Does this song refer to sufficient evidence? For me it does. How about you?

T: How is this different than the slavish obedience which God does not desire? Where does evidence, reason, or understanding fit into this?

The reason is because God said it. Obeying God because He said so doesn’t sound slavish to me. Would you say obedience based on this reason alone is made possible by the indwelling Spirit of God? If so, how, then, can you label it slavish? If not, what is the origin and source of such obedience?

Also, please cite an example from the Bible of slavish obedience. And, explain why it constitutes slavish obedience. Thank you.

Originally Posted By: Tom
M: For example, it matters not to me that I can't prove God exists, or that I can't prove He created everything in 7 days. Note: Some people argue God created everything in 6 days, but they overlook the fact God created the seventh day on the seventh day.

T: Of course you can't prove this, but God has provided evidence for these things, so that a person looking for a faith based on evidence, reason and understanding can find the support needed for such faith.

What is the evidence that God exists? What is the evidence that He created the world in 7 days? Is it based on more than a “Thus saith the Lord” or “It is written”? What are the reasons? What is the understanding? Can we safely place these truths on hold until we have more evidence and reasons than a mere "Thus saith the Lord" or a mere "It is written"?
Posted By: teresaq

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 01/01/09 09:57 PM

Originally Posted By: Mountain Man
Originally Posted By: teresaq
God brought them to Sinai; He manifested His glory; He gave them His law, with the promise of great blessings on condition of obedience: "If ye will obey My voice indeed, and keep My covenant, then . . . ye shall be unto Me a kingdom of priests, and an holy nation." Exodus 19:5, 6.

The people did not realize the sinfulness of their own hearts, and that without Christ it was impossible for them to keep God's law; and they readily entered into covenant with God. Feeling that they were able to establish their own righteousness, they declared, "All that the Lord hath said will we do, and be obedient." Exodus 24:7.

They had witnessed the proclamation of the law in awful majesty, and had trembled with terror before the mount; and yet only a few weeks passed before they broke their covenant with God, and bowed down to worship a graven image.

They could not hope for the favor of God through a covenant which they had broken; and now, seeing their sinfulness and their need of pardon, they were brought to feel their need of the Saviour revealed in the Abrahamic covenant and shadowed forth in the sacrificial offerings. Now by faith and love they were bound to God as their deliverer from the bondage of sin. Now they were prepared to appreciate the blessings of the new covenant. {PP 371.4}
The terms of the "old covenant" were, Obey and live: "If a man do, he shall even live in them" (Ezekiel 20:11; Leviticus 18:5); but "cursed be he that confirmeth not all the words of this law to do them." Deuteronomy 27:26. The "new covenant" was established upon "better promises"--the promise of forgiveness of sins and of the grace of God to renew the heart and bring it into harmony with the principles of God's law. "This shall be the covenant that I will make with the house of Israel; After those days, saith the Lord, I will put my law in their inward parts, and write it in their hearts. . . . I will forgive their iniquity, and will remember their sin no more." Jeremiah 31:33, 34. {PP 372.1}
The same law that was engraved upon the tables of stone is written by the Holy Spirit upon the tables of the heart. Instead of going about to establish our own righteousness we accept the righteousness of Christ. His blood atones for our sins. His obedience is accepted for us. Then the heart renewed by the Holy Spirit will bring forth "the fruits of the Spirit." Through the grace of Christ we shall live in obedience to the law of God written upon our hearts. Having the Spirit of Christ, we shall walk even as He walked. Through the prophet He declared of Himself, "I delight to do Thy will, O My God: yea, Thy law is within My heart." Psalm 40:8. And when among men He said, "The Father hath not left Me alone; for I do always those things that please Him." John 8:29. {PP 372.2}
The apostle Paul clearly presents the relation between faith and the law under the new covenant. He says: "Being justified by faith, we have peace with God through our Lord Jesus Christ." "Do we then make void the law through faith? God forbid: yea, we establish the law." "For what the law could not do, in that it was weak through the flesh"--it could not justify man, because in his sinful nature he could not keep the law--"God sending His own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh, and for sin, condemned sin in the flesh: that the righteousness of the law might be fulfilled in us, who walk not after the flesh, but after the Spirit." Romans 5:1; 3:31; 8:3, 4. {PP 373.1}

What point are you making in posting this quote? This would be a good quote for the Covenant thread.


it backs up the quote from glad tidings in post #106735.
Posted By: Tom

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 01/01/09 11:06 PM

Quote:
M: You wrote, "God does not desire a slavish obedience, but one based on evidence, reason, and understanding." Are you implying people who obey God based on evidence alone counts as slavish?

T: Evidence not based on reason and understanding? No, I didn't have this in mind. In fact, the possibility of such a thing is not something I would have thought of without your mentioning it. Now that you have mentioned it, I must admit your concept doesn't make sense to me. How can you have evidence that doesn't involve reason or understanding? What good is evidence that is not understood?

M:God can tell us what to do without providing evidence or reason, and neither would it be conditional upon our understanding or comprehending why. The fact God said it is all the motivation we need to trust the Holy Spirit to empower us to cheerfully comply. This is not to say additional reasons and evidence wouldn’t be helpful in understanding why. It’s just that it wouldn’t be necessary to rely on the Holy Spirit to empower us to obey.


Above you spoke of people who obey God on "evidence alone." I asked you what this means. You didn't explain this. Here you're talking about obeying God without evidence.

Regarding an example of slavish obedience, the whole history of the COI is an example of slavish obedience, with the notable exceptions of those who had faith. The Pharisees would be the epitome of slavish obedience.

Regarding the questions of God's existence:

Quote:
God never asks us to believe, without giving sufficient evidence upon which to base our faith. His existence, His character, the truthfulness of His word, are all established by testimony that appeals to our reason; and this testimony is abundant.(SC 105)
Posted By: Tom

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 01/01/09 11:23 PM

Here are some statements which deal with the importance of faith based on evidence. How Jesus proceeded on the road to Emmaus is a good example. He didn't just tell them the truth, so that they would believe it "because I said so," but explained things from Scripture, so their faith would be based on evidence, reason and understanding.

The last statement discusses what happens when people do things because "God said so," without understanding why.

Quote:
God does not propose to remove all occasion for unbelief. He gives evidence, which must be carefully investigated with a humble mind and teachable spirit. All should decide from the weight of evidence. (Review and Herald, Sept. 16, 1873)


Quote:
Here is a test which all may apply if they will. None need be left in uncertainty and doubt. There is always sufficient evidence upon which to base an intelligent faith. (Signs of the Times, December 30, 1886)


Quote:
I have been shown that many who profess to have a knowledge of present truth know not what they believe. They do not understand the evidences of their faith. . . . When the time of trial shall come, there are men now preaching to others who will find, upon examining the positions they hold, that there are many things for which they can give no satisfactory reason...

Believers are not to rest in suppositions and ill-defined ideas of what constitutes truth. Their faith must be firmly founded upon the word of God so that when the testing time shall come and they are brought before councils to answer for their faith they may be able to give a reason for the hope that is in them. . .

"It is important that in defending the doctrines which we consider fundamental articles of faith we should never allow ourselves to employ arguments that are not wholly sound. These may avail to silence an opposer but they do not honor the truth. We should present sound arguments, that will not only silence our opponents, but will bear the closest and most searching scrutiny. (5T 707, 708)


Quote:
Faith in a lie will not have a sanctifying influence upon the life or character. No error is truth, or can be made truth by repetition, or by faith in it. Sincerity will never save a soul from the consequences of believing an error. Without sincerity there is no true religion, but sincerity in a false religion will never save a man. I may be perfectly sincere in following a wrong road, but that will not make it the right road, or bring me to the place I wished to reach. The Lord does not want us to have a blind credulity, and call that the faith that sanctifies. The truth is the principle that sanctifies, and therefore it becomes us to know what is truth. We must compare spiritual things with spiritual. We must prove all things, but hold fast only that which is good, that which bears the divine credentials, which lays before us the true motives and principles which should prompt us to action. (2SM 56)


Quote:
He [Christ] maintained his disguise till he had interpreted the Scriptures, and had led them to an intelligent faith in his life, his character, his mission to earth, and his death and resurrection. He wished the truth to take firm root in their minds, not because it was supported by his personal testimony, but because the typical law, and the prophets of the Old Testament, agreeing with the facts of his life and death, presented unquestionable evidence of that truth." (Spirit of Prophecy, vol. 3, p. 214)


Quote:
Christ saw that something must be done. Numerous ceremonies were enjoined upon the people without the proper instruction as to their import. The worshipers offered their sacrifices without understanding that they were typical of the only perfect Sacrifice. And among them, unrecognized and unhonored, stood the One symbolized by all their service. He had given directions in regard to the offerings. He understood their symbolical value, and He saw that they were now perverted and misunderstood. Spiritual worship was fast disappearing. No link bound the priests and rulers to their God. Christ’s work was to establish an altogether different worship. (DA 157)
Posted By: Mountain Man

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 01/01/09 11:31 PM

Originally Posted By: Tom
T: No, this isn't true. They had a vast oral tradition, as I pointed out. This is what Moses wrote Job and the books of the Pentateuch from. Not all of the oral tradition was written down (also, much of what was written down was not part of the oral tradition, since it hadn't happened yet; e.g. the oral tradition did not contain the Exodus).

M: You would be hard pressed to prove your point, Tom.

T: Not at all. This is common knowledge.

Indeed, so common you seem to think it is unnecessary to post inspired quotes to support it. There is nothing more common, however, than he said, she said, and, might I add, nothing more worthless.

Quote:
M: You would have to turn to unbiblical sources to do so, and what good would that do? It wouldn’t prove a thing. Besides, do you know of any non-canonical sources which explain what people who lived before the Exodus knew about Sabbath-keeping above and beyond what Moses wrote in Genesis 2:1-3 and Exodus 20:8-11?

T: It's an oral tradition, MM, not a written one.

So is he said, she said. You can settle this pursuit by quoting an inspired author whose insight is based on what God revealed to them about it. Otherwise, you’re trying to build a cabin without any tools or materials. Simply saying it is common knowledge that people who lived before the Exodus knew much more about Sabbath-keeping than what Moses wrote in Genesis 2:1-3 and Exodus 20:8-11 is hearsay, naysay, and gainsay.

Quote:
M: Please post inspired quotes which clearly state what you think about it.

T: Scripture doesn't discuss how it was formed. It doesn't even define what is canonical. That there was knowledge obtained and passed along by holy men before the Bible is brought out here:

“Notwithstanding the prevailing iniquity, there was a line of holy men who, elevated and ennobled by communion with God, lived as in the companionship of heaven. They were men of massive intellect, of wonderful attainments. They had a great and holy mission--to develop a character of righteousness, to teach a lesson of godliness, not only to the men of their time, but for future generations. Only a few of the most prominent are mentioned in the Scriptures; but all through the ages God had faithfully witnesses, truehearted worshipers. (PP 84)

Again, I agree truths were passed on orally until Moses wrote it down in Genesis. But this doesn’t prove people who lived before the Exodus knew way more about Sabbath-keeping than what Moses wrote in Genesis 2:1-3 and Exodus 20:8-11. This quote, therefore, does not prove your assertion. It does not give you the leg you need to stand on to prove your point. In fact, the only thing it proves, is that there was “a line of holy men” who lived before the Flood and that only the prominent ones were named. It doesn’t give any details, it doesn’t say what they taught or believed.

Quote:
M: BTW, do you agree the two passages referred to above lack the kind of evidence, reasoning, and understanding you think is necessary to qualify as sufficient to obey God intelligently and not slavishly?

T: Regarding your question, no, I don't agree.

Your answer surprises me. I thought you were going to say, yes, they lack enough evidence to enable people to obey God intelligently and not slavishly. So, please explain why you think they contain enough evidence to obey God intelligently. What is the evidence?

Quote:
M: God's people were not slaves for 2500 years. The Jews were slaves for less than 200 years. My question pertains to everyone who lived and kept the Sabbath before the Exodus. Did they render slavish obedience since the only reason God gave for keeping the Sabbath was because He rested on that day?

T: Same answer.

M:You seem to expect me to render slavish obedience since your evidence is less than sufficient. Ha! That was an awkward attempt at humor. Perhaps I need to take lessons from Teresaq?

T: I have absolutely no clue what you're talking about. You asked, "Did they render slavish obedience since the only reason God gave for keeping the Sabbath was because He rested on that day?" This is based on a false assumption. I already explained this. "Same answer" was referring to this explanation.

But your “answer” required me to believe what you said because you said so. You didn’t provide any inspired passages to support your assertion. All along you have been insisting slavish obedience consists of obeying God for no better reason than because He said so.

Quote:
T: Without considering evidence, it would be very easy to be under the delusion that one is obeying God while actually obeying the enemy. Regarding what the concept of slavish obedience encompasses, there's no need to speculate. We're told what it is. It's as opposed to "intelligent appreciation." Jesus describes it in terms of not knowing what the master is doing.

M: Let’s apply your logic to a real situation and see if it pans out the way you think. Moses killed the Sabbath-breaker and the blasphemer on the basis he believed God commanded him to do so. Was he “under the delusion that [he was] obeying God while [he was] actually obeying the enemy”?

T: Let me ask, do you disagree with what I wrote? If so, what did you disagree with? In response to your example, it doesn't apply, as Moses's faith was based on reason, evidence and understanding.

Your answer to my question was needed to determine if I agree with you wrote. You wrote, “Without considering evidence, it would be very easy to be under the delusion that one is obeying God while actually obeying the enemy.” What evidence? You also wrote, “[Slavish obedience is] opposed to ‘intelligent appreciation.’ Jesus describes it in terms of not knowing what the master is doing.” Where did Jesus define it this way?

Here’s the quote: “God does not force the will or judgment of any. He takes no pleasure in a slavish obedience. He desires that the creatures of His hands shall love Him because He is worthy of love. He would have them obey Him because they have an intelligent appreciation of His wisdom, justice, and benevolence. And all who have a just conception of these qualities will love Him because they are drawn toward Him in admiration of His attributes.” {GC 541.3}

“God does not force the will or judgment of any. He takes no pleasure in a slavish obedience.” The way I read it, “slavish obedience” is purely hypothetical. Her definition involves God doing something He has never done, nor will He ever do, namely, forcing the will and judgment of someone to exact obedience from them. That's her definition of slavish obedience.

You wrote, “In response to your example, it doesn't apply, as Moses's faith was based on reason, evidence and understanding.” Upon what evidence did Moses obey God’s command to kill the Sabbath-breaker and the blasphemer? What were his reasons? What did he understand? Why did it make sense to him?

Quote:
T: Jesus said, "I do not call you servants (slaves) any longer" which implies there was a time when He did. So if one is unwilling to keep step with God, God will humble Himself and keep step with man. The Old and New Covenant is a perfect illustration of this theme.

M: Are you implying rendering obedience in response to, Because I said so, is slavish? And, are you implying the obedience God required under the OC was slavish, that He compromised and required it to accommodate their less than favorable circumstances and mind set?

T: No. I think you're missing the whole point here.

Again, your answer surprises me. I thought you would say, yes, rendering obedience in response to, Because I said so, is slavish.

You wrote, “So if one is unwilling to keep step with God, God will humble Himself and keep step with man. The Old and New Covenant is a perfect illustration of this theme.” What do you mean if you don’t mean “the obedience God required under the OC was slavish, that He compromised and required it to accommodate their less than favorable circumstances and mind set”?

Quote:
M: If so, are you not also implying that observing everything God required under the OC required slavish obedience, and that such slavish obedience was repulsive and unacceptable to God? Wouldn’t this include the feast days, the sanitary laws, the judicial laws, and dietary laws? If not, what else do you think God required under the OC that did not require slavish obedience?

T: The following explains my point: [Glad Tidings quoted].

Here’s how Ellen describes it:

Quote:
God's favor toward Israel had always been conditional on their obedience. At the foot of Sinai they had entered into covenant relationship with Him as His "peculiar treasure. . . above all people." Solemnly they had promised to follow in the path of obedience. "All that the Lord hath spoken we will do," they had said. Exodus 19:5, 8. And when, a few days afterward, God's law was spoken from Sinai, and additional instruction in the form of statutes and judgments was communicated through Moses, the Israelites with one voice had again promised, "All the words which the Lord hath said will we do." At the ratification of the covenant, the people had once more united in declaring, "All that the Lord hath said will we do, and be obedient," Exodus 24:3, 7. God had chosen Israel as His people, and they had chosen Him as their King. {PK 293.1}

Preparation was now made for the ratification of the covenant, according to God's directions. . . . {1BC 1107.2}

Here the people received the conditions of the covenant. They made a solemn covenant with God, typifying the covenant made between God and every believer in Jesus Christ. The conditions were plainly laid before the people. They were not left to misunderstand them. When they were requested to decide whether they would agree to all the conditions given, they unanimously consented to obey every obligation. They had already consented to obey God's commandments. The principles of the law were now particularized, that they might know how much was involved in covenanting to obey the law; and they accepted the specifically defined particulars of the law. {1BC 1107.3}

If the Israelites had obeyed God's requirements, they would have been practical Christians. They would have been happy; for they would have been keeping God's ways, and not following the inclinations of their own natural hearts. Moses did not leave them to misconstrue the words of the Lord or to misapply His requirements. He wrote all the words of the Lord in a book, that they might be referred to afterward. In the mount he had written them as Christ Himself dictated them. {1BC 1107.4}

Bravely did the Israelites speak the words promising obedience to the Lord, after hearing His covenant read in the audience of the people. They said, "All that the Lord hath said will we do, and be obedient." Then the people were set apart and sealed to God. A sacrifice was offered to the Lord. A portion of the blood of the sacrifice was sprinkled upon the altar. This signified that the people had consecrated themselves--body, mind, and soul--to God. A portion was sprinkled upon the people. This signified that through the sprinkled blood of Christ, God graciously accepted them as His special treasure. Thus the Israelites entered into a solemn covenant with God (MS 126, 1901). {1BC 1107.5}

The covenant that God made with His people at Sinai is to be our refuge and defense....This covenant is of just as much force today as it was when the Lord made it with ancient Israel. {AG 142.2}

[Ex 19:7, 8 quoted, which includes, All that the Lord hath spoken we will do] This is the pledge that God's people are to make in these last days. Their acceptance with God depends on a faithful fulfillment of the terms of their agreement with Him. God includes in His covenant all who will obey Him. {1BC 1103.11}

The quotes posted above make it clear that the covenant the Jews made with God included the ten commandments, the law of Moses, the tabernacle, and the ceremonial services. They also make it clear that the thrice repeated pledge, “All that the Lord hath said will we do, and be obedient” is the same pledge God expects from us today. “This is the pledge that God's people are to make in these last days.” Unlike the Jews, however, we must rely on the indwelling Spirit of God to empower us to live in harmony with the law He writes on the tables of our heart.

So again, I need to ask, Are you saying that the obedience the Jews rendered in fulfilling the requirements of the OC was slavish?
Posted By: Mountain Man

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 01/01/09 11:56 PM

Originally Posted By: teresaq
M: What point are you making in posting this quote? This would be a good quote for the Covenant thread.

t: it backs up the quote from glad tidings in post #106735.

Oh, now I see. Thank you. Are you sure Ellen and Elliot are saying the same thing? Please consider the following passages:

Quote:
God's favor toward Israel had always been conditional on their obedience. At the foot of Sinai they had entered into covenant relationship with Him as His "peculiar treasure. . . above all people." Solemnly they had promised to follow in the path of obedience. "All that the Lord hath spoken we will do," they had said. Exodus 19:5, 8. And when, a few days afterward, God's law was spoken from Sinai, and additional instruction in the form of statutes and judgments was communicated through Moses, the Israelites with one voice had again promised, "All the words which the Lord hath said will we do." At the ratification of the covenant, the people had once more united in declaring, "All that the Lord hath said will we do, and be obedient," Exodus 24:3, 7. God had chosen Israel as His people, and they had chosen Him as their King. {PK 293.1}

Preparation was now made for the ratification of the covenant, according to God's directions. . . . {1BC 1107.2}

Here the people received the conditions of the covenant. They made a solemn covenant with God, typifying the covenant made between God and every believer in Jesus Christ. The conditions were plainly laid before the people. They were not left to misunderstand them. When they were requested to decide whether they would agree to all the conditions given, they unanimously consented to obey every obligation. They had already consented to obey God's commandments. The principles of the law were now particularized, that they might know how much was involved in covenanting to obey the law; and they accepted the specifically defined particulars of the law. {1BC 1107.3}

If the Israelites had obeyed God's requirements, they would have been practical Christians. They would have been happy; for they would have been keeping God's ways, and not following the inclinations of their own natural hearts. Moses did not leave them to misconstrue the words of the Lord or to misapply His requirements. He wrote all the words of the Lord in a book, that they might be referred to afterward. In the mount he had written them as Christ Himself dictated them. {1BC 1107.4}

Bravely did the Israelites speak the words promising obedience to the Lord, after hearing His covenant read in the audience of the people. They said, "All that the Lord hath said will we do, and be obedient." Then the people were set apart and sealed to God. A sacrifice was offered to the Lord. A portion of the blood of the sacrifice was sprinkled upon the altar. This signified that the people had consecrated themselves--body, mind, and soul--to God. A portion was sprinkled upon the people. This signified that through the sprinkled blood of Christ, God graciously accepted them as His special treasure. Thus the Israelites entered into a solemn covenant with God (MS 126, 1901). {1BC 1107.5}

The covenant that God made with His people at Sinai is to be our refuge and defense....This covenant is of just as much force today as it was when the Lord made it with ancient Israel. {AG 142.2}

[Ex 19:7, 8 quoted, which includes, All that the Lord hath spoken we will do] This is the pledge that God's people are to make in these last days. Their acceptance with God depends on a faithful fulfillment of the terms of their agreement with Him. God includes in His covenant all who will obey Him. {1BC 1103.11}
Posted By: Mountain Man

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 01/02/09 12:10 AM

Originally Posted By: Tom
Above you spoke of people who obey God on "evidence alone." I asked you what this means. You didn't explain this. Here you're talking about obeying God without evidence.

I am simply asking questions. Is, Because I said so, sufficient evidence or reason to obey God intelligently and not slavishly? You seem to think not. Why?

Originally Posted By: Tom
Regarding an example of slavish obedience, the whole history of the COI is an example of slavish obedience, with the notable exceptions of those who had faith. The Pharisees would be the epitome of slavish obedience.

Explain why. What did they do differently than the faithful few you mentioned that resulted in slavish obedience?

Originally Posted By: Tom
Regarding the questions of God's existence: "God never asks us to believe, without giving sufficient evidence upon which to base our faith. His existence, His character, the truthfulness of His word, are all established by testimony that appeals to our reason; and this testimony is abundant.(SC 105)

What is the evidence, the abundant testimony that appeals to our reason? Is it based on more than a “Thus saith the Lord” or “It is written”? If so, please explain.
Posted By: Tom

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 01/02/09 12:12 AM

Of course she's saying the same thing! She wrote:

Quote:
I stand in perfect freedom, calling light, light, and darkness, darkness. I told them yesterday that the position of the covenants I believed as presented in my volume 1 [Patriarchs and Prophets]. If that was Dr. Waggoner's position then he had the truth. (Letter 82, 1890)


Then shortly after:

Quote:
Since I made the statement last Sabbath that the view of the covenants as it had been taught by Brother Waggoner was truth, it seems that great relief has come to many minds.-- (Letter 30, 1890)


So she said:

1)If Waggoner's position agreed with hers (in PP), then it was truth. (then shortly after)
2)Waggoner's position was truth.

Therefore it's clear that in her opinion Waggoner's position agreed with hers. So unless what you quoted from her in the other places (besides PP) disagrees with her position in PP, then Waggoner's position (at least in her opinion) must agree with that too.
Posted By: Mountain Man

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 01/02/09 12:16 AM

Originally Posted By: Tom
Here are some statements which deal with the importance of faith based on evidence. How Jesus proceeded on the road to Emmaus is a good example. He didn't just tell them the truth, so that they would believe it "because I said so," but explained things from Scripture, so their faith would be based on evidence, reason and understanding. The last statement discusses what happens when people do things because "God said so," without understanding why.

Which scriptures did Jesus quote which contain more information than a mere "Thus saith the Lord"? Also, where in the Pentateuch did Moses explain that the animal sacrifices symbolize the future sacrifice of the Son of God?
Posted By: Mountain Man

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 01/02/09 12:22 AM

Originally Posted By: Tom
Of course she's saying the same thing!

Prove it. What are the key points they hold in common? On what points do they differ? Lay the quotes side-by-side so can compare them. Also, do you think she contradicted what she wrote in PP in the quotes I posted above? If so, please explain.

PS - How can Letter 30 be referring back to Letter 82 (referring to the quotes you posted above)?

PPS - I just researched it and Letter 82 was written to Willie and May White on 9 March 1890, and Letter 32 was written to the same couple on 10 March 1890.
Posted By: teresaq

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 01/02/09 12:30 AM

Originally Posted By: Mountain Man
Originally Posted By: teresaq
M: What point are you making in posting this quote? This would be a good quote for the Covenant thread.

t: it backs up the quote from glad tidings in post #106735.

Oh, now I see. Thank you. Are you sure Ellen and Elliot are saying the same thing? Please consider the following passages:

Quote:
God's favor toward Israel had always been conditional on their obedience. At the foot of Sinai they had entered into covenant relationship with Him as His "peculiar treasure. . . above all people." Solemnly they had promised to follow in the path of obedience. "All that the Lord hath spoken we will do," they had said. Exodus 19:5, 8. And when, a few days afterward, God's law was spoken from Sinai, and additional instruction in the form of statutes and judgments was communicated through Moses, the Israelites with one voice had again promised, "All the words which the Lord hath said will we do." At the ratification of the covenant, the people had once more united in declaring, "All that the Lord hath said will we do, and be obedient," Exodus 24:3, 7. God had chosen Israel as His people, and they had chosen Him as their King. {PK 293.1}

Preparation was now made for the ratification of the covenant, according to God's directions. . . . {1BC 1107.2}

Here the people received the conditions of the covenant. They made a solemn covenant with God, typifying the covenant made between God and every believer in Jesus Christ. The conditions were plainly laid before the people. They were not left to misunderstand them. When they were requested to decide whether they would agree to all the conditions given, they unanimously consented to obey every obligation. They had already consented to obey God's commandments. The principles of the law were now particularized, that they might know how much was involved in covenanting to obey the law; and they accepted the specifically defined particulars of the law. {1BC 1107.3}

If the Israelites had obeyed God's requirements, they would have been practical Christians. They would have been happy; for they would have been keeping God's ways, and not following the inclinations of their own natural hearts. Moses did not leave them to misconstrue the words of the Lord or to misapply His requirements. He wrote all the words of the Lord in a book, that they might be referred to afterward. In the mount he had written them as Christ Himself dictated them. {1BC 1107.4}

Bravely did the Israelites speak the words promising obedience to the Lord, after hearing His covenant read in the audience of the people. They said, "All that the Lord hath said will we do, and be obedient." Then the people were set apart and sealed to God. A sacrifice was offered to the Lord. A portion of the blood of the sacrifice was sprinkled upon the altar. This signified that the people had consecrated themselves--body, mind, and soul--to God. A portion was sprinkled upon the people. This signified that through the sprinkled blood of Christ, God graciously accepted them as His special treasure. Thus the Israelites entered into a solemn covenant with God (MS 126, 1901). {1BC 1107.5}

The covenant that God made with His people at Sinai is to be our refuge and defense....This covenant is of just as much force today as it was when the Lord made it with ancient Israel. {AG 142.2}

[Ex 19:7, 8 quoted, which includes, All that the Lord hath spoken we will do] This is the pledge that God's people are to make in these last days. Their acceptance with God depends on a faithful fulfillment of the terms of their agreement with Him. God includes in His covenant all who will obey Him. {1BC 1103.11}


i dont understand. are you saying that the statements above cancel out this statement which is equally hers?

Quote:
The people did not realize the sinfulness of their own hearts, and that without Christ it was impossible for them to keep God's law; and they readily entered into covenant with God. Feeling that they were able to establish their own righteousness, they declared, "All that the Lord hath said will we do, and be obedient." Exodus 24:7.

They had witnessed the proclamation of the law in awful majesty, and had trembled with terror before the mount; and yet only a few weeks passed before they broke their covenant with God, and bowed down to worship a graven image.

They could not hope for the favor of God through a covenant which they had broken; and now, seeing their sinfulness and their need of pardon, they were brought to feel their need of the Saviour revealed in the Abrahamic covenant and shadowed forth in the sacrificial offerings. Now by faith and love they were bound to God as their deliverer from the bondage of sin. Now they were prepared to appreciate the blessings of the new covenant. {PP 371.4}


The terms of the "old covenant" were, Obey and live: "If a man do, he shall even live in them" (Ezekiel 20:11; Leviticus 18:5); but "cursed be he that confirmeth not all the words of this law to do them." Deuteronomy 27:26. The "new covenant" was established upon "better promises"--the promise of forgiveness of sins and of the grace of God to renew the heart and bring it into harmony with the principles of God's law. "This shall be the covenant that I will make with the house of Israel; After those days, saith the Lord, I will put my law in their inward parts, and write it in their hearts. . . . I will forgive their iniquity, and will remember their sin no more." Jeremiah 31:33, 34. {PP 372.1}
The same law that was engraved upon the tables of stone is written by the Holy Spirit upon the tables of the heart. Instead of going about to establish our own righteousness we accept the righteousness of Christ. His blood atones for our sins. His obedience is accepted for us. Then the heart renewed by the Holy Spirit will bring forth "the fruits of the Spirit." Through the grace of Christ we shall live in obedience to the law of God written upon our hearts. Having the Spirit of Christ, we shall walk even as He walked. Through the prophet He declared of Himself, "I delight to do Thy will, O My God: yea, Thy law is within My heart." Psalm 40:8. And when among men He said, "The Father hath not left Me alone; for I do always those things that please Him." John 8:29. {PP 372.2}
The apostle Paul clearly presents the relation between faith and the law under the new covenant. He says: "Being justified by faith, we have peace with God through our Lord Jesus Christ." "Do we then make void the law through faith? God forbid: yea, we establish the law." "For what the law could not do, in that it was weak through the flesh"--it could not justify man, because in his sinful nature he could not keep the law--"God sending His own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh, and for sin, condemned sin in the flesh: that the righteousness of the law might be fulfilled in us, who walk not after the flesh, but after the Spirit." Romans 5:1; 3:31; 8:3, 4. {PP 373.1}
Posted By: Tom

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 01/02/09 12:30 AM

Quote:
T:Above you spoke of people who obey God on "evidence alone." I asked you what this means. You didn't explain this. Here you're talking about obeying God without evidence.

M:I am simply asking questions. Is, Because I said so, sufficient evidence or reason to obey God intelligently and not slavishly? You seem to think not. Why?


What do you mean you're simply "asking questions"? You asked if "evidence alone" was slavish obedience. What does this mean? If it's nonsense, please refrain from asking questions which are nonsense. If it's not nonsense, please explains what it means.

Regarding "because I said so," Jesus' actions on the Road to Emmaus demonstrates that this is not what God desires. In John 15, Jesus explains the difference between servants (slaves) and friends. The servant (slave) does not know what the master is doing. Jesus desires that we know what the master is doing. God never asks us to believe without giving us sufficient evidence upon which to establish our faith. "Because I said so," is not evidence. Satan can say that as well as God.

Quote:
T:Regarding an example of slavish obedience, the whole history of the COI is an example of slavish obedience, with the notable exceptions of those who had faith. The Pharisees would be the epitome of slavish obedience.

M:Explain why. What did they do differently than the faithful few you mentioned that resulted in slavish obedience?


The Pharisees had a religion based on rules. There's was not a heart obedience based on love for God. The faithful few responded to God's love, admired His character, and were enthralled by His goodness.

Quote:
What is the evidence, the abundant testimony that appeals to our reason? Is it based on more than a “Thus saith the Lord” or “It is written”? If so, please explain.


Yes, it's more than that. There are hundreds of creation accounts. A claim somewhere that says that some God created something isn't evidence. As to what the testimony is regarding God, what do you think? I realize I'm answering a question with a question, but you've asked me many questions, which I've answered, and I haven't been asking you any, so I'll defer on this one. The reason is, I'd be surprised if you didn't know what the evidence is regarding God's existence, so why you're asking this is a bit of a mystery to me. Unless you really do have a different idea regarding what this evidence is.
Posted By: Mountain Man

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 01/02/09 12:37 AM

Originally Posted By: teresaq
Quote:
M: What point are you making in posting this quote? This would be a good quote for the Covenant thread.

t: it backs up the quote from glad tidings in post #106735.

Oh, now I see. Thank you. Are you sure Ellen and Elliot are saying the same thing? Please consider the following passages:

Quote:
God's favor toward Israel had always been conditional on their obedience. At the foot of Sinai they had entered into covenant relationship with Him as His "peculiar treasure. . . above all people." Solemnly they had promised to follow in the path of obedience. "All that the Lord hath spoken we will do," they had said. Exodus 19:5, 8. And when, a few days afterward, God's law was spoken from Sinai, and additional instruction in the form of statutes and judgments was communicated through Moses, the Israelites with one voice had again promised, "All the words which the Lord hath said will we do." At the ratification of the covenant, the people had once more united in declaring, "All that the Lord hath said will we do, and be obedient," Exodus 24:3, 7. God had chosen Israel as His people, and they had chosen Him as their King. {PK 293.1}

Preparation was now made for the ratification of the covenant, according to God's directions. . . . {1BC 1107.2}

Here the people received the conditions of the covenant. They made a solemn covenant with God, typifying the covenant made between God and every believer in Jesus Christ. The conditions were plainly laid before the people. They were not left to misunderstand them. When they were requested to decide whether they would agree to all the conditions given, they unanimously consented to obey every obligation. They had already consented to obey God's commandments. The principles of the law were now particularized, that they might know how much was involved in covenanting to obey the law; and they accepted the specifically defined particulars of the law. {1BC 1107.3}

If the Israelites had obeyed God's requirements, they would have been practical Christians. They would have been happy; for they would have been keeping God's ways, and not following the inclinations of their own natural hearts. Moses did not leave them to misconstrue the words of the Lord or to misapply His requirements. He wrote all the words of the Lord in a book, that they might be referred to afterward. In the mount he had written them as Christ Himself dictated them. {1BC 1107.4}

Bravely did the Israelites speak the words promising obedience to the Lord, after hearing His covenant read in the audience of the people. They said, "All that the Lord hath said will we do, and be obedient." Then the people were set apart and sealed to God. A sacrifice was offered to the Lord. A portion of the blood of the sacrifice was sprinkled upon the altar. This signified that the people had consecrated themselves--body, mind, and soul--to God. A portion was sprinkled upon the people. This signified that through the sprinkled blood of Christ, God graciously accepted them as His special treasure. Thus the Israelites entered into a solemn covenant with God (MS 126, 1901). {1BC 1107.5}

The covenant that God made with His people at Sinai is to be our refuge and defense....This covenant is of just as much force today as it was when the Lord made it with ancient Israel. {AG 142.2}

[Ex 19:7, 8 quoted, which includes, All that the Lord hath spoken we will do] This is the pledge that God's people are to make in these last days. Their acceptance with God depends on a faithful fulfillment of the terms of their agreement with Him. God includes in His covenant all who will obey Him. {1BC 1103.11}

t: i dont understand. are you saying that the statements above cancel out this statement which is equally hers?

Quote:
The people did not realize the sinfulness of their own hearts, and that without Christ it was impossible for them to keep God's law; and they readily entered into covenant with God. Feeling that they were able to establish their own righteousness, they declared, "All that the Lord hath said will we do, and be obedient." Exodus 24:7.

They had witnessed the proclamation of the law in awful majesty, and had trembled with terror before the mount; and yet only a few weeks passed before they broke their covenant with God, and bowed down to worship a graven image.

They could not hope for the favor of God through a covenant which they had broken; and now, seeing their sinfulness and their need of pardon, they were brought to feel their need of the Saviour revealed in the Abrahamic covenant and shadowed forth in the sacrificial offerings. Now by faith and love they were bound to God as their deliverer from the bondage of sin. Now they were prepared to appreciate the blessings of the new covenant. {PP 371.4}

The terms of the "old covenant" were, Obey and live: "If a man do, he shall even live in them" (Ezekiel 20:11; Leviticus 18:5); but "cursed be he that confirmeth not all the words of this law to do them." Deuteronomy 27:26. The "new covenant" was established upon "better promises"--the promise of forgiveness of sins and of the grace of God to renew the heart and bring it into harmony with the principles of God's law. "This shall be the covenant that I will make with the house of Israel; After those days, saith the Lord, I will put my law in their inward parts, and write it in their hearts. . . . I will forgive their iniquity, and will remember their sin no more." Jeremiah 31:33, 34. {PP 372.1}

The same law that was engraved upon the tables of stone is written by the Holy Spirit upon the tables of the heart. Instead of going about to establish our own righteousness we accept the righteousness of Christ. His blood atones for our sins. His obedience is accepted for us. Then the heart renewed by the Holy Spirit will bring forth "the fruits of the Spirit." Through the grace of Christ we shall live in obedience to the law of God written upon our hearts. Having the Spirit of Christ, we shall walk even as He walked. Through the prophet He declared of Himself, "I delight to do Thy will, O My God: yea, Thy law is within My heart." Psalm 40:8. And when among men He said, "The Father hath not left Me alone; for I do always those things that please Him." John 8:29. {PP 372.2}

The apostle Paul clearly presents the relation between faith and the law under the new covenant. He says: "Being justified by faith, we have peace with God through our Lord Jesus Christ." "Do we then make void the law through faith? God forbid: yea, we establish the law." "For what the law could not do, in that it was weak through the flesh"--it could not justify man, because in his sinful nature he could not keep the law--"God sending His own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh, and for sin, condemned sin in the flesh: that the righteousness of the law might be fulfilled in us, who walk not after the flesh, but after the Spirit." Romans 5:1; 3:31; 8:3, 4. {PP 373.1}

M: I see harmony in her statements. Do you see harmony in them? And, do you see harmony between Ellen and Elliot?
Posted By: Mountain Man

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 01/02/09 01:05 AM

Found this interesting quote:

He [Ellen White's angelic guide] stretched out his arms toward Dr. Waggoner and to you, Elder Butler, and said in substance as follows: "Neither have all the light upon the law, neither position is perfect. 'Light is sown for the righteous, and gladness for the upright in heart' (Psalm 97:11). There are hundreds that know not why they believe the doctrines they do."--Letter 21, 1888, pp. 6,7. (To G. I. Butler, October 14, 1888.) {9MR 218.1}
Posted By: teresaq

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 01/02/09 01:15 AM

Originally Posted By: Mountain Man
Originally Posted By: teresaq
Quote:
M: What point are you making in posting this quote? This would be a good quote for the Covenant thread.

t: it backs up the quote from glad tidings in post #106735.

Oh, now I see. Thank you. Are you sure Ellen and Elliot are saying the same thing? Please consider the following passages:

Quote:
God's favor toward Israel had always been conditional on their obedience. At the foot of Sinai they had entered into covenant relationship with Him as His "peculiar treasure. . . above all people." Solemnly they had promised to follow in the path of obedience. "All that the Lord hath spoken we will do," they had said. Exodus 19:5, 8. And when, a few days afterward, God's law was spoken from Sinai, and additional instruction in the form of statutes and judgments was communicated through Moses, the Israelites with one voice had again promised, "All the words which the Lord hath said will we do." At the ratification of the covenant, the people had once more united in declaring, "All that the Lord hath said will we do, and be obedient," Exodus 24:3, 7. God had chosen Israel as His people, and they had chosen Him as their King. {PK 293.1}

Preparation was now made for the ratification of the covenant, according to God's directions. . . . {1BC 1107.2}

Here the people received the conditions of the covenant. They made a solemn covenant with God, typifying the covenant made between God and every believer in Jesus Christ. The conditions were plainly laid before the people. They were not left to misunderstand them. When they were requested to decide whether they would agree to all the conditions given, they unanimously consented to obey every obligation. They had already consented to obey God's commandments. The principles of the law were now particularized, that they might know how much was involved in covenanting to obey the law; and they accepted the specifically defined particulars of the law. {1BC 1107.3}

If the Israelites had obeyed God's requirements, they would have been practical Christians. They would have been happy; for they would have been keeping God's ways, and not following the inclinations of their own natural hearts. Moses did not leave them to misconstrue the words of the Lord or to misapply His requirements. He wrote all the words of the Lord in a book, that they might be referred to afterward. In the mount he had written them as Christ Himself dictated them. {1BC 1107.4}

Bravely did the Israelites speak the words promising obedience to the Lord, after hearing His covenant read in the audience of the people. They said, "All that the Lord hath said will we do, and be obedient." Then the people were set apart and sealed to God. A sacrifice was offered to the Lord. A portion of the blood of the sacrifice was sprinkled upon the altar. This signified that the people had consecrated themselves--body, mind, and soul--to God. A portion was sprinkled upon the people. This signified that through the sprinkled blood of Christ, God graciously accepted them as His special treasure. Thus the Israelites entered into a solemn covenant with God (MS 126, 1901). {1BC 1107.5}

The covenant that God made with His people at Sinai is to be our refuge and defense....This covenant is of just as much force today as it was when the Lord made it with ancient Israel. {AG 142.2}

[Ex 19:7, 8 quoted, which includes, All that the Lord hath spoken we will do] This is the pledge that God's people are to make in these last days. Their acceptance with God depends on a faithful fulfillment of the terms of their agreement with Him. God includes in His covenant all who will obey Him. {1BC 1103.11}

t: i dont understand. are you saying that the statements above cancel out this statement which is equally hers?

Quote:
The people did not realize the sinfulness of their own hearts, and that without Christ it was impossible for them to keep God's law; and they readily entered into covenant with God. Feeling that they were able to establish their own righteousness, they declared, "All that the Lord hath said will we do, and be obedient." Exodus 24:7.

They had witnessed the proclamation of the law in awful majesty, and had trembled with terror before the mount; and yet only a few weeks passed before they broke their covenant with God, and bowed down to worship a graven image.

They could not hope for the favor of God through a covenant which they had broken; and now, seeing their sinfulness and their need of pardon, they were brought to feel their need of the Saviour revealed in the Abrahamic covenant and shadowed forth in the sacrificial offerings. Now by faith and love they were bound to God as their deliverer from the bondage of sin. Now they were prepared to appreciate the blessings of the new covenant. {PP 371.4}

The terms of the "old covenant" were, Obey and live: "If a man do, he shall even live in them" (Ezekiel 20:11; Leviticus 18:5); but "cursed be he that confirmeth not all the words of this law to do them." Deuteronomy 27:26. The "new covenant" was established upon "better promises"--the promise of forgiveness of sins and of the grace of God to renew the heart and bring it into harmony with the principles of God's law. "This shall be the covenant that I will make with the house of Israel; After those days, saith the Lord, I will put my law in their inward parts, and write it in their hearts. . . . I will forgive their iniquity, and will remember their sin no more." Jeremiah 31:33, 34. {PP 372.1}

The same law that was engraved upon the tables of stone is written by the Holy Spirit upon the tables of the heart. Instead of going about to establish our own righteousness we accept the righteousness of Christ. His blood atones for our sins. His obedience is accepted for us. Then the heart renewed by the Holy Spirit will bring forth "the fruits of the Spirit." Through the grace of Christ we shall live in obedience to the law of God written upon our hearts. Having the Spirit of Christ, we shall walk even as He walked. Through the prophet He declared of Himself, "I delight to do Thy will, O My God: yea, Thy law is within My heart." Psalm 40:8. And when among men He said, "The Father hath not left Me alone; for I do always those things that please Him." John 8:29. {PP 372.2}

The apostle Paul clearly presents the relation between faith and the law under the new covenant. He says: "Being justified by faith, we have peace with God through our Lord Jesus Christ." "Do we then make void the law through faith? God forbid: yea, we establish the law." "For what the law could not do, in that it was weak through the flesh"--it could not justify man, because in his sinful nature he could not keep the law--"God sending His own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh, and for sin, condemned sin in the flesh: that the righteousness of the law might be fulfilled in us, who walk not after the flesh, but after the Spirit." Romans 5:1; 3:31; 8:3, 4. {PP 373.1}

M: I see harmony in her statements. Do you see harmony in them? And, do you see harmony between Ellen and Elliot?


so, youre saying that this glad tidings quote, in essence is not saying the same thing as egw in pp?

Quote:
What are the two covenants?--The two women, Hagar and Sarah; for we read that Hagar is Mount Sinai, "which gendereth to bondage." That is, just as Hagar could not bring forth any other kind of children than slaves, so the law, even the law that God spoke from Sinai, can not beget freemen. It can do nothing but hold them in bondage. "The law worketh wrath:" "for by the law is the knowledge of sin." The same is true of the covenant from Sinai, for it consisted merely of the promise of the people to keep that law, and had, therefore, no more power to make them free than the law itself had,--no more power than they already had in their bondage. Nay, rather, it "gendered to bondage," since their making it was simply a promise to make themselves righteous by their own works, and man in himself is "without strength."

Consider the situation: The people were in the bondage of sin; they had no power to break their chains; but the speaking of the law made no change in their condition; it introduced no new feature. If a man is in prison for crime, you can not release him by reading the statutes to him. It was the law that put him there, and the reading of it to him only makes his captivity more painful.

"Then did not God Himself lead them into bondage?"--Not by any means; since He did not induce them to make that covenant at Sinai. Four hundred and thirty years before that time He had made a covenant with Abraham, which was sufficient for all purposes. That covenant was confirmed in Christ, and, therefore, was a covenant from above. See John 8:23. It promised righteousness as a free gift of God through faith, and it included all nations. All the miracles that God had wrought in delivering the children of Israel from Egyptian bondage were but demonstrations of His power to deliver them and us from the bondage of sin. Yes, the deliverance from Egypt was itself a demonstration not only of God's power, but also of His desire to lead them from the bondage of sin, that bondage in which the covenant from Sinai holds men, because Hagar, who is the covenant from Sinai, was an Egyptian. So when the people came to Sinai, God simply referred them to what He had already done, and then said, "Now therefore, if ye will obey My voice indeed, and keep My covenant, then ye shall be a peculiar treasure unto Me above all people; for all the earth is Mine." Ex.19:5. To what covenant did He refer?--Evidently to the one already in existence, His covenant with Abraham. If they would simply keep God's covenant, that is, God's promise,--keep the faith,--they would be a peculiar treasure unto God, for God, as the possessor of all the earth, was able to do with them all that He had promised. The fact that they in their self-sufficiency rashly took the whole responsibility upon themselves, does not prove that God led them into making that covenant, but the contrary. He was leading them out of bondage, not into it, and the apostle plainly tells us that covenant from Sinai was nothing but bondage. (The Glad Tidings)


that the quotes you provided cancel out the glad tidings quotes, but not her other statements in the pp?
Posted By: Tom

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 01/02/09 01:18 AM

Quote:
T: No, this isn't true. They had a vast oral tradition, as I pointed out. This is what Moses wrote Job and the books of the Pentateuch from. Not all of the oral tradition was written down (also, much of what was written down was not part of the oral tradition, since it hadn't happened yet; e.g. the oral tradition did not contain the Exodus).

M: You would be hard pressed to prove your point, Tom.

T: Not at all. This is common knowledge.

M:Indeed, so common you seem to think it is unnecessary to post inspired quotes to support it.


It's precisely because it's common knowledge that inspired quotes are not needed to establish it.

Quote:
There is nothing more common, however, than he said, she said, and, might I add, nothing more worthless.


MM, how the Scriptural cannon was formed, and the role of oral tradition is something you can discover by researching the issue, if you're not already familiar with this. This isn't the role of inspiration.

The point about the oral tradition is that much of what was written in Scripture came from that oral tradition, so these were things that were already known. I quoted to you from the SOP that there were many men of God, who were very intelligent, and lived for centuries, who developed their language, and shared it. That's all right in the PP quote I provided. That knowledge was not lost. Much of it found its way into Scripture. So the fact that only a passage was written in Genesis 2 does not mean that that's all anybody knew. You're not taking into account all this knowledge these super intelligent holy men had developed for centuries.

Quote:
“God does not force the will or judgment of any. He takes no pleasure in a slavish obedience.” The way I read it, “slavish obedience” is purely hypothetical. Her definition involves God doing something He has never done, nor will He ever do, namely, forcing the will and judgment of someone to exact obedience from them. That's her definition of slavish obedience.


I don't think this makes sense. She wrote:

Quote:
“God does not force the will or judgment of any. He takes no pleasure in a slavish obedience. He desires that the creatures of His hands shall love Him because He is worthy of love. He would have them obey Him because they have an intelligent appreciation of His wisdom, justice, and benevolence. And all who have a just conception of these qualities will love Him because they are drawn toward Him in admiration of His attributes.”


That you would take from this that EGW considers the definition of "slavish obedience" to be God's forcing the will of someone strikes me as odd. She says:

1.God does not force the will of any.
2.He does not desire a slavish obedience.

And then the rest of the paragraph she describes what God does desire. Slavish obedience must be different than these things which God desires.

In John 15, Jesus describes slavish obedience as well. The principle Jesus explains is that the difference between slave and friend is that the slave does not know what his master does. It looks to me like Jesus is saying the same thing Ellen White is.

Regarding Moses, Moses knew God very well over a relationship of many years, including 40 days where He spoke to God face to face.

Quote:
So again, I need to ask, Are you saying that the obedience the Jews rendered in fulfilling the requirements of the OC was slavish?


Yes, it was slavish. God exclaimed, "If only these people had a heart to obey my law." They had the law written on stone, but not in the heart.

Since EGW said Waggoner's teaching on the Covenants was as clear as sunlight, and "truth," we can quote it, can't we?
Posted By: Mountain Man

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 01/04/09 09:15 PM

This post is in reference to #106957.

T: Of course she's saying the same thing!

M: Prove it. What are the key points they hold in common? On what points do they differ? Lay the quotes side-by-side so we can compare them. Also, do you think she contradicted what she wrote in PP in the quotes I posted above? If so, please explain.
Posted By: Mountain Man

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 01/04/09 09:18 PM

Originally Posted By: Tom
Here are some statements which deal with the importance of faith based on evidence. How Jesus proceeded on the road to Emmaus is a good example. He didn't just tell them the truth, so that they would believe it "because I said so," but explained things from Scripture, so their faith would be based on evidence, reason and understanding. The last statement discusses what happens when people do things because "God said so," without understanding why.

Which scriptures did Jesus quote which contain more information than a mere "Thus saith the Lord"? Also, where in the Pentateuch did Moses explain that the animal sacrifices symbolize the future sacrifice of the Son of God?
Posted By: Mountain Man

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 01/04/09 09:22 PM

Found this interesting quote:

He [Ellen White's angelic guide] stretched out his arms toward Dr. Waggoner and to you, Elder Butler, and said in substance as follows: "Neither have all the light upon the law, neither position is perfect. 'Light is sown for the righteous, and gladness for the upright in heart' (Psalm 97:11). There are hundreds that know not why they believe the doctrines they do."--Letter 21, 1888, pp. 6,7. (To G. I. Butler, October 14, 1888.) {9MR 218.1}

Tom, you seem to think Waggoner got it all right, whereas the angel told Ellen that his position was not perfect, that it was lacking light. How do you reconcile the contradiction?
Posted By: Mountain Man

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 01/04/09 09:30 PM

This is in reference to #106965.

Originally Posted By: Teresaq
M: I see harmony in her statements. Do you see harmony in them? And, do you see harmony between Ellen and Elliot?

t: so, youre saying that this glad tidings quote, in essence is not saying the same thing as egw in pp? that the quotes you provided cancel out the glad tidings quotes, but not her other statements in the pp?

Perhaps I didn't state my questions clearly. Here they are again reworded for clarity:

1. I see harmony between her statements. Do you see harmony between them?

2. Do you see harmony between Ellen and Elliot? Do you see harmony between their statements (posted previously on this thread)?

PS - Please note that I didn't express an opinion regarding harmony between Ellen and Elliot. I can express my opinion if you'd like me to, but in this post I am more interested in your opinion.
Posted By: teresaq

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 01/04/09 10:56 PM

i know which post it was referring to and that is why i asked if you were saying egws statement did not match waggoners. when you look back this is how it went minus the quotes.
Quote:
Oh, now I see. Thank you. Are you sure Ellen and Elliot are saying the same thing? Please consider the following passages:


to which i replied
Quote:
t: i dont understand. are you saying that the statements above cancel out this statement which is equally hers?


to which you responded
Quote:
M: I see harmony in her statements. Do you see harmony in them? And, do you see harmony between Ellen and Elliot?


then i responded, again trying to understand if you saw a difference
Quote:
so, youre saying that this glad tidings quote, in essence is not saying the same thing as egw in pp? that the quotes you provided cancel out the glad tidings quotes, but not her other statements in the pp?


to which you responded with this below which is what i am answering to now.

Originally Posted By: Mountain Man
This is in reference to #106965.

Originally Posted By: Teresaq
M: I see harmony in her statements. Do you see harmony in them? And, do you see harmony between Ellen and Elliot?

t: so, youre saying that this glad tidings quote, in essence is not saying the same thing as egw in pp? that the quotes you provided cancel out the glad tidings quotes, but not her other statements in the pp?


Perhaps I didn't state my questions clearly. Here they are again reworded for clarity:

1. I see harmony between her statements. Do you see harmony between them?

2. Do you see harmony between Ellen and Elliot? Do you see harmony between their statements (posted previously on this thread)?

PS - Please note that I didn't express an opinion regarding harmony between Ellen and Elliot. I can express my opinion if you'd like me to, but in this post I am more interested in your opinion.


i feel very strongly that several times we are playing either "here we go around the mulberry bush" and around and around, or "you cant catch me".

if you do not wish to respond to a certain question why not just let the subject die?


Posted By: Tom

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 01/05/09 05:43 AM

Quote:
This post is in reference to #106957.

T: Of course she's saying the same thing!

M: Prove it.


I did. I cited her saying that if Waggoner agreed with what she wrote in PP, he had the truth. Shortly thereafter she said Waggoner had the truth. Therefore she believe he agreed with her. Didn't you read this?

Quote:
What are the key points they hold in common? On what points do they differ? Lay the quotes side-by-side so we can compare them. Also, do you think she contradicted what she wrote in PP in the quotes I posted above? If so, please explain.


I don't think they differ. Ellen White said Waggoner had the truth, that what he said was as clear as sunlight. Who am I to disagree with her? Regarding if she contradicted herself, no, I don't think so. I think if people interpret her to have a different teaching regarding the Covenants than Waggoner had, they are misinterpreting what she wrote.

Regarding setting quotes side by side, just read what she wrote in PP, which she referred to, and what Waggoner wrote from "The Glad Tidings" which I've quoted. Teresa already cited the PP part.

Quote:
Tom, you seem to think Waggoner got it all right, whereas the angel told Ellen that his position was not perfect, that it was lacking light. How do you reconcile the contradiction?


This was before the 1888 conference. At that conference Ellen White said that every fiber of her heart said, "Amen!," that this is what she had been trying to present for 45 years, "Brethren, there is great light here!" and so forth.

MM, I don't understand why you are so desirous to find negative things to say about Jones and Waggoner. Actually, it's not just you. I see a lot of this. I don't get it. Ellen White endorsed them over 1,000 times. Here's one example:

Quote:
An unwillingness to yield up preconceived opinions, and to accept this truth, lay at the foundation of a large share of the opposition manifested at Minneapolis against the Lord's message through Brethren [E.J.] Waggoner and [A.T.] Jones. By exciting that opposition Satan succeeded in shutting away from our people, in a great measure, the special power of the Holy Spirit that God longed to impart to them. The enemy prevented them from obtaining that efficiency which might have been theirs in carrying the truth to the world, as the apostles proclaimed it after the day of Pentecost. The light that is to lighten the whole earth with its glory was resisted, and by the action of our own brethren has been in a great degree kept away from the world. (1SM 234, 5)


She *never* said that reading her writings was enough, that it was OK to ignore what Jones and Waggoner wrote because these things were in her writings. Over and over again she exhorted her readers to study and accept the light which God was giving the church through their writings.
Posted By: Mountain Man

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 01/06/09 09:17 PM

Originally Posted By: Teresaq
M: I see harmony in her statements. Do you see harmony in them? And, do you see harmony between Ellen and Elliot?

t: so, youre saying that this glad tidings quote, in essence is not saying the same thing as egw in pp? that the quotes you provided cancel out the glad tidings quotes, but not her other statements in the pp?

Yes and no. Yes, I believe all the quotes I posted agree with the PP quote you posted. And, no, I didn't say one way or another if her statements agree with Waggoner's statements in the Glad Tidings quote that was posted. I was interested in what you think. You expressed your opinion about it when you wrote, The PP quote “backs up the quote from glad tidings”. I was merely hoping you would elaborate on how and why. At any rate, here's what I think about it.

Here’s the Glad Tidings quote:

Quote:
The Glad Tidings

What are the two covenants?--The two women, Hagar and Sarah; for we read that Hagar is Mount Sinai, "which gendereth to bondage." That is, just as Hagar could not bring forth any other kind of children than slaves, so the law, even the law that God spoke from Sinai, can not beget freemen. It can do nothing but hold them in bondage. "The law worketh wrath:" "for by the law is the knowledge of sin." The same is true of the covenant from Sinai, for it consisted merely of the promise of the people to keep that law, and had, therefore, no more power to make them free than the law itself had,--no more power than they already had in their bondage. Nay, rather, it "gendered to bondage," since their making it was simply a promise to make themselves righteous by their own works, and man in himself is "without strength."

Consider the situation: The people were in the bondage of sin; they had no power to break their chains; but the speaking of the law made no change in their condition; it introduced no new feature. If a man is in prison for crime, you can not release him by reading the statutes to him. It was the law that put him there, and the reading of it to him only makes his captivity more painful.

"Then did not God Himself lead them into bondage?"--Not by any means; since He did not induce them to make that covenant at Sinai. Four hundred and thirty years before that time He had made a covenant with Abraham, which was sufficient for all purposes. That covenant was confirmed in Christ, and, therefore, was a covenant from above. See John 8:23. It promised righteousness as a free gift of God through faith, and it included all nations. All the miracles that God had wrought in delivering the children of Israel from Egyptian bondage were but demonstrations of His power to deliver them and us from the bondage of sin. Yes, the deliverance from Egypt was itself a demonstration not only of God's power, but also of His desire to lead them from the bondage of sin, that bondage in which the covenant from Sinai holds men, because Hagar, who is the covenant from Sinai, was an Egyptian. So when the people came to Sinai, God simply referred them to what He had already done, and then said, "Now therefore, if ye will obey My voice indeed, and keep My covenant, then ye shall be a peculiar treasure unto Me above all people; for all the earth is Mine." Ex.19:5. To what covenant did He refer?--Evidently to the one already in existence, His covenant with Abraham. If they would simply keep God's covenant, that is, God's promise,--keep the faith,--they would be a peculiar treasure unto God, for God, as the possessor of all the earth, was able to do with them all that He had promised. The fact that they in their self-sufficiency rashly took the whole responsibility upon themselves, does not prove that God led them into making that covenant, but the contrary. He was leading them out of bondage, not into it, and the apostle plainly tells us that covenant from Sinai was nothing but bondage.

Here’s the Patriarchs and Prophets quote:

Quote:
Patriarchs and Prophets

Another compact--called in Scripture the "old" covenant--was formed between God and Israel at Sinai, and was then ratified by the blood of a sacrifice. The Abrahamic covenant was ratified by the blood of Christ, and it is called the "second," or "new," covenant, because the blood by which it was sealed was shed after the blood of the first covenant. That the new covenant was valid in the days of Abraham is evident from the fact that it was then confirmed both by the promise and by the oath of God--the "two immutable things, in which it was impossible for God to lie." Hebrews 6:18. {PP 371.1}

But if the Abrahamic covenant contained the promise of redemption, why was another covenant formed at Sinai? In their bondage the people had to a great extent lost the knowledge of God and of the principles of the Abrahamic covenant. In delivering them from Egypt, God sought to reveal to them His power and His mercy, that they might be led to love and trust Him. He brought them down to the Red Sea--where, pursued by the Egyptians, escape seemed impossible--that they might realize their utter helplessness, their need of divine aid; and then He wrought deliverance for them. Thus they were filled with love and gratitude to God and with confidence in His power to help them. He had bound them to Himself as their deliverer from temporal bondage. {PP 371.2}

But there was a still greater truth to be impressed upon their minds. Living in the midst of idolatry and corruption, they had no true conception of the holiness of God, of the exceeding sinfulness of their own hearts, their utter inability, in themselves, to render obedience to God's law, and their need of a Saviour. All this they must be taught. {PP 371.3}

God brought them to Sinai; He manifested His glory; He gave them His law, with the promise of great blessings on condition of obedience: "If ye will obey My voice indeed, and keep My covenant, then . . . ye shall be unto Me a kingdom of priests, and an holy nation." Exodus 19:5, 6. The people did not realize the sinfulness of their own hearts, and that without Christ it was impossible for them to keep God's law; and they readily entered into covenant with God. Feeling that they were able to establish their own righteousness, they declared, "All that the Lord hath said will we do, and be obedient." Exodus 24:7. They had witnessed the proclamation of the law in awful majesty, and had trembled with terror before the mount; and yet only a few weeks passed before they broke their covenant with God, and bowed down to worship a graven image. They could not hope for the favor of God through a covenant which they had broken; and now, seeing their sinfulness and their need of pardon, they were brought to feel their need of the Saviour revealed in the Abrahamic covenant and shadowed forth in the sacrificial offerings. Now by faith and love they were bound to God as their deliverer from the bondage of sin. Now they were prepared to appreciate the blessings of the new covenant. {PP 371.4}

The terms of the "old covenant" were, Obey and live: "If a man do, he shall even live in them" (Ezekiel 20:11; Leviticus 18:5); but "cursed be he that confirmeth not all the words of this law to do them." Deuteronomy 27:26. The "new covenant" was established upon "better promises"--the promise of forgiveness of sins and of the grace of God to renew the heart and bring it into harmony with the principles of God's law. "This shall be the covenant that I will make with the house of Israel; After those days, saith the Lord, I will put my law in their inward parts, and write it in their hearts. . . . I will forgive their iniquity, and will remember their sin no more." Jeremiah 31:33, 34. {PP 372.1}

The same law that was engraved upon the tables of stone is written by the Holy Spirit upon the tables of the heart. Instead of going about to establish our own righteousness we accept the righteousness of Christ. His blood atones for our sins. His obedience is accepted for us. Then the heart renewed by the Holy Spirit will bring forth "the fruits of the Spirit." Through the grace of Christ we shall live in obedience to the law of God written upon our hearts. Having the Spirit of Christ, we shall walk even as He walked. Through the prophet He declared of Himself, "I delight to do Thy will, O My God: yea, Thy law is within My heart." Psalm 40:8. And when among men He said, "The Father hath not left Me alone; for I do always those things that please Him." John 8:29. {PP 372.2}

The apostle Paul clearly presents the relation between faith and the law under the new covenant. He says: "Being justified by faith, we have peace with God through our Lord Jesus Christ." "Do we then make void the law through faith? God forbid: yea, we establish the law." "For what the law could not do, in that it was weak through the flesh"--it could not justify man, because in his sinful nature he could not keep the law--"God sending His own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh, and for sin, condemned sin in the flesh: that the righteousness of the law might be fulfilled in us, who walk not after the flesh, but after the Spirit." Romans 5:1; 3:31; 8:3, 4. {PP 373.1}

Here are the other quotes I posted:

Quote:
Assorted Quotes

God's favor toward Israel had always been conditional on their obedience. At the foot of Sinai they had entered into covenant relationship with Him as His "peculiar treasure. . . above all people." Solemnly they had promised to follow in the path of obedience. "All that the Lord hath spoken we will do," they had said. Exodus 19:5, 8. And when, a few days afterward, God's law was spoken from Sinai, and additional instruction in the form of statutes and judgments was communicated through Moses, the Israelites with one voice had again promised, "All the words which the Lord hath said will we do." At the ratification of the covenant, the people had once more united in declaring, "All that the Lord hath said will we do, and be obedient," Exodus 24:3, 7. God had chosen Israel as His people, and they had chosen Him as their King. {PK 293.1}

Preparation was now made for the ratification of the covenant, according to God's directions. . . . {1BC 1107.2}

Here the people received the conditions of the covenant. They made a solemn covenant with God, typifying the covenant made between God and every believer in Jesus Christ. The conditions were plainly laid before the people. They were not left to misunderstand them. When they were requested to decide whether they would agree to all the conditions given, they unanimously consented to obey every obligation. They had already consented to obey God's commandments. The principles of the law were now particularized, that they might know how much was involved in covenanting to obey the law; and they accepted the specifically defined particulars of the law. {1BC 1107.3}

If the Israelites had obeyed God's requirements, they would have been practical Christians. They would have been happy; for they would have been keeping God's ways, and not following the inclinations of their own natural hearts. Moses did not leave them to misconstrue the words of the Lord or to misapply His requirements. He wrote all the words of the Lord in a book, that they might be referred to afterward. In the mount he had written them as Christ Himself dictated them. {1BC 1107.4}

Bravely did the Israelites speak the words promising obedience to the Lord, after hearing His covenant read in the audience of the people. They said, "All that the Lord hath said will we do, and be obedient." Then the people were set apart and sealed to God. A sacrifice was offered to the Lord. A portion of the blood of the sacrifice was sprinkled upon the altar. This signified that the people had consecrated themselves--body, mind, and soul--to God. A portion was sprinkled upon the people. This signified that through the sprinkled blood of Christ, God graciously accepted them as His special treasure. Thus the Israelites entered into a solemn covenant with God (MS 126, 1901). {1BC 1107.5}

The covenant that God made with His people at Sinai is to be our refuge and defense....This covenant is of just as much force today as it was when the Lord made it with ancient Israel. {AG 142.2}

[Ex 19:7, 8 quoted, which includes, All that the Lord hath spoken we will do] This is the pledge that God's people are to make in these last days. Their acceptance with God depends on a faithful fulfillment of the terms of their agreement with Him. God includes in His covenant all who will obey Him. {1BC 1103.11}

Waggoner wrote, “The covenant from Sinai . . . consisted merely of the promise of the people to keep the law . . . it was simply a promise to make themselves righteous by their own works . . . He did not induce them to make that covenant at Sinai.”

Whereas Ellen wrote, “The covenant that God made with His people at Sinai is to be our refuge and defense . . . This covenant is of just as much force today as it was when the Lord made it with ancient Israel . . . “All that the Lord hath spoken we will do.” This is the pledge that God's people are to make in these last days.”

The OC was a necessary inconvenience. It was “contrary” (Col 2:14) to them in that it was a huge hassle to operate and observe day after day, year after year. But it was needful to remind the “prone to forget” Jews 1) just how bad sin is, 2) that sin and salvation cost the death of Jesus, and 3) the importance of trusting in Jesus to empower them to experience “righteousness and true holiness” (Eph 4:24).

But all those feasts and ceremonies were a big burden. They were tedious, costly, and time consuming. It was a form of “bondage” (Gal 4:24). They had to work like slaves to keep everything up and running right. It’s a good thing it all ended on the cross with Jesus. But we still need to work hard every day to remember what the OC stood for. In this sense it has "just as much force today" as it did back then. In its place, however, Jesus gave us the Communion Service, which is far less wearisome and far more rewarding.

The OC was, therefore, initiated, designed, and implemented by God to teach the Jews and us how to live in harmony with the conditions of the NC. It was never intended to replace the NC. “Now they were prepared to appreciate the blessings of the new covenant . . . If the Israelites had obeyed God's requirements, they would have been practical Christians. They would have been happy; for they would have been keeping God's ways, and not following the inclinations of their own natural hearts.” But Waggoner seems to have felt differently about it. On this point I disagree with him.

PS - You wrote, "I feel very strongly that several times we are playing either "here we go around the mulberry bush" and around and around, or "you cant catch me". Sorry for making you feel like we were playing childhood games. I hope my answer above was more satisfying. By the way, I am still interested in hearing what makes sense to you.
Posted By: Mountain Man

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 01/06/09 09:38 PM

Originally Posted By: Tom
T: No, this isn't true. They had a vast oral tradition, as I pointed out. This is what Moses wrote Job and the books of the Pentateuch from. Not all of the oral tradition was written down (also, much of what was written down was not part of the oral tradition, since it hadn't happened yet; e.g. the oral tradition did not contain the Exodus).

M: You would be hard pressed to prove your point, Tom.

T: You're not taking into account all this knowledge these super intelligent holy men had developed for centuries.

Insisting that people who lived before the Exodus had better reasons for keeping the Sabbath than what Moses wrote in Genesis 2:1-3 and Exodus 20:8-11 does not prove it, Tom. Please post a quote from the SOP that specifically says so, that is, that specifically says the people who lived before the Exodus had better reasons for keeping the Sabbath than what Moses wrote in Genesis 2:1-3 and Exodus 20:8-11. The quote you posted earlier was too generic to prove your point. It didn’t mention anything in particular, and it certainly didn’t say anything about why people kept the Sabbath.

Originally Posted By: Tom
M: So again, I need to ask, Are you saying that the obedience the Jews rendered in fulfilling the requirements of the OC was slavish?

T: Yes, it was slavish. God exclaimed, "If only these people had a heart to obey my law." They had the law written on stone, but not in the heart.

Ellen wrote, “Now they were prepared to appreciate the blessings of the new covenant . . . If the Israelites had obeyed God's requirements, they would have been practical Christians. They would have been happy; for they would have been keeping God's ways, and not following the inclinations of their own natural hearts.”

She also wrote, “The covenant that God made with His people at Sinai is to be our refuge and defense . . . This covenant is of just as much force today as it was when the Lord made it with ancient Israel . . . “All that the Lord hath spoken we will do.” This is the pledge that God's people are to make in these last days.”

How do you reconcile what you wrote with what she wrote?

Originally Posted By: Tom
Since EGW said Waggoner's teaching on the Covenants was as clear as sunlight, and "truth," we can quote it, can't we?

Please read what I wrote above to Teresaq about it. Thank you.
Posted By: Mountain Man

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 01/06/09 09:40 PM

Tom, please address #107085 and #107087 above on this thread. Thank you.
Posted By: Tom

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 01/06/09 11:04 PM

I didn't understand your questions in 107085. Following is 107087.

Quote:
Found this interesting quote:

He [Ellen White's angelic guide] stretched out his arms toward Dr. Waggoner and to you, Elder Butler, and said in substance as follows: "Neither have all the light upon the law, neither position is perfect. 'Light is sown for the righteous, and gladness for the upright in heart' (Psalm 97:11). There are hundreds that know not why they believe the doctrines they do."--Letter 21, 1888, pp. 6,7. (To G. I. Butler, October 14, 1888.) {9MR 218.1}

Tom, you seem to think Waggoner got it all right, whereas the angel told Ellen that his position was not perfect, that it was lacking light. How do you reconcile the contradiction?


I responded to this. The letter was written before the 1888 GC session. From that session on Ellen White was clear that God had given Waggoner a message, and that rejecting that message was rejecting Christ, and many other strong endorsements. For example:

Quote:
Would greater evidence, more powerful manifestations, break down the barriers that have been interposed between the truth and the soul?--No. I have been shown that sufficient evidence has been given. Those who reject the evidence already presented would not be convinced by more abundant proof. They are like the Jews to whom Christ said, "If they hear not Moses and the prophets, neither will they be persuaded, though one rose from the dead." The greatest miracles performed before them would not sweep away their caviling and unbelief. They have sown stubbornness, and it has borne fruit according to the design of Satan. Unless the transforming grace of Christ cleanses and purifies the soul, they will go on from darkness to greater darkness. (1888 Mat. 1057)


Quote:
The manner in which the Pharisees sought to evade the truth, and to turn the attention of the people away from vital lessons,--by starting questions that did not bear upon the subject,--is one in which the opposers of truth in all ages have taken refuge. Satan, who is proficient in all manner of arts for the resisting of truth, suggests to his agents plans whereby they may reject the counsel of God against themselves. He incites the opposers of truth to start false issues, to discuss questions that are not to the point, in order that those who are convicted and half convinced, may be turned aside from their investigation and acceptance of truth. Ever since the days of Christ there have been men whose attitude toward truth has said, "Depart from me, O God. I want not thy way, but my own way." (1888 Mat. 1061)


Quote:
My brother, why do you cherish such bitterness against Elder A.T. Jones and Elder Waggoner? It is for the same reason Cain hated Abel. Cain refused to heed the instruction of God, and because Abel sought God, and followed His will, Cain killed him. God has given Brother Jones and Brother Waggoner a message for the people. You do not believe that God has upheld them, but He has given them precious light, and their message has fed the people of God. When you reject the message borne by these men, you reject Christ, the Giver of the message.(1888 Mat. 1353)
Posted By: Tom

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 01/06/09 11:07 PM

MM, regarding your #107210, if your analysis were correct, then Waggoner's position would have been neither as clear as sunlight, not "truth." So I don't see how this analysis could be correct, unless Ellen White was incorrect in her assessment of Waggoner's view on the covenants. That is, your assessment and hers look to be diametrically opposed; both of you can't be right.
Posted By: Tom

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 01/06/09 11:26 PM

Quote:
Insisting that people who lived before the Exodus had better reasons for keeping the Sabbath than what Moses wrote in Genesis 2:1-3 and Exodus 20:8-11 does not prove it, Tom. Please post a quote from the SOP that specifically says so, that is, that specifically says the people who lived before the Exodus had better reasons for keeping the Sabbath than what Moses wrote in Genesis 2:1-3 and Exodus 20:8-11. The quote you posted earlier was too generic to prove your point. It didn’t mention anything in particular, and it certainly didn’t say anything about why people kept the Sabbath.


I never asserted that had better reasons for keep the Sabbath. Is it not possible for you to assert something or ask something that corresponds to something I actually wrote? Why don't you do what I suggest and quote something I wrote?

Moving on. Why don't you quote something from the SOP which says that the COI had no reason for keeping the Sabbath other than the passages in Genesis or Exodus? If you have to quote something from the SOP to establish truth, that applies to you as much as to me.

What I have said is that the knowledge of the COI was not limited to what Moses wrote. There was a vast oral tradition, and anyone who knows something about how the cannon was formed knows this. It is not necessary to establish every bit of common knowledge from the SOP. This is like asking, "How do you know 2 + 2 = 4 ? Can you produce a quote from the SOP?"

The quote I provided establishes that there was a great degree of knowledge developed and passed along by very intelligent men who studied for centuries. Do you think the Sabbath would have been of no interest to them?

Quote:
Ellen wrote, “Now they were prepared to appreciate the blessings of the new covenant . . . If the Israelites had obeyed God's requirements, they would have been practical Christians. They would have been happy; for they would have been keeping God's ways, and not following the inclinations of their own natural hearts.”

She also wrote, “The covenant that God made with His people at Sinai is to be our refuge and defense . . . This covenant is of just as much force today as it was when the Lord made it with ancient Israel . . . “All that the Lord hath spoken we will do.” This is the pledge that God's people are to make in these last days.”

How do you reconcile what you wrote with what she wrote?



In PP she says:

Quote:
The same law that was engraved upon the tables of stone is written by the Holy Spirit upon the tables of the heart. (PP 372)


Obedience involved this. That is, the law cannot be obeyed if it is not written in the heart. If the law were written in their heart, they would not be following the inclinations of their unregenerated heart. Understanding that obedience involves obedience from the heart explains the first paragraph.

Regarding the Second, there is only one Covenant under which one may be saved, which is the Everlasting Covenant. This is the Covenant which God proposed to Israel. Regarding the statement, "All that the Lord has said, we will do" there is nothing necessarily wrong with these words or the sentiment behind these words. The COI did not have a heart to keep God's law, but made this statement in unbelief. That was their problem, and why they came under bondage. Had they responded in faith, the law would have been written in their heart, and they would have been under the Everlasting Covenant (also known as the "New Covenant") which is the only one under which a person can be saved. Saying the words "All that the Lord has said, we will do" in faith is what she had in mind for God's people.
Posted By: Mountain Man

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 01/08/09 04:18 AM

Originally Posted By: Tom
I didn't understand your questions in 107085.

Here it is again:

Quote:
T: Here are some statements which deal with the importance of faith based on evidence. How Jesus proceeded on the road to Emmaus is a good example. He didn't just tell them the truth, so that they would believe it "because I said so," but explained things from Scripture, so their faith would be based on evidence, reason and understanding. The last statement discusses what happens when people do things because "God said so," without understanding why.

M: Which scriptures did Jesus quote which contain more information than a mere "Thus saith the Lord"? Also, where in the Pentateuch did Moses explain that the animal sacrifices symbolize the future sacrifice of the Son of God?

Do we have any record of any additional reasons Jesus gave the guys on the road to Emmaus for believing the passages He quoted to them from the OT? Or, do those passages already contain enough reasons for believing them that to do so would not require slavish obedience? I ask this question because it seems like you are saying Jesus quoted from the OT to prove that what He was telling them is true, that between His word and the quotes from the OT He gave additional reasons to believe Him and the OT quotes, that by themselves not enough evidence existed to render intelligent obedience.

Also, where in the Pentateuch did Moses explain that the animal sacrifices symbolize the future sacrifice of the Son of God?
Posted By: Mountain Man

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 01/08/09 04:26 AM

Originally Posted By: Tom
From that session on Ellen White was clear that God had given Waggoner a message, and that rejecting that message was rejecting Christ, and many other strong endorsements.

Yes, Ellen very clearly endorsed whatever Waggoner was preaching about at the time. Do know precisely what it was that she so wholeheartedly endorsed? I read through the Ten Truths on that link you posted (don't know where) but didn't find anything all that startling. I do remember having concerns regarding several things. Do you know where that post of mine is?
Posted By: Mountain Man

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 01/08/09 05:44 AM

Originally Posted By: Tom
M: You didn't answer my question. Here it is again: Do these verses require "slavish" obedience since they do not contain "better" reasons why God commands people to rest on the seventh day? NOTE: The passage in Genesis is the only thing people had for 2500 years.

T: No it's not. I don't know why you would think this. There was a vast oral tradition, a part of which was included in the books of Moses, which include Job, as well as the Pentateuch. Your assumption that this is all they had is incorrect. You're insisting all they had was Gen. 2:1-3. I'm pointing out this isn't the case. It's an oral tradition, MM, not a written one.

M: Insisting that people who lived before the Exodus had better reasons for keeping the Sabbath than what Moses wrote in Genesis 2:1-3 and Exodus 20:8-11 does not prove it, Tom. Please post a quote from the SOP that specifically says so, that is, that specifically says the people who lived before the Exodus had better reasons for keeping the Sabbath than what Moses wrote in Genesis 2:1-3 and Exodus 20:8-11. The quote you posted earlier was too generic to prove your point. It didn’t mention anything in particular, and it certainly didn’t say anything about why people kept the Sabbath.

T: I never asserted they had better reasons for keeping the Sabbath. Is it not possible for you to assert something or ask something that corresponds to something I actually wrote? Why don't you do what I suggest and quote something I wrote? The quote I provided establishes that there was a great degree of knowledge developed and passed along by very intelligent men who studied for centuries. Do you think the Sabbath would have been of no interest to them?

I included in the box above everything you said about it. As you can see, you said that through oral tradition they had more reasons for keeping the Sabbath than the one Moses recorded in Gen 2:1-3 and Ex 20:8-11.

Quote:
M: Ellen wrote, “Now they were prepared to appreciate the blessings of the new covenant . . . If the Israelites had obeyed God's requirements, they would have been practical Christians. They would have been happy; for they would have been keeping God's ways, and not following the inclinations of their own natural hearts.”

She also wrote, “The covenant that God made with His people at Sinai is to be our refuge and defense . . . This covenant is of just as much force today as it was when the Lord made it with ancient Israel . . . “All that the Lord hath spoken we will do.” This is the pledge that God's people are to make in these last days.”

How do you reconcile what you wrote with what she wrote?

T: In PP she says: “The same law that was engraved upon the tables of stone is written by the Holy Spirit upon the tables of the heart. (PP 372)

Obedience involved this. That is, the law cannot be obeyed if it is not written in the heart. If the law were written in their heart, they would not be following the inclinations of their unregenerated heart. Understanding that obedience involves obedience from the heart explains the first paragraph.

Regarding the Second, there is only one Covenant under which one may be saved, which is the Everlasting Covenant. This is the Covenant which God proposed to Israel. Regarding the statement, "All that the Lord has said, we will do" there is nothing necessarily wrong with these words or the sentiment behind these words. The COI did not have a heart to keep God's law, but made this statement in unbelief. That was their problem, and why they came under bondage. Had they responded in faith, the law would have been written in their heart, and they would have been under the Everlasting Covenant (also known as the "New Covenant") which is the only one under which a person can be saved. Saying the words "All that the Lord has said, we will do" in faith is what she had in mind for God's people.

Regarding my first paragraph, it seems like you are agreeing with me that the Jews were able to experience the blessings of the NC while also obeying and observing the OC rules and rites, that it wasn’t an obstacle.

Regarding my second paragraph, it seems like you are saying she is referring to the EC/NC and not to the OC. However, here is what she said about it:

Quote:
God's favor toward Israel had always been conditional on their obedience. At the foot of Sinai they had entered into covenant relationship with Him as His "peculiar treasure. . . above all people." Solemnly they had promised to follow in the path of obedience. "All that the Lord hath spoken we will do," they had said. Exodus 19:5, 8. And when, a few days afterward, God's law was spoken from Sinai, and additional instruction in the form of statutes and judgments was communicated through Moses, the Israelites with one voice had again promised, "All the words which the Lord hath said will we do." At the ratification of the covenant, the people had once more united in declaring, "All that the Lord hath said will we do, and be obedient," Exodus 24:3, 7. God had chosen Israel as His people, and they had chosen Him as their King. {PK 293.1}

Preparation was now made for the ratification of the covenant, according to God's directions. . . . {1BC 1107.2}

Here the people received the conditions of the covenant. They made a solemn covenant with God, typifying the covenant made between God and every believer in Jesus Christ. The conditions were plainly laid before the people. They were not left to misunderstand them. When they were requested to decide whether they would agree to all the conditions given, they unanimously consented to obey every obligation. They had already consented to obey God's commandments. The principles of the law were now particularized, that they might know how much was involved in covenanting to obey the law; and they accepted the specifically defined particulars of the law. {1BC 1107.3}

If the Israelites had obeyed God's requirements, they would have been practical Christians. They would have been happy; for they would have been keeping God's ways, and not following the inclinations of their own natural hearts. Moses did not leave them to misconstrue the words of the Lord or to misapply His requirements. He wrote all the words of the Lord in a book, that they might be referred to afterward. In the mount he had written them as Christ Himself dictated them. {1BC 1107.4}

Bravely did the Israelites speak the words promising obedience to the Lord, after hearing His covenant read in the audience of the people. They said, "All that the Lord hath said will we do, and be obedient." Then the people were set apart and sealed to God. A sacrifice was offered to the Lord. A portion of the blood of the sacrifice was sprinkled upon the altar. This signified that the people had consecrated themselves--body, mind, and soul--to God. A portion was sprinkled upon the people. This signified that through the sprinkled blood of Christ, God graciously accepted them as His special treasure. Thus the Israelites entered into a solemn covenant with God (MS 126, 1901). {1BC 1107.5}

The covenant that God made with His people at Sinai is to be our refuge and defense....This covenant is of just as much force today as it was when the Lord made it with ancient Israel. {AG 142.2}

[Ex 19:7, 8 quoted, which includes, All that the Lord hath spoken we will do] This is the pledge that God's people are to make in these last days. Their acceptance with God depends on a faithful fulfillment of the terms of their agreement with Him. God includes in His covenant all who will obey Him. {1BC 1103.11}

You wrote, “Had they responded in faith, the law would have been written in their heart, and they would have been under the Everlasting Covenant (also known as the "New Covenant") which is the only one under which a person can be saved.”

But don’t you also believe the Jews were required to obey and observe the OC rules and rites while also enjoying the blessings of the EC/NC? And, in fact, wasn’t their salvation, in part, conditional on obeying and observing the OC rules and rites? That is, it wasn’t optional, right? As such, how was this any different than it is nowadays under the EC/NC?
Posted By: Tom

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 01/08/09 10:23 AM

Quote:
M:I included in the box above everything you said about it. As you can see, you said that through oral tradition they had more reasons for keeping the Sabbath than the one Moses recorded in Gen 2:1-3 and Ex 20:8-11.


What you asserted was I said they had "better reasons." Here's what you said:

Quote:
Insisting that people who lived before the Exodus had better reasons for keeping the Sabbath than what Moses wrote in Genesis 2:1-3 and Exodus 20:8-11 does not prove it, Tom. Please post a quote from the SOP that specifically says so, that is, that specifically says the people who lived before the Exodus had better reasons for keeping the Sabbath than what Moses wrote in Genesis 2:1-3 and Exodus 20:8-11.


Here you wrote "more reasons" instead of "better reasons." In regards to what you actually claimed, that I was "insisting" that they had "better reasons" I responded, "I never asserted they had better reasons for keeping the Sabbath." As you can see from what you quoted, what you asserted is wrong; indeed, I did not assert they had "better reasons."

Quote:
Regarding my first paragraph, it seems like you are agreeing with me that the Jews were able to experience the blessings of the NC while also obeying and observing the OC rules and rites, that it wasn’t an obstacle.


I didn't discuss this.

Quote:
Regarding my second paragraph, it seems like you are saying she is referring to the EC/NC and not to the OC.


She wrote that salvation is only found under the Everlasting Covenant. Paul wrote that the OC "gendereth to bondage." EGW contrasted the OC with the NC in the PP passage stating that in the NC the law was written in the tables of the heart as opposed to on tables of stone. Also that instead of seeking to establish our own righteousness, the OC, we accept the righteousness of Christ (NC). Seeking to establish our own righteousness characterizes the OC, as EGW points out.

Quote:
The same law that was engraved upon the tables of stone is written by the Holy Spirit upon the tables of the heart. Instead of going about to establish our own righteousness we accept the righteousness of Christ. His blood atones for our sins.(PP 372)


As she points out, the NC was established under better promises, which included the forgiveness of sins, in addition to having the law written in the heart.

Quote:
The "new covenant" was established upon "better promises"--the promise of forgiveness of sins and of the grace of God to renew the heart and bring it into harmony with the principles of God's law. (ibid.)


Since the OC did not have these things, it could do no other but lead to bondage, as Paul stated.

Regarding the rest of the post, I think there's a confusion in regards to the ceremonial law, which was a celebration of the Gospel promises in Christ, and the OC. The OC should be contrasted with the NC, in the terms that EGW laid out:

1.OC = law on stove vs. NC = law in heart.
2.OC = seeking to establish one's own righteousness vs. NC = accept righteousness of Christ.
3.OC = no forgiveness vs. NC = forgiveness of sins.
4.OC = bondage vs. NC = liberty.
5.OC = lost vs. NC = salvation (salvation only under EC)

These highlight the difference between the OC and the NC. A simple way of looking at this is OC = bad; NC = good. So if inspiration speaks of something good in responds to a covenant, it has the covenant which God originated, the good one, the everlasting covenant, the only one which confers salvation, in mind. We have no need to be under a covenant under which there is no salvation.
Posted By: Tom

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 01/08/09 10:53 AM

Quote:
Do we have any record of any additional reasons Jesus gave the guys on the road to Emmaus for believing the passages He quoted to them from the OT?


Additional reasons? Here's what I wrote:

Quote:
T: Here are some statements which deal with the importance of faith based on evidence. How Jesus proceeded on the road to Emmaus is a good example. He didn't just tell them the truth, so that they not would believe it "because I said so," but explained things from Scripture, so their faith would be based on evidence, reason and understanding. The last statement discusses what happens when people do things because "God said so," without understanding why.


Your question doesn't seem responsive to what I intended to say. Nor the rest of what you wrote after this. It seems you didn't understand what I was saying. In looking at this, I notice I missed a "not" (underlined above), so that may have confused you. Please reread what I wrote, with the "not" in place, and see if that makes more sense. Sorry for any confusion.

Quote:
Also, where in the Pentateuch did Moses explain that the animal sacrifices symbolize the future sacrifice of the Son of God?


Why are you asking this? When you ask these rhetorical questions, obviously you have some point in mind. Why not just make the point?

Quote:
Yes, Ellen very clearly endorsed whatever Waggoner was preaching about at the time. Do know precisely what it was that she so wholeheartedly endorsed? I read through the Ten Truths on that link you posted (don't know where) but didn't find anything all that startling. I do remember having concerns regarding several things. Do you know where that post of mine is?


No, I don't know where your post is, but I know where the "Ten Truths" is: http://www.gospel-herald.com/10truths/ten_truths.htm

By the way, if you google "Ten Truths 1888," this comes right up, so if you forget where this is, but can remember to google, you can find it again.

Regarding what they were preaching at the time, while things like the "Ten Truths" are helpful for discussing things, the best was of ascertaining what they were saying is simply to read it from their own pens. The following site has many writings from Jones and Waggoner: http://www.crcbermuda.com/bible/righteousness-by-faith/christ-and-his-righteousness

There's a menu option on top called "Bible" and then you can choose "Righteousness by Faith," which has many things which they wrote to look at. If you're interested in what was presented at the 1888 GC session, "Christ and His Righteousness" would be a good thing to look at.

I wouldn't look for something "startling" however. Rather, look for principles of truth. In particular, what Colin suggested was foundational, is a good thing to look for.
Posted By: teresaq

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 01/09/09 12:02 AM

Originally Posted By: Mountain Man
Originally Posted By: Teresaq
M: I see harmony in her statements. Do you see harmony in them? And, do you see harmony between Ellen and Elliot?

t: so, youre saying that this glad tidings quote, in essence is not saying the same thing as egw in pp? that the quotes you provided cancel out the glad tidings quotes, but not her other statements in the pp?

Yes and no. Yes, I believe all the quotes I posted agree with the PP quote you posted. And, no, I didn't say one way or another if her statements agree with Waggoner's statements in the Glad Tidings quote that was posted. I was interested in what you think. You expressed your opinion about it when you wrote, The PP quote “backs up the quote from glad tidings”. I was merely hoping you would elaborate on how and why. At any rate, here's what I think about it.

Here’s the Glad Tidings quote:

Quote:
The Glad Tidings

What are the two covenants?--The two women, Hagar and Sarah; for we read that Hagar is Mount Sinai, "which gendereth to bondage." That is, just as Hagar could not bring forth any other kind of children than slaves, so the law, even the law that God spoke from Sinai, can not beget freemen. It can do nothing but hold them in bondage. "The law worketh wrath:" "for by the law is the knowledge of sin." The same is true of the covenant from Sinai, for it consisted merely of the promise of the people to keep that law, and had, therefore, no more power to make them free than the law itself had,--no more power than they already had in their bondage. Nay, rather, it "gendered to bondage," since their making it was simply a promise to make themselves righteous by their own works, and man in himself is "without strength."

Consider the situation: The people were in the bondage of sin; they had no power to break their chains; but the speaking of the law made no change in their condition; it introduced no new feature. If a man is in prison for crime, you can not release him by reading the statutes to him. It was the law that put him there, and the reading of it to him only makes his captivity more painful.

"Then did not God Himself lead them into bondage?"--Not by any means; since He did not induce them to make that covenant at Sinai. Four hundred and thirty years before that time He had made a covenant with Abraham, which was sufficient for all purposes. That covenant was confirmed in Christ, and, therefore, was a covenant from above. See John 8:23. It promised righteousness as a free gift of God through faith, and it included all nations. All the miracles that God had wrought in delivering the children of Israel from Egyptian bondage were but demonstrations of His power to deliver them and us from the bondage of sin. Yes, the deliverance from Egypt was itself a demonstration not only of God's power, but also of His desire to lead them from the bondage of sin, that bondage in which the covenant from Sinai holds men, because Hagar, who is the covenant from Sinai, was an Egyptian. So when the people came to Sinai, God simply referred them to what He had already done, and then said, "Now therefore, if ye will obey My voice indeed, and keep My covenant, then ye shall be a peculiar treasure unto Me above all people; for all the earth is Mine." Ex.19:5. To what covenant did He refer?--Evidently to the one already in existence, His covenant with Abraham. If they would simply keep God's covenant, that is, God's promise,--keep the faith,--they would be a peculiar treasure unto God, for God, as the possessor of all the earth, was able to do with them all that He had promised. The fact that they in their self-sufficiency rashly took the whole responsibility upon themselves, does not prove that God led them into making that covenant, but the contrary. He was leading them out of bondage, not into it, and the apostle plainly tells us that covenant from Sinai was nothing but bondage.

Here’s the Patriarchs and Prophets quote:

Quote:
Patriarchs and Prophets

Another compact--called in Scripture the "old" covenant--was formed between God and Israel at Sinai, and was then ratified by the blood of a sacrifice. The Abrahamic covenant was ratified by the blood of Christ, and it is called the "second," or "new," covenant, because the blood by which it was sealed was shed after the blood of the first covenant. That the new covenant was valid in the days of Abraham is evident from the fact that it was then confirmed both by the promise and by the oath of God--the "two immutable things, in which it was impossible for God to lie." Hebrews 6:18. {PP 371.1}

But if the Abrahamic covenant contained the promise of redemption, why was another covenant formed at Sinai? In their bondage the people had to a great extent lost the knowledge of God and of the principles of the Abrahamic covenant. In delivering them from Egypt, God sought to reveal to them His power and His mercy, that they might be led to love and trust Him. He brought them down to the Red Sea--where, pursued by the Egyptians, escape seemed impossible--that they might realize their utter helplessness, their need of divine aid; and then He wrought deliverance for them. Thus they were filled with love and gratitude to God and with confidence in His power to help them. He had bound them to Himself as their deliverer from temporal bondage. {PP 371.2}

But there was a still greater truth to be impressed upon their minds. Living in the midst of idolatry and corruption, they had no true conception of the holiness of God, of the exceeding sinfulness of their own hearts, their utter inability, in themselves, to render obedience to God's law, and their need of a Saviour. All this they must be taught. {PP 371.3}

God brought them to Sinai; He manifested His glory; He gave them His law, with the promise of great blessings on condition of obedience: "If ye will obey My voice indeed, and keep My covenant, then . . . ye shall be unto Me a kingdom of priests, and an holy nation." Exodus 19:5, 6. The people did not realize the sinfulness of their own hearts, and that without Christ it was impossible for them to keep God's law; and they readily entered into covenant with God. Feeling that they were able to establish their own righteousness, they declared, "All that the Lord hath said will we do, and be obedient." Exodus 24:7. They had witnessed the proclamation of the law in awful majesty, and had trembled with terror before the mount; and yet only a few weeks passed before they broke their covenant with God, and bowed down to worship a graven image. They could not hope for the favor of God through a covenant which they had broken; and now, seeing their sinfulness and their need of pardon, they were brought to feel their need of the Saviour revealed in the Abrahamic covenant and shadowed forth in the sacrificial offerings. Now by faith and love they were bound to God as their deliverer from the bondage of sin. Now they were prepared to appreciate the blessings of the new covenant. {PP 371.4}

The terms of the "old covenant" were, Obey and live: "If a man do, he shall even live in them" (Ezekiel 20:11; Leviticus 18:5); but "cursed be he that confirmeth not all the words of this law to do them." Deuteronomy 27:26. The "new covenant" was established upon "better promises"--the promise of forgiveness of sins and of the grace of God to renew the heart and bring it into harmony with the principles of God's law. "This shall be the covenant that I will make with the house of Israel; After those days, saith the Lord, I will put my law in their inward parts, and write it in their hearts. . . . I will forgive their iniquity, and will remember their sin no more." Jeremiah 31:33, 34. {PP 372.1}

The same law that was engraved upon the tables of stone is written by the Holy Spirit upon the tables of the heart. Instead of going about to establish our own righteousness we accept the righteousness of Christ. His blood atones for our sins. His obedience is accepted for us. Then the heart renewed by the Holy Spirit will bring forth "the fruits of the Spirit." Through the grace of Christ we shall live in obedience to the law of God written upon our hearts. Having the Spirit of Christ, we shall walk even as He walked. Through the prophet He declared of Himself, "I delight to do Thy will, O My God: yea, Thy law is within My heart." Psalm 40:8. And when among men He said, "The Father hath not left Me alone; for I do always those things that please Him." John 8:29. {PP 372.2}

The apostle Paul clearly presents the relation between faith and the law under the new covenant. He says: "Being justified by faith, we have peace with God through our Lord Jesus Christ." "Do we then make void the law through faith? God forbid: yea, we establish the law." "For what the law could not do, in that it was weak through the flesh"--it could not justify man, because in his sinful nature he could not keep the law--"God sending His own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh, and for sin, condemned sin in the flesh: that the righteousness of the law might be fulfilled in us, who walk not after the flesh, but after the Spirit." Romans 5:1; 3:31; 8:3, 4. {PP 373.1}

Here are the other quotes I posted:

Quote:
Assorted Quotes

God's favor toward Israel had always been conditional on their obedience. At the foot of Sinai they had entered into covenant relationship with Him as His "peculiar treasure. . . above all people." Solemnly they had promised to follow in the path of obedience. "All that the Lord hath spoken we will do," they had said. Exodus 19:5, 8. And when, a few days afterward, God's law was spoken from Sinai, and additional instruction in the form of statutes and judgments was communicated through Moses, the Israelites with one voice had again promised, "All the words which the Lord hath said will we do." At the ratification of the covenant, the people had once more united in declaring, "All that the Lord hath said will we do, and be obedient," Exodus 24:3, 7. God had chosen Israel as His people, and they had chosen Him as their King. {PK 293.1}

Preparation was now made for the ratification of the covenant, according to God's directions. . . . {1BC 1107.2}

Here the people received the conditions of the covenant. They made a solemn covenant with God, typifying the covenant made between God and every believer in Jesus Christ. The conditions were plainly laid before the people. They were not left to misunderstand them. When they were requested to decide whether they would agree to all the conditions given, they unanimously consented to obey every obligation. They had already consented to obey God's commandments. The principles of the law were now particularized, that they might know how much was involved in covenanting to obey the law; and they accepted the specifically defined particulars of the law. {1BC 1107.3}

If the Israelites had obeyed God's requirements, they would have been practical Christians. They would have been happy; for they would have been keeping God's ways, and not following the inclinations of their own natural hearts. Moses did not leave them to misconstrue the words of the Lord or to misapply His requirements. He wrote all the words of the Lord in a book, that they might be referred to afterward. In the mount he had written them as Christ Himself dictated them. {1BC 1107.4}

Bravely did the Israelites speak the words promising obedience to the Lord, after hearing His covenant read in the audience of the people. They said, "All that the Lord hath said will we do, and be obedient." Then the people were set apart and sealed to God. A sacrifice was offered to the Lord. A portion of the blood of the sacrifice was sprinkled upon the altar. This signified that the people had consecrated themselves--body, mind, and soul--to God. A portion was sprinkled upon the people. This signified that through the sprinkled blood of Christ, God graciously accepted them as His special treasure. Thus the Israelites entered into a solemn covenant with God (MS 126, 1901). {1BC 1107.5}

The covenant that God made with His people at Sinai is to be our refuge and defense....This covenant is of just as much force today as it was when the Lord made it with ancient Israel. {AG 142.2}

[Ex 19:7, 8 quoted, which includes, All that the Lord hath spoken we will do] This is the pledge that God's people are to make in these last days. Their acceptance with God depends on a faithful fulfillment of the terms of their agreement with Him. God includes in His covenant all who will obey Him. {1BC 1103.11}

Waggoner wrote, “The covenant from Sinai . . . consisted merely of the promise of the people to keep the law . . . it was simply a promise to make themselves righteous by their own works . . . He did not induce them to make that covenant at Sinai.”

Whereas Ellen wrote, “The covenant that God made with His people at Sinai is to be our refuge and defense . . . This covenant is of just as much force today as it was when the Lord made it with ancient Israel . . . “All that the Lord hath spoken we will do.” This is the pledge that God's people are to make in these last days.”

The OC was a necessary inconvenience. It was “contrary” (Col 2:14) to them in that it was a huge hassle to operate and observe day after day, year after year. But it was needful to remind the “prone to forget” Jews 1) just how bad sin is, 2) that sin and salvation cost the death of Jesus, and 3) the importance of trusting in Jesus to empower them to experience “righteousness and true holiness” (Eph 4:24).

But all those feasts and ceremonies were a big burden. They were tedious, costly, and time consuming. It was a form of “bondage” (Gal 4:24). They had to work like slaves to keep everything up and running right. It’s a good thing it all ended on the cross with Jesus. But we still need to work hard every day to remember what the OC stood for. In this sense it has "just as much force today" as it did back then. In its place, however, Jesus gave us the Communion Service, which is far less wearisome and far more rewarding.

The OC was, therefore, initiated, designed, and implemented by God to teach the Jews and us how to live in harmony with the conditions of the NC. It was never intended to replace the NC. “Now they were prepared to appreciate the blessings of the new covenant . . . If the Israelites had obeyed God's requirements, they would have been practical Christians. They would have been happy; for they would have been keeping God's ways, and not following the inclinations of their own natural hearts.” But Waggoner seems to have felt differently about it. On this point I disagree with him.


Quote:
Php 2:13 For it is God which worketh in you both to will and to do of his good pleasure.

...The good works of the believer are wrought through the human agent by Christ himself. They are doers of the words of Christ, and will not only impart blessings of the highest order to others, but as they render implicit obedience to Christ, they represent his character, and bring joy to the heart of Christ, and to all the holy ones of heaven. {SSW, July 1, 1894 par. 6}

....While it is God that works in us to will and to do of his own good pleasure, we are to co-operate with him while he works through us. We must guard against lifting up our souls in self-esteem. But you will say, How am I to know that Christ is in my heart? If, when you are criticised or corrected in your way, and things do not go just as you think they ought to go,--if then you let your passion arise instead of bearing the correction and being patient and kind, Christ is not abiding in the heart. {RH, July 12, 1887 par. 9}
Posted By: Mountain Man

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 01/11/09 07:34 PM

Originally Posted By: Tom
M: Insisting that people who lived before the Exodus had better reasons for keeping the Sabbath than what Moses wrote in Genesis 2:1-3 and Exodus 20:8-11 does not prove it, Tom. Please post a quote from the SOP that specifically says so, that is, that specifically says the people who lived before the Exodus had better reasons for keeping the Sabbath than what Moses wrote in Genesis 2:1-3 and Exodus 20:8-11.

T: Here you wrote "more reasons" instead of "better reasons." In regards to what you actually claimed, that I was "insisting" that they had "better reasons" I responded, "I never asserted they had better reasons for keeping the Sabbath." As you can see from what you quoted, what you asserted is wrong; indeed, I did not assert they had "better reasons."

Ugh! Time to pull teeth . . . again. You’re going to feel a little tug, Mr. Ewall, but you won’t feel any pain. Trust me. Open wide. Enough of being silly. Let’s back up and start over. I believe Gen 3:1-3 and Ex 20:8-11 give as reason for keeping the Sabbath the fact God rested on that day. This reason is sufficient to trust and obey God intelligently rather than slavishly. No other reasons are needed. Do you agree?

Originally Posted By: Tom
Regarding the rest of the post, I think there's a confusion in regards to the ceremonial law, which was a celebration of the Gospel promises in Christ, and the OC.

Are you saying the rules and rites associated with the daily and annual feasts and ceremonies are a part of the NC and not the OC? What about everything else God told Moses? Do you also think the civil laws fall under the NC? What about the dietary, sanitary, and judicial laws?

Ellen said the reason God gave Moses such minute “additional precepts” was so that the Jews “need not err”. They “applied” and “simplified” the principles of the Ten Commandments in a way that their dull and desensitized minds could grasp the full extent and meaning of the law. Listen:

Quote:
That the obligations of the Decalogue might be more fully understood and enforced, additional precepts were given, illustrating and applying the principles of the Ten Commandments. {PP 310.1}

These laws were to be recorded by Moses, and carefully treasured as the foundation of the national law, and, with the ten precepts which they were given to illustrate, the condition of the fulfillment of God's promises to Israel. {PP 311.3}

The definite directions which the Lord gave to Moses in regard to the duty of His people to one another, and to the stranger, are the principles of the Ten Commandments simplified and given in a definite manner, that they need not err. {SR 149.1}

Did obeying any of these “additional precepts” engender bondage? If not, which precepts do you think engendered bondage, which “was contrary” to the Jews? Of everything God commanded Moses in addition to the Ten Commandments, what do you think engendered bondage? Please state your position in your own words. Thank you.
Posted By: Mountain Man

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 01/11/09 08:57 PM

Originally Posted By: Tom
He didn't just tell them [on the road to Emmaus] the truth, so that they not would believe it "because I said so," but explained things from Scripture, so their faith would be based on evidence, reason and understanding.

Please reread what I wrote, with the "not" in place, and see if that makes more sense. Sorry for any confusion.

The placement of the underlined “not” seems awkward. I suspect you are trying to convey the idea that Jesus explained the truth to them from the Bible so that their faith could be based on evidence, reason, and understanding - as opposed to them believing it based solely on His word. IOW, He didn’t expect them to believe the truth simply because He said so. He proved it from the Bible.

If this is what you are saying, then my question still stands, namely, what did the passages Jesus quoted to them say that constitute more than a “Thus saith the Lord”? They only describe who, what, when, and where. They do not explain why. If you think otherwise, please prove it. Post one of the passages Jesus might have quoted that explains why He had to become a man and die on the cross.

Did Moses explain why? Also, where does Moses say the animal sacrifices symbolize the death of the Son of God?

Originally Posted By: Tom
M: Yes, Ellen very clearly endorsed whatever Waggoner was preaching about at the time. Do know precisely what it was that she so wholeheartedly endorsed? I read through the Ten Truths on that link you posted (don't know where) but didn't find anything all that startling. I do remember having concerns regarding several things. Do you know where that post of mine is?

T: No, I don't know where your post is. I wouldn't look for something "startling" however. Rather, look for principles of truth. In particular, what Colin suggested was foundational, is a good thing to look for.

Did Waggoner say anything that I cannot find clearly spelled out in SC or FW? When I went through the Ten Truths link I found myself questioning several key points. Here they are again:

1. I do not agree that Jesus died the second death. He “tasted” and consumed and conquered it. Satan is the one who will die our second death with our sins.

2. I do not agree sinners must resist Jesus’ love to be lost. I believe sinners are already lost and must do something to be saved, namely, embrace Jesus.

4. I do not think lost sheep are lost because they made a conscious decision to be lost based on their misunderstanding of God’s character. They are lost because they know not God. Most do not understand why they are lost.

6. I do not agree that the NC is a one-way promise. It is conditional upon our consent and cooperation. Ellen wrote, “All that the Lord hath spoken we will do. This is the pledge that God's people are to make in these last days.”

9. I prefer “faith that works by love and purifies the soul” as a definition of genuine faith. This kind of faith makes both justification and sanctification realities in the life.
Posted By: Mountain Man

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 01/11/09 09:06 PM

Originally Posted By: teresaq
Originally Posted By: Mountain Man
Originally Posted By: Teresaq
M: I see harmony in her statements. Do you see harmony in them? And, do you see harmony between Ellen and Elliot?

t: so, youre saying that this glad tidings quote, in essence is not saying the same thing as egw in pp? that the quotes you provided cancel out the glad tidings quotes, but not her other statements in the pp?

Yes and no. Yes, I believe all the quotes I posted agree with the PP quote you posted. And, no, I didn't say one way or another if her statements agree with Waggoner's statements in the Glad Tidings quote that was posted. I was interested in what you think. You expressed your opinion about it when you wrote, The PP quote “backs up the quote from glad tidings”. I was merely hoping you would elaborate on how and why. At any rate, here's what I think about it.

Here’s the Glad Tidings quote:

Quote:
The Glad Tidings

What are the two covenants?--The two women, Hagar and Sarah; for we read that Hagar is Mount Sinai, "which gendereth to bondage." That is, just as Hagar could not bring forth any other kind of children than slaves, so the law, even the law that God spoke from Sinai, can not beget freemen. It can do nothing but hold them in bondage. "The law worketh wrath:" "for by the law is the knowledge of sin." The same is true of the covenant from Sinai, for it consisted merely of the promise of the people to keep that law, and had, therefore, no more power to make them free than the law itself had,--no more power than they already had in their bondage. Nay, rather, it "gendered to bondage," since their making it was simply a promise to make themselves righteous by their own works, and man in himself is "without strength."

Consider the situation: The people were in the bondage of sin; they had no power to break their chains; but the speaking of the law made no change in their condition; it introduced no new feature. If a man is in prison for crime, you can not release him by reading the statutes to him. It was the law that put him there, and the reading of it to him only makes his captivity more painful.

"Then did not God Himself lead them into bondage?"--Not by any means; since He did not induce them to make that covenant at Sinai. Four hundred and thirty years before that time He had made a covenant with Abraham, which was sufficient for all purposes. That covenant was confirmed in Christ, and, therefore, was a covenant from above. See John 8:23. It promised righteousness as a free gift of God through faith, and it included all nations. All the miracles that God had wrought in delivering the children of Israel from Egyptian bondage were but demonstrations of His power to deliver them and us from the bondage of sin. Yes, the deliverance from Egypt was itself a demonstration not only of God's power, but also of His desire to lead them from the bondage of sin, that bondage in which the covenant from Sinai holds men, because Hagar, who is the covenant from Sinai, was an Egyptian. So when the people came to Sinai, God simply referred them to what He had already done, and then said, "Now therefore, if ye will obey My voice indeed, and keep My covenant, then ye shall be a peculiar treasure unto Me above all people; for all the earth is Mine." Ex.19:5. To what covenant did He refer?--Evidently to the one already in existence, His covenant with Abraham. If they would simply keep God's covenant, that is, God's promise,--keep the faith,--they would be a peculiar treasure unto God, for God, as the possessor of all the earth, was able to do with them all that He had promised. The fact that they in their self-sufficiency rashly took the whole responsibility upon themselves, does not prove that God led them into making that covenant, but the contrary. He was leading them out of bondage, not into it, and the apostle plainly tells us that covenant from Sinai was nothing but bondage.

Here’s the Patriarchs and Prophets quote:

Quote:
Patriarchs and Prophets

Another compact--called in Scripture the "old" covenant--was formed between God and Israel at Sinai, and was then ratified by the blood of a sacrifice. The Abrahamic covenant was ratified by the blood of Christ, and it is called the "second," or "new," covenant, because the blood by which it was sealed was shed after the blood of the first covenant. That the new covenant was valid in the days of Abraham is evident from the fact that it was then confirmed both by the promise and by the oath of God--the "two immutable things, in which it was impossible for God to lie." Hebrews 6:18. {PP 371.1}

But if the Abrahamic covenant contained the promise of redemption, why was another covenant formed at Sinai? In their bondage the people had to a great extent lost the knowledge of God and of the principles of the Abrahamic covenant. In delivering them from Egypt, God sought to reveal to them His power and His mercy, that they might be led to love and trust Him. He brought them down to the Red Sea--where, pursued by the Egyptians, escape seemed impossible--that they might realize their utter helplessness, their need of divine aid; and then He wrought deliverance for them. Thus they were filled with love and gratitude to God and with confidence in His power to help them. He had bound them to Himself as their deliverer from temporal bondage. {PP 371.2}

But there was a still greater truth to be impressed upon their minds. Living in the midst of idolatry and corruption, they had no true conception of the holiness of God, of the exceeding sinfulness of their own hearts, their utter inability, in themselves, to render obedience to God's law, and their need of a Saviour. All this they must be taught. {PP 371.3}

God brought them to Sinai; He manifested His glory; He gave them His law, with the promise of great blessings on condition of obedience: "If ye will obey My voice indeed, and keep My covenant, then . . . ye shall be unto Me a kingdom of priests, and an holy nation." Exodus 19:5, 6. The people did not realize the sinfulness of their own hearts, and that without Christ it was impossible for them to keep God's law; and they readily entered into covenant with God. Feeling that they were able to establish their own righteousness, they declared, "All that the Lord hath said will we do, and be obedient." Exodus 24:7. They had witnessed the proclamation of the law in awful majesty, and had trembled with terror before the mount; and yet only a few weeks passed before they broke their covenant with God, and bowed down to worship a graven image. They could not hope for the favor of God through a covenant which they had broken; and now, seeing their sinfulness and their need of pardon, they were brought to feel their need of the Saviour revealed in the Abrahamic covenant and shadowed forth in the sacrificial offerings. Now by faith and love they were bound to God as their deliverer from the bondage of sin. Now they were prepared to appreciate the blessings of the new covenant. {PP 371.4}

The terms of the "old covenant" were, Obey and live: "If a man do, he shall even live in them" (Ezekiel 20:11; Leviticus 18:5); but "cursed be he that confirmeth not all the words of this law to do them." Deuteronomy 27:26. The "new covenant" was established upon "better promises"--the promise of forgiveness of sins and of the grace of God to renew the heart and bring it into harmony with the principles of God's law. "This shall be the covenant that I will make with the house of Israel; After those days, saith the Lord, I will put my law in their inward parts, and write it in their hearts. . . . I will forgive their iniquity, and will remember their sin no more." Jeremiah 31:33, 34. {PP 372.1}

The same law that was engraved upon the tables of stone is written by the Holy Spirit upon the tables of the heart. Instead of going about to establish our own righteousness we accept the righteousness of Christ. His blood atones for our sins. His obedience is accepted for us. Then the heart renewed by the Holy Spirit will bring forth "the fruits of the Spirit." Through the grace of Christ we shall live in obedience to the law of God written upon our hearts. Having the Spirit of Christ, we shall walk even as He walked. Through the prophet He declared of Himself, "I delight to do Thy will, O My God: yea, Thy law is within My heart." Psalm 40:8. And when among men He said, "The Father hath not left Me alone; for I do always those things that please Him." John 8:29. {PP 372.2}

The apostle Paul clearly presents the relation between faith and the law under the new covenant. He says: "Being justified by faith, we have peace with God through our Lord Jesus Christ." "Do we then make void the law through faith? God forbid: yea, we establish the law." "For what the law could not do, in that it was weak through the flesh"--it could not justify man, because in his sinful nature he could not keep the law--"God sending His own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh, and for sin, condemned sin in the flesh: that the righteousness of the law might be fulfilled in us, who walk not after the flesh, but after the Spirit." Romans 5:1; 3:31; 8:3, 4. {PP 373.1}

Here are the other quotes I posted:

Quote:
Assorted Quotes

God's favor toward Israel had always been conditional on their obedience. At the foot of Sinai they had entered into covenant relationship with Him as His "peculiar treasure. . . above all people." Solemnly they had promised to follow in the path of obedience. "All that the Lord hath spoken we will do," they had said. Exodus 19:5, 8. And when, a few days afterward, God's law was spoken from Sinai, and additional instruction in the form of statutes and judgments was communicated through Moses, the Israelites with one voice had again promised, "All the words which the Lord hath said will we do." At the ratification of the covenant, the people had once more united in declaring, "All that the Lord hath said will we do, and be obedient," Exodus 24:3, 7. God had chosen Israel as His people, and they had chosen Him as their King. {PK 293.1}

Preparation was now made for the ratification of the covenant, according to God's directions. . . . {1BC 1107.2}

Here the people received the conditions of the covenant. They made a solemn covenant with God, typifying the covenant made between God and every believer in Jesus Christ. The conditions were plainly laid before the people. They were not left to misunderstand them. When they were requested to decide whether they would agree to all the conditions given, they unanimously consented to obey every obligation. They had already consented to obey God's commandments. The principles of the law were now particularized, that they might know how much was involved in covenanting to obey the law; and they accepted the specifically defined particulars of the law. {1BC 1107.3}

If the Israelites had obeyed God's requirements, they would have been practical Christians. They would have been happy; for they would have been keeping God's ways, and not following the inclinations of their own natural hearts. Moses did not leave them to misconstrue the words of the Lord or to misapply His requirements. He wrote all the words of the Lord in a book, that they might be referred to afterward. In the mount he had written them as Christ Himself dictated them. {1BC 1107.4}

Bravely did the Israelites speak the words promising obedience to the Lord, after hearing His covenant read in the audience of the people. They said, "All that the Lord hath said will we do, and be obedient." Then the people were set apart and sealed to God. A sacrifice was offered to the Lord. A portion of the blood of the sacrifice was sprinkled upon the altar. This signified that the people had consecrated themselves--body, mind, and soul--to God. A portion was sprinkled upon the people. This signified that through the sprinkled blood of Christ, God graciously accepted them as His special treasure. Thus the Israelites entered into a solemn covenant with God (MS 126, 1901). {1BC 1107.5}

The covenant that God made with His people at Sinai is to be our refuge and defense....This covenant is of just as much force today as it was when the Lord made it with ancient Israel. {AG 142.2}

[Ex 19:7, 8 quoted, which includes, All that the Lord hath spoken we will do] This is the pledge that God's people are to make in these last days. Their acceptance with God depends on a faithful fulfillment of the terms of their agreement with Him. God includes in His covenant all who will obey Him. {1BC 1103.11}

Waggoner wrote, “The covenant from Sinai . . . consisted merely of the promise of the people to keep the law . . . it was simply a promise to make themselves righteous by their own works . . . He did not induce them to make that covenant at Sinai.”

Whereas Ellen wrote, “The covenant that God made with His people at Sinai is to be our refuge and defense . . . This covenant is of just as much force today as it was when the Lord made it with ancient Israel . . . “All that the Lord hath spoken we will do.” This is the pledge that God's people are to make in these last days.”

The OC was a necessary inconvenience. It was “contrary” (Col 2:14) to them in that it was a huge hassle to operate and observe day after day, year after year. But it was needful to remind the “prone to forget” Jews 1) just how bad sin is, 2) that sin and salvation cost the death of Jesus, and 3) the importance of trusting in Jesus to empower them to experience “righteousness and true holiness” (Eph 4:24).

But all those feasts and ceremonies were a big burden. They were tedious, costly, and time consuming. It was a form of “bondage” (Gal 4:24). They had to work like slaves to keep everything up and running right. It’s a good thing it all ended on the cross with Jesus. But we still need to work hard every day to remember what the OC stood for. In this sense it has "just as much force today" as it did back then. In its place, however, Jesus gave us the Communion Service, which is far less wearisome and far more rewarding.

The OC was, therefore, initiated, designed, and implemented by God to teach the Jews and us how to live in harmony with the conditions of the NC. It was never intended to replace the NC. “Now they were prepared to appreciate the blessings of the new covenant . . . If the Israelites had obeyed God's requirements, they would have been practical Christians. They would have been happy; for they would have been keeping God's ways, and not following the inclinations of their own natural hearts.” But Waggoner seems to have felt differently about it. On this point I disagree with him.


Quote:
Php 2:13 For it is God which worketh in you both to will and to do of his good pleasure.

...The good works of the believer are wrought through the human agent by Christ himself. They are doers of the words of Christ, and will not only impart blessings of the highest order to others, but as they render implicit obedience to Christ, they represent his character, and bring joy to the heart of Christ, and to all the holy ones of heaven. {SSW, July 1, 1894 par. 6}

....While it is God that works in us to will and to do of his own good pleasure, we are to co-operate with him while he works through us. We must guard against lifting up our souls in self-esteem. But you will say, How am I to know that Christ is in my heart? If, when you are criticised or corrected in your way, and things do not go just as you think they ought to go,--if then you let your passion arise instead of bearing the correction and being patient and kind, Christ is not abiding in the heart. {RH, July 12, 1887 par. 9}

So, are you saying that this Glad Tidings quote, in essence is not saying the same thing as EGW in PP, that the quotes I provided cancel out the Glad Tidings quote, but not her other statements in the PP?
Posted By: teresaq

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 01/11/09 11:25 PM

people seem to read items differently. guess there isnt much that can be done about that. no sense arguing over it.

The people did not realize the sinfulness of their own hearts, and that without Christ it was impossible for them to keep God's law; and they readily entered into covenant with God. Feeling that they were able to establish their own righteousness, they declared, "All that the Lord hath said will we do, and be obedient." Exodus 24:7. ...{PP 371.4}
Posted By: Tom

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 01/12/09 05:01 AM

Quote:
I believe Gen 3:1-3 and Ex 20:8-11 give as reason for keeping the Sabbath the fact God rested on that day. This reason is sufficient to trust and obey God intelligently rather than slavishly. No other reasons are needed. Do you agree?


This is a different question than you asked before. I view this as a hypothetical question, as I don't think anyone has been limited to the reasons given here. In particular, why ignore the other reasons given in the Pentateuch, all of which was written by Moses?

In answer to your hypothetical question, I don't think just those 7 verses are enough to intelligently obey the Sabbath.

MM, regarding the OC and the NC, we're thinking about this differently. You are thinking of all the laws and regulations which were given at Sinai. I understand the OC to be the vain promises which the people made to God, to try to establish their own righteousness. EGW comments as follows:

Quote:
The terms of the "old covenant" were, Obey and live: "If a man do, he shall even live in them" (Ezekiel 20:11; Leviticus 18:5); but "cursed be he that confirmeth not all the words of this law to do them." Deuteronomy 27:26. The "new covenant" was established upon "better promises"--the promise of forgiveness of sins and of the grace of God to renew the heart and bring it into harmony with the principles of God's law. "This shall be the covenant that I will make with the house of Israel; After those days, saith the Lord, I will put my law in their inward parts, and write it in their hearts . . . . I will forgive their iniquity, and will remember their sin no more." Jeremiah 31:33, 34.

The same law that was engraved upon the tables of stone is written by the Holy Spirit upon the tables of the heart. Instead of going about to establish our own righteousness we accept the righteousness of Christ.(PP 372)


Paul writes that the OC "gendereth to bondage." If it were simply a matter of keeping rites which point to Christ's death, of course this is not something which leads to bondage. So there's more to it than that.

Waggoner explains:

Quote:
That the covenant and promise of God are one and the same thing, is clearly seen from Gal.3:17, where it appears that to disannul the covenant would be to make void the promise. In Genesis 17 we read that God made a covenant with Abraham to give him the land of Canaan--and with it the whole world--for an everlasting possession; but Gal.3:18 says that God gave it to him by promise. God's covenants with men can be nothing else than promises to them: "Who hath first given to Him, and it shall be recompensed unto him again? For of Him, and through Him, and to Him, are all things." Rom.11:35,36. It is so rare for men to do anything without expecting an equivalent, that theologians have taken it for granted that it is the same with God. So they begin their dissertations on God's covenant with the statement that a covenant is "a mutual agreement between two or more persons, to do or refrain from doing certain things." But God does not make bargains with men, because He knows that they could not fulfil their part. After the flood God made a covenant with every beast of the earth, and with every fowl; but the beasts and the birds did not promise anything in return. Gen.9:9-16. They simply received the favor at the hand of God. That is all we can do. God promises us everything that we need, and more than we can ask or think, as a gift. We give Him ourselves, that is, nothing, and He gives us Himself, that is, everything. That which makes all the trouble is that even when men are willing to recognize the Lord at all, they want to make bargains with Him. They want it to be a "mutual" affair--a transaction in which they will be considered as on a par with God. But whoever deals with God must deal with Him on His own terms, that is, on a basis of fact--that we have nothing and are nothing, and He has everything and is everything, and gives everything. (The Glad Tidings)


This is what I think the issue was, a matter of trying to establish one's own righteousness, as EGW puts it, rather than simply accepting by faith that which God wanted to give them.

Quote:
Did obeying any of these “additional precepts” engender bondage?


No. It was their unbelief which kept them in bondage. The people refused the covenant God had made with Abraham, which was the EC, the promise to write the law in their hearts. Instead they preferred the law written on stone, seeking to establish their own righteousness, as opposed to accepting the righteousness of Christ. As EGW pointed out, in the quote above, this was the different between the OC and the NC.

Quote:
If not, which precepts do you think engendered bondage, which “was contrary” to the Jews?


Unbelief, not precepts, is what put them into bondage.

Quote:
Of everything God commanded Moses in addition to the Ten Commandments, what do you think engendered bondage? Please state your position in your own words. Thank you.


I did above. Well, I quoted EGW and Waggoner too, but I also explained things in my own words.

Basically the people were rejecting Christ. Christ spoke out against the same mindset when He said to them, "You seek the Scriptures, because you think in them you have life, but they are the which testify of Me. And you won't come to Me that you might have life."

The OC is trying to establish one's own righteousness by trying to keep a law written on stone. The NC is to believe in Christ, accepting His righteousness by faith, having the law written in the heart.
Posted By: Tom

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 01/12/09 05:26 AM

Quote:
What did the passages Jesus quoted to them say that constitute more than a “Thus saith the Lord”? They only describe who, what, when, and where. They do not explain why. If you think otherwise, please prove it. Post one of the passages Jesus might have quoted that explains why He had to become a man and die on the cross.


This seems an odd assertion and request. Much of the Old Testament speaks of Christ, with teachings as to why things would be done and not simply what. If you read Romans, and see the passages which Paul quotes from, those are good examples.

Isa. 53 is a good example, and many other places in Isaiah. A text which says that God would create a man finer than the Gold of some place, can't remember the name; doesn't matter. Anyway, this speaks to God's plan of creating men with character.

There are many Psalms which testify of Christ.

Quote:
Reasoning from prophecy, Christ gave His disciples a correct idea of what He was to be in humanity. (DA 799)


A correct idea of what He was to be in humanity would have to include why, not just what.

Did Moses explain why? Also, where does Moses say the animal sacrifices symbolize the death of the Son of God?[/quote]

Quote:
Did Waggoner say anything that I cannot find clearly spelled out in SC or FW?


Yes. Just to mention one thing, I don't think she speaks at all about the Covenants in these books. To name another, I don't think she addresses Christ's taking our nature in these books either.

Quote:
When I went through the Ten Truths link I found myself questioning several key points. Here they are again:

1. I do not agree that Jesus died the second death.


I disagree with the wording chosen there. I would say He "tasted" the second death, or "experienced" it.

Quote:
He “tasted” and consumed and conquered it. Satan is the one who will die our second death with our sins.


I'd be more careful how I put this. Satan doesn't die with our sins, but he suffers for his part, his responsibility, not just for our sins, but for his responsibility in regards to everyone.

Quote:
Satan and his angels suffered long. Satan bore not only the weight and punishment of his own sins, but also of the sins of the redeemed host, which had been placed upon him; and he must also suffer for the ruin of souls which he had caused. (EW 294)


Quote:
2. I do not agree sinners must resist Jesus’ love to be lost.


The SOP clearly states this in a number of places. Here's one:

Quote:
The light shining from the cross reveals the love of God. His love is drawing us to Himself. If we do not resist this drawing, we shall be led to the foot of the cross in repentance for the sins that have crucified the Saviour. Then the Spirit of God through faith produces a new life in the soul. (DA 176)


Here's another:

Quote:
None will ever come to Christ, save those who respond to the drawing of the Father's love. But God is drawing all hearts unto Him, and only those who resist His drawing will refuse to come to Christ.(DA 387)


Quote:
I believe sinners are already lost and must do something to be saved, namely, embrace Jesus.


The thing they must do they will do if they don't resist.

Quote:
4. I do not think lost sheep are lost because they made a conscious decision to be lost based on their misunderstanding of God’s character. They are lost because they know not God. Most do not understand why they are lost.


I think you're misunderstanding something here, that is, I believe you're understanding something to have been said which was not said. Could you please quote what you had in mind here?

Quote:
6. I do not agree that the NC is a one-way promise.


You cut this off in mid-sentence. What was written is that it is a one-way promise to write His law in our heart. This is just what Jeremiah says.

Quote:
It is conditional upon our consent and cooperation. Ellen wrote, “All that the Lord hath spoken we will do. This is the pledge that God's people are to make in these last days.”


Read Jeremiah 31:31-34. There's no promise by anyone in this passage but God. This is the declaration of the New Covenant.

Ellen White, in the PP passage I quoted previously, states that in the NC the law is written in the heart, as opposed to on stone, and that instead of seeking to establish our own righteousness, we accept the righteousness of Christ. She was explaining the different between the OC and the NC in writing this.

Quote:
9. I prefer “faith that works by love and purifies the soul” as a definition of genuine faith. This kind of faith makes both justification and sanctification realities in the life.


This isn't a definition of faith. It's a declaration of what genuine faith does. Were you responding to this?:

Quote:
Faith is understood in its true biblical sense—a heart appreciation of the agape of Christ.


If so, I think this is a wonderful definition of faith; that is, faith is a heart appreciation of the love of God, especially as revealed on the cross.
Posted By: Mountain Man

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 01/13/09 11:15 PM

Originally Posted By: teresaq
M: So, are you saying that this Glad Tidings quote, in essence is not saying the same thing as EGW in PP, that the quotes I provided cancel out the Glad Tidings quote, but not her other statements in the PP?

t: people seem to read items differently. guess there isnt much that can be done about that. no sense arguing over it.

The people did not realize the sinfulness of their own hearts, and that without Christ it was impossible for them to keep God's law; and they readily entered into covenant with God. Feeling that they were able to establish their own righteousness, they declared, "All that the Lord hath said will we do, and be obedient." Exodus 24:7. ...{PP 371.4}

Bummer. After all that hard work compiling all those posts so I could ask you the same question you asked me and then you just drop it. Oh well. Perhaps next time you can let me know ahead of time you're not going to share your thoughts on it. Or vise versa.
Posted By: Mountain Man

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 01/13/09 11:48 PM

Originally Posted By: Tom
M: Let’s back up and start over. I believe Gen 3:1-3 and Ex 20:8-11 give as reason for keeping the Sabbath the fact God rested on that day. This reason is sufficient to trust and obey God intelligently rather than slavishly. No other reasons are needed. Do you agree?

T: This is a different question than you asked before. I view this as a hypothetical question, as I don't think anyone has been limited to the reasons given here. In particular, why ignore the other reasons given in the Pentateuch, all of which was written by Moses? In answer to your hypothetical question, I don't think just those 7 verses are enough to intelligently obey the Sabbath.

Yes, it is a different question. That’s why I said, “Let’s back up and start over.” And you finally gave me an answer, which was, No, you do not believe keeping the Sabbath because God rested on that day is a sufficient reason to trust and obey God intelligently rather than slavishly. End of story. No more questions. Thank you.

Originally Posted By: Tom
MM, regarding the OC and the NC, we're thinking about this differently. You are thinking of all the laws and regulations which were given at Sinai. I understand the OC to be the vain promises which the people made to God, to try to establish their own righteousness.

Basically the people were rejecting Christ. Christ spoke out against the same mindset when He said to them, "You seek the Scriptures, because you think in them you have life, but they are the which testify of Me. And you won't come to Me that you might have life."

The OC is trying to establish one's own righteousness by trying to keep a law written on stone. The NC is to believe in Christ, accepting His righteousness by faith, having the law written in the heart.

What are the terms and conditions of the NC? What are the terms and conditions of the OC? Also, in light of what you wrote above, please explain the following points Ellen raised in PP:

Quote:
Another compact--called in Scripture the "old" covenant--was formed between God and Israel at Sinai, and was then ratified by the blood of a sacrifice. {PP 371.1}

But if the Abrahamic covenant contained the promise of redemption, why was another covenant formed at Sinai? In their bondage the people had to a great extent lost the knowledge of God and of the principles of the Abrahamic covenant. {PP 371.2}

All this they must be taught. {PP 371.3}

Now by faith and love they were bound to God as their deliverer from the bondage of sin. Now they were prepared to appreciate the blessings of the new covenant. {PP 371.4}

The terms of the "old covenant" were, Obey and live: "If a man do, he shall even live in them" (Ezekiel 20:11; Leviticus 18:5); but "cursed be he that confirmeth not all the words of this law to do them." Deuteronomy 27:26. The "new covenant" was established upon "better promises"--the promise of forgiveness of sins and of the grace of God to renew the heart and bring it into harmony with the principles of God's law. {PP 372.1}

The same law that was engraved upon the tables of stone is written by the Holy Spirit upon the tables of the heart. Instead of going about to establish our own righteousness we accept the righteousness of Christ. His blood atones for our sins. His obedience is accepted for us. Then the heart renewed by the Holy Spirit will bring forth "the fruits of the Spirit." Through the grace of Christ we shall live in obedience to the law of God written upon our hearts. {PP 372.2}
Posted By: Mountain Man

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 01/14/09 12:43 AM

Originally Posted By: Tom
M: What did the passages Jesus quoted to them say that constitute more than a “Thus saith the Lord”? They only describe who, what, when, and where. They do not explain why. If you think otherwise, please prove it. Post one of the passages Jesus might have quoted that explains why He had to become a man and die on the cross.

T: This seems an odd assertion and request. Much of the Old Testament speaks of Christ, with teachings as to why things would be done and not simply what. If you read Romans, and see the passages which Paul quotes from, those are good examples.

Isa. 53 is a good example, and many other places in Isaiah. A text which says that God would create a man finer than the Gold of some place, can't remember the name; doesn't matter. Anyway, this speaks to God's plan of creating men with character.

There are many Psalms which testify of Christ.

Quote:
Reasoning from prophecy, Christ gave His disciples a correct idea of what He was to be in humanity. (DA 799)

A correct idea of what He was to be in humanity would have to include why, not just what.

I've read the passages you cited and I did not see where God explains why Jesus had to become a man and die on the cross. Please be more specific. Thank you.

Originally Posted By: Mountain Man
Did Moses explain why Jesus had to become a man and die on the cross? Also, where does Moses say the animal sacrifices symbolize the death of the Son of God?

I don't see where you addressed this question.

Quote:
M: Did Waggoner say anything that I cannot find clearly spelled out in SC or FW?

T: Yes. Just to mention one thing, I don't think she speaks at all about the Covenants in these books. To name another, I don't think she addresses Christ's taking our nature in these books either.

Perhaps you overlooked the following references:

Quote:
"Nothing but His righteousness can entitle us to one of the blessings of the covenant of grace. We have long desired and tried to obtain these blessings but have not received them because we have cherished the idea that we could do something to make ourselves worthy of them. We have not looked away from ourselves, believing that Jesus is a living Saviour. We must not think that our own grace and merits will save us; the grace of Christ is our only hope of salvation. " {FW 36.1}

"When the principle of love is implanted in the heart, when man is renewed after the image of Him that created him, the new-covenant promise is fulfilled, "I will put My laws into their hearts, and in their minds will I write them." Hebrews 10:16. {SC 60.2}

"In the Word of God the honest seeker for truth will find the rule for genuine sanctification. . . 'For what the law could not do, in that it was weak through the flesh, God sending His own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh, and for sin, condemned sin in the flesh; that the righteousness of the law might be fulfilled in us, who walk not after the flesh, but after the Spirit.' {FW 97.2}

I could have included PP and DA where Ellen clearly explains the covenants and the human nature of Jesus. The real intent of my question is - I don't see where Waggoner explained vital truths that cannot be found clearly explained in the SOP. Do you?

Quote:
M: When I went through the Ten Truths link I found myself questioning several key points. Here they are again:

1. I do not agree that Jesus died the second death. He “tasted” and consumed and conquered it. Satan is the one who will die our second death with our sins.

T: I disagree with the wording chosen there. I would say He "tasted" the second death, or "experienced" it. I'd be more careful how I put this. Satan doesn't die with our sins, but he suffers for his part, his responsibility, not just for our sins, but for his responsibility in regards to everyone.

Jesus will place upon the head of Satan the sins of the saved. While thus burdened Satan will suffer and die. In this way the sins of the saved are eliminated, exterminated. Listen:

Quote:
But not so when the great controversy shall be ended. Then, the plan of redemption having been completed, the character of God is revealed to all created intelligences. The precepts of His law are seen to be perfect and immutable. Then sin has made manifest its nature, Satan his character. Then the extermination of sin will vindicate God's love and establish His honor before a universe of beings who delight to do His will, and in whose heart is His law. {DA 764.3}

The whole universe will have become witnesses to the nature and results of sin. And its utter extermination, which in the beginning would have brought fear to angels and dishonor to God, will now vindicate His love and establish His honor before the universe of beings who delight to do His will, and in whose heart is His law. Never will evil again be manifest. Says the word of God: "Affliction shall not rise up the second time." Nahum 1:9. The law of God, which Satan has reproached as the yoke of bondage, will be honored as the law of liberty. A tested and proved creation will never again be turned from allegiance to Him whose character has been fully manifested before them as fathomless love and infinite wisdom. {GC 504.1}


Quote:
M: 2. I do not agree sinners must resist Jesus’ love to be lost. I believe sinners are already lost and must do something to be saved, namely, embrace Jesus.

T: The SOP clearly states this in a number of places. The thing they must do they will do if they don't resist.

Do you think sinners are lost by default? Or, do you think they are saved by default? If sinners do nothing at all are they lost or saved?

Quote:
M: 4. I do not think lost sheep are lost because they made a conscious decision to be lost based on their misunderstanding of God’s character. They are lost because they know not God. Most do not understand why they are lost.

T: I think you're misunderstanding something here, that is, I believe you're understanding something to have been said which was not said. Could you please quote what you had in mind here?

I was responding to number 4 of the Ten Truths.

Quote:
M: 6. I do not agree that the NC is a one-way promise. It is conditional upon our consent and cooperation. Ellen wrote, “All that the Lord hath spoken we will do. This is the pledge that God's people are to make in these last days.”

T: You cut this off in mid-sentence. What was written is that it is a one-way promise to write His law in our heart. This is just what Jeremiah says. Read Jeremiah 31:31-34. There's no promise by anyone in this passage but God. This is the declaration of the New Covenant.

Ellen White, in the PP passage I quoted previously, states that in the NC the law is written in the heart, as opposed to on stone, and that instead of seeking to establish our own righteousness, we accept the righteousness of Christ. She was explaining the different between the OC and the NC in writing this.

Do you think God writes His law in the hearts of sinners without their consent and cooperation? Or, do you think their consent and cooperation are required?

Quote:
M: 9. I prefer “faith that works by love and purifies the soul” as a definition of genuine faith. This kind of faith makes both justification and sanctification realities in the life.

T: This isn't a definition of faith. It's a declaration of what genuine faith does.

Actions speak louder than words. "Yea, a man may say, Thou hast faith, and I have works: show me thy faith without thy works, and I will show thee my faith by my works."
Posted By: Tom

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 01/14/09 10:12 AM

Quote:
Yes, it is a different question. That’s why I said, “Let’s back up and start over.” And you finally gave me an answer


What's up with this? You recognize this is a different question, a question which I immediately answered, the first time you asked it, and you respond, "And you finally game me an answer." What did you want me to do? Answer the question before you asked it?

Quote:
What are the terms and conditions of the NC? What are the terms and conditions of the OC? Also, in light of what you wrote above, please explain the following points Ellen raised in PP:


The terms of the OC were the proud and unbelieving promise of the people to do all that the Lord had commanded. Ellen White characterizes this as the people seeking to establish their own righteousness. The NC was established upon "better promises," the promises of forgiveness and the writing of the law in heart. She characterized this as accepting the righteousness of Christ. The condition is faith.
Posted By: Tom

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 01/14/09 10:41 AM

Quote:
I've read the passages you cited and I did not see where God explains why Jesus had to become a man and die on the cross. Please be more specific. Thank you.


You've read Isaiah 53, and you don't understand why Jesus had to become a man and die on the cross. I'm sorry, but I don't think I can improve on Isaiah.

Quote:
Did Moses explain why Jesus had to become a man and die on the cross? Also, where does Moses say the animal sacrifices symbolize the death of the Son of God?

I don't see where you addressed this question.


I think I've asked you several times why you are asking this.

Quote:
The real intent of my question is - I don't see where Waggoner explained vital truths that cannot be found clearly explained in the SOP. Do you?


I don't think this is the point.

Quote:
The Lord has raised up Brother Jones and Brother Waggoner to proclaim a message to the world to prepare a people to stand in the day of God. The world is suffering the need of additional light to come to them upon the Scriptures,--additional proclamation of the principles of purity, lowliness, faith, and the righteousness of Christ. (1888 Mat. 1814, 1815)


Ellen White never claimed this of herself. She said that Waggoner could teach righteousness by faith more clearly than she, and that the Lord had given him special light on this question. Over and over she exhorted that the light that God sent through Waggoner and Jones be heeded.

You say, "I don't see where Waggoner explained vital truths that cannot be found clearly explained in the SOP. Do you?"

I certainly see vital truths they explained that you don't see present in her writings.

Regarding Satan, I don't see what you said in the quote you provided. The quote I provided was clear that Satan suffers for his responsibility towards both the wicked and the saved. This is not something arbitrarily imposed upon Satan by God, but simply the result of Satan suffering the guilt of his actions.

Quote:
M: 2. I do not agree sinners must resist Jesus’ love to be lost. I believe sinners are already lost and must do something to be saved, namely, embrace Jesus.

T: The SOP clearly states this in a number of places. The thing they must do they will do if they don't resist.

M:Do you think sinners are lost by default? Or, do you think they are saved by default? If sinners do nothing at all are they lost or saved?


I haven't said anything about this. I said that sinners would be saved if they didn't not resist Jesus' love. You said you did not believe this. I produced a couple of statements which say what I said, that if the sinner does not resist He will be saved.

Quote:
M: 4. I do not think lost sheep are lost because they made a conscious decision to be lost based on their misunderstanding of God’s character. They are lost because they know not God. Most do not understand why they are lost.

T: I think you're misunderstanding something here, that is, I believe you're understanding something to have been said which was not said. Could you please quote what you had in mind here?

M:I was responding to number 4 of the Ten Truths.


Point 4 doesn't say "lost sheep are lost because they made a conscious decision to be lost based on their misunderstanding of God’s character."

Do you disagree with something point 4 actually says? If so, what?

Quote:
Do you think God writes His law in the hearts of sinners without their consent and cooperation? Or, do you think their consent and cooperation are required?


Why are you asking this? I'm not a Calvinist. God does not unilaterally convert people.

Quote:
M: 9. I prefer “faith that works by love and purifies the soul” as a definition of genuine faith. This kind of faith makes both justification and sanctification realities in the life.

T: This isn't a definition of faith. It's a declaration of what genuine faith does.

M:Actions speak louder than words. "Yea, a man may say, Thou hast faith, and I have works: show me thy faith without thy works, and I will show thee my faith by my works."


This has nothing to do with the point. Robert Wieland has suggested as a definition for faith that faith is a heart appreciation of the love of God, especially as revealed at the cross. I think this is a fine definition for faith.

When we appreciate the love of God, that love transforms us, motivates us. This is the love of which the phrase "faith which works by love" is in reference to.

The SOP speaks a number of times of the love of God shining from the cross which leads us to repentance if we do not resist. There is something special in the love of God, which is why Paul prayed:

Quote:
16That he would grant you, according to the riches of his glory, to be strengthened with might by his Spirit in the inner man;

17That Christ may dwell in your hearts by faith; that ye, being rooted and grounded in love,

18May be able to comprehend with all saints what is the breadth, and length, and depth, and height;

19And to know the love of Christ, which passeth knowledge, that ye might be filled with all the fulness of God. (Eph. 3)
Posted By: Mountain Man

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 01/15/09 07:24 PM

Originally Posted By: Tom
M: Let’s back up and start over. I believe Gen 3:1-3 and Ex 20:8-11 give as reason for keeping the Sabbath the fact God rested on that day. This reason is sufficient to trust and obey God intelligently rather than slavishly. No other reasons are needed. Do you agree?

T: This is a different question than you asked before. I view this as a hypothetical question, as I don't think anyone has been limited to the reasons given here. In particular, why ignore the other reasons given in the Pentateuch, all of which was written by Moses? In answer to your hypothetical question, I don't think just those 7 verses are enough to intelligently obey the Sabbath.

M: Yes, it is a different question. That’s why I said, “Let’s back up and start over.” And you finally gave me an answer, which was, No, you do not believe keeping the Sabbath because God rested on that day is a sufficient reason to trust and obey God intelligently rather than slavishly. End of story. No more questions. Thank you.

T: What's up with this? You recognize this is a different question, a question which I immediately answered, the first time you asked it, and you respond, "And you finally game me an answer." What did you want me to do? Answer the question before you asked it?

Here's how you answered my question the first time:

Quote:
M: Here is how the creation account and commandment read. I've underlined the words that explain why God commanded people to rest on the seventh day.

Genesis
2:2 And on the seventh day God ended his work which he had made; and he rested on the seventh day from all his work which he had made.
2:3 And God blessed the seventh day, and sanctified it: because that in it he had rested from all his work which God created and made.

Exodus
20:8 Remember the sabbath day, to keep it holy.
20:9 Six days shalt thou labour, and do all thy work:
20:10 But the seventh day [is] the sabbath of the LORD thy God: [in it] thou shalt not do any work, thou, nor thy son, nor thy daughter, thy manservant, nor thy maidservant, nor thy cattle, nor thy stranger that [is] within thy gates:
20:11 For [in] six days the LORD made heaven and earth, the sea, and all that in them [is], and rested the seventh day: wherefore the LORD blessed the sabbath day, and hallowed it.

The question is - Do these verses require "slavish" obedience since they do not contain better reasons why God commands people to rest on the seventh day?

T: As I pointed out, there are several reasons given for keeping the Sabbath. The foundation of observing the Sabbath is that God rested on this day, the crowning act of creation. The Sabbath is a memorial of creation, and its observance recognizes God as the Creator.

It's also a memorial of redemption, a them which is explained in detail in Hebrews. By faith we enter into the rest of God, which is what the Sabbath is all about. The Sabbath is also the seal of God and a sign of sanctification. This is just scratching the service!

From the beginning you have insisted that people before the Exodus had more reasons for keeping the Sabbath than what is contained in the seven verses above. Not until now, 13 pages later, did you finally admit that, yes, those verses do not contain enough reasons to obey God intelligently. That's all I was asking in the beginning. But we ended up discussing the oral tradition point you brought up. I realize you believe with all your heart people before the Exodus had many reasons for keeping the Sabbath and that they were able to do so intelligently and not slavishly. So, again, thank you for answering my question.

Quote:
M: What are the terms and conditions of the NC? What are the terms and conditions of the OC? Also, in light of what you wrote above, please explain the following points Ellen raised in PP:

T: The terms of the OC were the proud and unbelieving promise of the people to do all that the Lord had commanded. Ellen White characterizes this as the people seeking to establish their own righteousness. The NC was established upon "better promises," the promises of forgiveness and the writing of the law in heart. She characterized this as accepting the righteousness of Christ. The condition is faith.

While under the terms and conditions of the OC, did you think God required them to obey and observe everything He commanded (i.e. the moral law, the ceremonial laws, the laws of Moses)?

While under the terms and conditions of the NC, did you think God required them to obey and observe everything He commanded (i.e. the moral law, the ceremonial laws, the laws of Moses)?
Posted By: Mountain Man

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 01/15/09 07:57 PM

Originally Posted By: Tom
M: I've read the passages you cited and I did not see where God explains why Jesus had to become a man and die on the cross. Please be more specific. Thank you.

T: You've read Isaiah 53, and you don't understand why Jesus had to become a man and die on the cross. I'm sorry, but I don't think I can improve on Isaiah.

Please post the verses you think explain why Jesus had to die on the cross. Thank you. I do not see where you did this.

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M: Did Moses explain why Jesus had to become a man and die on the cross? Also, where does Moses say the animal sacrifices symbolize the death of the Son of God?

I don't see where you addressed this question.

T: I think I've asked you several times why you are asking this.

Because it is important to me. If you don't know the answer that's fine. I just thought maybe you did.

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M: The real intent of my question is - I don't see where Waggoner explained vital truths that cannot be found clearly explained in the SOP. Do you?

I don't think this is the point.

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The Lord has raised up Brother Jones and Brother Waggoner to proclaim a message to the world to prepare a people to stand in the day of God. The world is suffering the need of additional light to come to them upon the Scriptures,--additional proclamation of the principles of purity, lowliness, faith, and the righteousness of Christ. (1888 Mat. 1814, 1815)

Ellen White never claimed this of herself. She said that Waggoner could teach righteousness by faith more clearly than she, and that the Lord had given him special light on this question. Over and over she exhorted that the light that God sent through Waggoner and Jones be heeded.

You say, "I don't see where Waggoner explained vital truths that cannot be found clearly explained in the SOP. Do you?" I certainly see vital truths they explained that you don't see present in her writings.

I'm not sure how this answers my question. If you don't know the answer that's fine. If Waggoner didn't say anything vital that cannot be found in the SOP then I see no reason to read Waggoner. Do you?

Also, if Waggoner explained something "more clearly" than Ellen did, please show me. Post something he said that is "more clearly" explained. Place his and her explanations side-by-side so we can compare them. Thank you.

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T: Regarding Satan, I don't see what you said in the quote you provided. The quote I provided was clear that Satan suffers for his responsibility towards both the wicked and the saved. This is not something arbitrarily imposed upon Satan by God, but simply the result of Satan suffering the guilt of his actions.

Okay. Thank you for clarifying what you believe.

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M: 2. I do not agree sinners must resist Jesus’ love to be lost. I believe sinners are already lost and must do something to be saved, namely, embrace Jesus.

T: The SOP clearly states this in a number of places. The thing they must do they will do if they don't resist.

M: Do you think sinners are lost by default? Or, do you think they are saved by default? If sinners do nothing at all are they lost or saved?

T: I haven't said anything about this. I said that sinners would be saved if they didn't not resist Jesus' love. You said you did not believe this. I produced a couple of statements which say what I said, that if the sinner does not resist He will be saved.

Now that you've clarified what you meant, I have a different question I'd like you to answer. Here it is - Do you think sinners are lost by default? Or, do you think they are saved by default? If sinners do nothing at all are they lost or saved?

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M: 4. I do not think lost sheep are lost because they made a conscious decision to be lost based on their misunderstanding of God’s character. They are lost because they know not God. Most do not understand why they are lost.

T: I think you're misunderstanding something here, that is, I believe you're understanding something to have been said which was not said. Could you please quote what you had in mind here?

M:I was responding to number 4 of the Ten Truths.

T: Point 4 doesn't say "lost sheep are lost because they made a conscious decision to be lost based on their misunderstanding of God’s character."

Do you disagree with something point 4 actually says? If so, what?

I believe most people cannot identify misunderstanding the character of God as the reason why they are lost. Does this contradict anything in point 4 as you see it?

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M: Do you think God writes His law in the hearts of sinners without their consent and cooperation? Or, do you think their consent and cooperation are required?

T: Why are you asking this? I'm not a Calvinist. God does not unilaterally convert people.

Is your answer to my second question - yes?

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M: 9. I prefer “faith that works by love and purifies the soul” as a definition of genuine faith. This kind of faith makes both justification and sanctification realities in the life.

T: This isn't a definition of faith. It's a declaration of what genuine faith does.

M:Actions speak louder than words. "Yea, a man may say, Thou hast faith, and I have works: show me thy faith without thy works, and I will show thee my faith by my works."

T: This has nothing to do with the point. Robert Wieland has suggested as a definition for faith that faith is a heart appreciation of the love of God, especially as revealed at the cross. I think this is a fine definition for faith.

When we appreciate the love of God, that love transforms us, motivates us. This is the love of which the phrase "faith which works by love" is in reference to.

The SOP speaks a number of times of the love of God shining from the cross which leads us to repentance if we do not resist. There is something special in the love of God, which is why Paul prayed:

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16That he would grant you, according to the riches of his glory, to be strengthened with might by his Spirit in the inner man;

17That Christ may dwell in your hearts by faith; that ye, being rooted and grounded in love,

18May be able to comprehend with all saints what is the breadth, and length, and depth, and height;

19And to know the love of Christ, which passeth knowledge, that ye might be filled with all the fulness of God. (Eph. 3)

Thank you for clarifying what you believe. But I prefer “faith that works by love and purifies the soul” as a definition of genuine faith. This kind of faith makes both justification and sanctification realities in the life.
Posted By: Tom

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 01/16/09 04:54 AM

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Please post the verses you think explain why Jesus had to die on the cross. Thank you. I do not see where you did this.


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1Who hath believed our report? and to whom is the arm of the LORD revealed?

2For he shall grow up before him as a tender plant, and as a root out of a dry ground: he hath no form nor comeliness; and when we shall see him, there is no beauty that we should desire him.

3He is despised and rejected of men; a man of sorrows, and acquainted with grief: and we hid as it were our faces from him; he was despised, and we esteemed him not.

4Surely he hath borne our griefs, and carried our sorrows: yet we did esteem him stricken, smitten of God, and afflicted.

5But he was wounded for our transgressions, he was bruised for our iniquities: the chastisement of our peace was upon him; and with his stripes we are healed.

6All we like sheep have gone astray; we have turned every one to his own way; and the LORD hath laid on him the iniquity of us all.

7He was oppressed, and he was afflicted, yet he opened not his mouth: he is brought as a lamb to the slaughter, and as a sheep before her shearers is dumb, so he openeth not his mouth.

8He was taken from prison and from judgment: and who shall declare his generation? for he was cut off out of the land of the living: for the transgression of my people was he stricken.

9And he made his grave with the wicked, and with the rich in his death; because he had done no violence, neither was any deceit in his mouth.

10Yet it pleased the LORD to bruise him; he hath put him to grief: when thou shalt make his soul an offering for sin, he shall see his seed, he shall prolong his days, and the pleasure of the LORD shall prosper in his hand.

11He shall see of the travail of his soul, and shall be satisfied: by his knowledge shall my righteous servant justify many; for he shall bear their iniquities.

12Therefore will I divide him a portion with the great, and he shall divide the spoil with the strong; because he hath poured out his soul unto death: and he was numbered with the transgressors; and he bare the sin of many, and made intercession for the transgressors. (Isa. 53)



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M: Did Moses explain why Jesus had to become a man and die on the cross? Also, where does Moses say the animal sacrifices symbolize the death of the Son of God?

I don't see where you addressed this question.

T: I think I've asked you several times why you are asking this.

M:Because it is important to me. If you don't know the answer that's fine. I just thought maybe you did.


I'm not really understanding your question. There are a number of Gospel promises, including Gen. 3:15 and so forth. Jesus said that Moses saw His day and wrote of Him.

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T:You say, "I don't see where Waggoner explained vital truths that cannot be found clearly explained in the SOP. Do you?" I certainly see vital truths they explained that you don't see present in her writings.

M:I'm not sure how this answers my question. If you don't know the answer that's fine. If Waggoner didn't say anything vital that cannot be found in the SOP then I see no reason to read Waggoner. Do you?


(From my point of view, of course) you have misunderstandings of a number of different things that you read from the SOP. You understand these things correctly, or at least more correctly, when you read Waggoner, but you disagree with what Waggoner says, and because of your misunderstanding of the SOP you think he disagrees with her. So I think it would be of value if you took to heart her endorsements of them, that they brought a message from God, light which would enlighten the world, etc. and read and learned from what they wrote and corrected your misunderstanding of the SOP. I don't think you could get this simply by reading the SOP, because you would be likely to keep reading the SOP as you always have.

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Also, if Waggoner explained something "more clearly" than Ellen did, please show me. Post something he said that is "more clearly" explained. Place his and her explanations side-by-side so we can compare them. Thank you.


I think this would be a better exercise for you to do on your own. Ellen White said that Waggoner could explain righteousness by faith better than she, but she didn't point to specific passages she wrote which were less clear than things that she wrote, and I don't feel impressed to go beyond where she went.

One area I think Waggoner wrote particularly clearly is in regards to the covenants, which EGW described as "truth" and "as clear as sunlight." I'd be happy to quote some passages of Waggoner on this subject if you'd like.

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T: I haven't said anything about this. I said that sinners would be saved if they didn't not resist Jesus' love. You said you did not believe this. I produced a couple of statements which say what I said, that if the sinner does not resist He will be saved.

M:Now that you've clarified what you meant, I have a different question I'd like you to answer. Here it is - Do you think sinners are lost by default? Or, do you think they are saved by default? If sinners do nothing at all are they lost or saved?


Before going on to a new question, how about some closure on the previous one. Do you agree that this statement

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The light shining from the cross reveals the love of God. His love is drawing us to Himself. If we do not resist this drawing, we shall be led to the foot of the cross in repentance for the sins that have crucified the Saviour. Then the Spirit of God through faith produces a new life in the soul. (DA 176)


says that if one does not resist one will be saved?

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I believe most people cannot identify misunderstanding the character of God as the reason why they are lost. Does this contradict anything in point 4 as you see it?


It neither contradicts nor affirms what point 4 says. Point 4 doesn't address this. Point 4 said nothing about people being able to identify a cause for their being lost.

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Thank you for clarifying what you believe. But I prefer “faith that works by love and purifies the soul” as a definition of genuine faith.


This isn't a definition. A definition describes what something is. "Faith that works by love and purifies the soul" is a qualification of a certain type of faith.

Here's an example. A definition of "car" would be "a motor vehicle, smaller than a truck, with 4 wheels." The phrase "a car which zooms down the highway" is not a definition for "car."
Posted By: Tom

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 01/16/09 06:08 AM

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From the beginning you have insisted that people before the Exodus had more reasons for keeping the Sabbath than what is contained in the seven verses above. Not until now, 13 pages later, did you finally admit that, yes, those verses do not contain enough reasons to obey God intelligently.


You never asked this question! You admit this here:

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T: This is a different question than you asked before...

M:Yes, it is a different question.


So how can you say I didn't answer a question for 13 pages which you hadn't even asked?

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While under the terms and conditions of the OC, did you think God required them to obey and observe everything He commanded (i.e. the moral law, the ceremonial laws, the laws of Moses)?

While under the terms and conditions of the NC, did you think God required them to obey and observe everything He commanded (i.e. the moral law, the ceremonial laws, the laws of Moses)?


No and yes. Saying that God required this may give a wrong impression. The NC is simply the writing of the law in the heart. Since love is the fulfilling of the law, it's equivalent to saying that God requires love. But love is not something one can require, it has to be voluntarily given. You don't meet a girl you like, and the require that she love you. It doesn't work that way. Love is awakened by love. We love God because He first loved us. His wonderful character inspires us to love Him, and love our neighbor too, if we do not resist the prompting of the Holy Spirit.
Posted By: Mountain Man

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 01/18/09 09:05 PM

Originally Posted By: Tom
So how can you say I didn't answer a question for 13 pages which you hadn't even asked?

Are you calling me a liar? Check it out. Here's the first time I asked the question (posted above) - "Do these verses require "slavish" obedience since they do not contain better reasons why God commands people to rest on the seventh day?" Other questions arose afterward. But this was the original one. At any rate, thank you for answering my original question.

Originally Posted By: Tom
No and yes.

I don't see where you answered my question. While under the NC did God require the Jews to obey and observe everything He commanded them {the moral law, the ceremonial laws, the laws of Moses)? Was there anything God commanded them that stands in contradiction to the law of love, the moral law?
Posted By: Mountain Man

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 01/18/09 09:31 PM

Originally Posted By: Tom
“Yet it pleased the LORD to bruise him.”

Again, Isa 53 does not explain why Jesus had to die. It merely describes how He died. It also says it pleased God to bruise him.

Originally Posted By: Tom
I'm not really understanding your question. There are a number of Gospel promises, including Gen. 3:15 and so forth. Jesus said that Moses saw His day and wrote of Him.

I’ll reword the questions: Please show me where Moses explained why Jesus had to become a man and die on the cross. Gensis 3:15 does not explain why. Also, show me where Moses explained why the animal sacrifices symbolize the death of the Son of God.

Originally Posted By: Tom
T:You say, "I don't see where Waggoner explained vital truths that cannot be found clearly explained in the SOP. Do you?" I certainly see vital truths they explained that you don't see present in her writings.

What vital truths are you referring to? And, how does my view differ from the view presented by Ellen and Elliot? Please post quotes from the SOP to support a view you believe contradicts what I believe. I cannot think of anything she taught that contradicts what I believe.

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M: Also, if Waggoner explained something "more clearly" than Ellen did, please show me. Post something he said that is "more clearly" explained. Place his and her explanations side-by-side so we can compare them. Thank you.


T: I think this would be a better exercise for you to do on your own. Ellen White said that Waggoner could explain righteousness by faith better than she, but she didn't point to specific passages she wrote which were less clear than things that she wrote, and I don't feel impressed to go beyond where she went.

One area I think Waggoner wrote particularly clearly is in regards to the covenants, which EGW described as "truth" and "as clear as sunlight." I'd be happy to quote some passages of Waggoner on this subject if you'd like.

As you know I have already compared Ellen and Elliot and have come to conclusions, namely, I have found nothing he explains “more clearly” than she does. I doubt there is anything you can post which explains something “more clearly” than she did.

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T: I haven't said anything about this. I said that sinners would be saved if they didn't not resist Jesus' love. You said you did not believe this. I produced a couple of statements which say what I said, that if the sinner does not resist He will be saved.

M:Now that you've clarified what you meant, I have a different question I'd like you to answer. Here it is - Do you think sinners are lost by default? Or, do you think they are saved by default? If sinners do nothing at all are they lost or saved?

T: Before going on to a new question, how about some closure on the previous one. Do you agree that this statement

Yes, sinners would be saved if they responded to the loving entreaties of God.
Posted By: Tom

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 01/18/09 11:04 PM

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T:So how can you say I didn't answer a question for 13 pages which you hadn't even asked?

M:Are you calling me a liar?


No, your problem here is not one of deceit but of lack of comprehension. Here's our conversation:

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M: Let’s back up and start over. I believe Gen 3:1-3 and Ex 20:8-11 give as reason for keeping the Sabbath the fact God rested on that day. This reason is sufficient to trust and obey God intelligently rather than slavishly. No other reasons are needed. Do you agree?

T: This is a different question than you asked before. I view this as a hypothetical question, as I don't think anyone has been limited to the reasons given here. In particular, why ignore the other reasons given in the Pentateuch, all of which was written by Moses? In answer to your hypothetical question, I don't think just those 7 verses are enough to intelligently obey the Sabbath.

M: Yes, it is a different question.


When you say, "yes, it is a different question," that means it is a different question! Not the same question you asked before, but a new, different one.

Since this is a different question, it is not one I could have answered earlier.

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I don't see where you answered my question. While under the NC did God require the Jews to obey and observe everything He commanded them {the moral law, the ceremonial laws, the laws of Moses)? Was there anything God commanded them that stands in contradiction to the law of love, the moral law?


Here's what I said:

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Saying that God required this may give a wrong impression. The NC is simply the writing of the law in the heart. Since love is the fulfilling of the law, it's equivalent to saying that God requires love. But love is not something one can require, it has to be voluntarily given. You don't meet a girl you like, and the require that she love you. It doesn't work that way. Love is awakened by love. We love God because He first loved us. His wonderful character inspires us to love Him, and love our neighbor too, if we do not resist the prompting of the Holy Spirit.


Your whole way of looking at this is different than mine. I cannot answer your questions according to your perspective because I disagree with your perspective. Your perspective involves requirements and rules. Mine involves promises and love freely given, which is the fulfilling of the law.

God was not arbitrarily requiring things of the COI either under the NC or OC, but was seeking to lead them into the truth. He wanted a relationship with them, entered into by faith as a response to His incredible love. Love is the fulfilling of the law, which can only be obtained by a transformation of the heart. God had to take the COI where they were, and seek to lead them from that point of unbelief to a loving relationship with Him. What God communicated to them through Moses was intended to bring them to that point.
Posted By: Tom

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 01/18/09 11:40 PM

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Again, Isa 53 does not explain why Jesus had to die. It merely describes how He died. It also says it pleased God to bruise him.


If you don't see that Isaiah 53 explains Christ's death, I don't think I can help you. I'm sorry about that.

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Please show me where Moses explained why Jesus had to become a man and die on the cross. Genesis 3:15 does not explain why. Also, show me where Moses explained why the animal sacrifices symbolize the death of the Son of God.


I don't understand why you're requesting these things. What's your point?

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T:You say, "I don't see where Waggoner explained vital truths that cannot be found clearly explained in the SOP. Do you?" I certainly see vital truths they explained that you don't see present in her writings.

M:What vital truths are you referring to? And, how does my view differ from the view presented by Ellen and Elliot? Please post quotes from the SOP to support a view you believe contradicts what I believe. I cannot think of anything she taught that contradicts what I believe.


I already suggested a course of action. Read what Waggoner wrote, being open to the possibility that when you disagree with him that he's right. I already explained that simply reading the SOP isn't likely to help, because you'll simply read her the same way you've been reading her. My opinion is that you could use something to give you a different perspective.

She said that Waggoner could teach righteousness by faith better than she. You disagree with her on this, thinking she is clearer than Waggoner. I see another possibility. It might be that she is right about this, and that you are wrong. It might be that Waggoner's teachings are clearer than hers, and that you have been misunderstanding her teachings. So, again, my suggestion is that you read Waggoner's teachings with an open mind, ready to investigate candidly the areas where you disagree with him, open to changing your mind about his being wrong and disagreeing with the SOP.

If you wish a specific point to study, I would suggest the covenants, and I suggest you start by reading Waggoner's comments in "The Glad Tidings" to Gal. 3:16-18, as well as his comments to Gal. 4:24.

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M:As you know I have already compared Ellen and Elliot and have come to conclusions, namely, I have found nothing he explains “more clearly” than she does. I doubt there is anything you can post which explains something “more clearly” than she did.


Your opinion on this matter disagrees with her. I agree with her opinion, that Waggoner's teachings were clearer than hers, and I also agree with her opinion that she was in agreement with what Waggoner taught, as opposed to your opinion that they differed.

My suggestion, again, would be to read Waggoner with an open mind. I would further suggest that you consider his arguments and reasoning, setting aside your own ideas temporarily, and investigate if what Waggoner says makes sense on its own merits.

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T: I haven't said anything about this. I said that sinners would be saved if they didn't not resist Jesus' love. You said you did not believe this. I produced a couple of statements which say what I said, that if the sinner does not resist He will be saved.

M:Now that you've clarified what you meant, I have a different question I'd like you to answer. Here it is - Do you think sinners are lost by default? Or, do you think they are saved by default? If sinners do nothing at all are they lost or saved?

T: Before going on to a new question, how about some closure on the previous one. Do you agree that this statement

M:Yes, sinners would be saved if they responded to the loving entreaties of God.


To be clear, you are disagreeing with what you said previously? Namely, this:

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I do not agree sinners must resist Jesus’ love to be lost.


Regarding your question to me, I don't think that sinners are either lost nor saved by default.
Posted By: Mountain Man

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 01/19/09 08:40 PM

Originally Posted By: Tom
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Again, Isa 53 does not explain why Jesus had to die. It merely describes how He died. It also says it pleased God to bruise him.

If you don't see that Isaiah 53 explains Christ's death, I don't think I can help you. I'm sorry about that.

I am amazed you think it does. Nowhere does it say so. It merely describes Him suffering. You are mistaken if you think it describes why Jesus had to die.

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Please show me where Moses explained why Jesus had to become a man and die on the cross. Genesis 3:15 does not explain why. Also, show me where Moses explained why the animal sacrifices symbolize the death of the Son of God.

T: I don't understand why you're requesting these things. What's your point?

Please.

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T:You say, "I don't see where Waggoner explained vital truths that cannot be found clearly explained in the SOP. Do you?" I certainly see vital truths they explained that you don't see present in her writings.

M:What vital truths are you referring to? And, how does my view differ from the view presented by Ellen and Elliot? Please post quotes from the SOP to support a view you believe contradicts what I believe. I cannot think of anything she taught that contradicts what I believe.

T: I already suggested a course of action. Read what Waggoner wrote, being open to the possibility that when you disagree with him that he's right. I already explained that simply reading the SOP isn't likely to help, because you'll simply read her the same way you've been reading her. My opinion is that you could use something to give you a different perspective.

She said that Waggoner could teach righteousness by faith better than she. You disagree with her on this, thinking she is clearer than Waggoner. I see another possibility. It might be that she is right about this, and that you are wrong. It might be that Waggoner's teachings are clearer than hers, and that you have been misunderstanding her teachings. So, again, my suggestion is that you read Waggoner's teachings with an open mind, ready to investigate candidly the areas where you disagree with him, open to changing your mind about his being wrong and disagreeing with the SOP.

If you wish a specific point to study, I would suggest the covenants, and I suggest you start by reading Waggoner's comments in "The Glad Tidings" to Gal. 3:16-18, as well as his comments to Gal. 4:24.

I'm getting the impression you do not want to take the time to prove that Waggoner explains RBF or the NC/OC "more clearly" than did Ellen. Fine. Suit yourself. But I'm not the only one who disagrees with you. It would serve you well to take the time to substantiate you claims. Simply saying it is so, or quoting the SOP as saying so, does not cut it any more. Please lay their quotes side-by-side and prove that he explains it "more clearly" than she does. That should settle it once and for all. But if you don't think you can do it, then please stop insisting it is so.

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T: I haven't said anything about this. I said that sinners would be saved if they didn't not resist Jesus' love. You said you did not believe this. I produced a couple of statements which say what I said, that if the sinner does not resist He will be saved.

M:Now that you've clarified what you meant, I have a different question I'd like you to answer. Here it is - Do you think sinners are lost by default? Or, do you think they are saved by default? If sinners do nothing at all are they lost or saved?

T: Before going on to a new question, how about some closure on the previous one. Do you agree that this statement

M:Yes, sinners would be saved if they responded to the loving entreaties of God.

T: To be clear, you are disagreeing with what you said previously? Namely, this: I do not agree sinners must resist Jesus’ love to be lost.

Regarding your question to me, I don't think that sinners are either lost nor saved by default.

I agree with both of my statements above. Sinners are lost until they embrace Jesus and abide in Him.

Please elaborate on what you mean by - "I don't think that sinners are either lost nor saved by default." If they are neither lost nor saved what are they? Are they lost because they have sinned? "All have sinned." Who does this exclude? Does it mean, Not all have sinned.
Posted By: Tom

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 01/19/09 11:36 PM

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I am amazed you think it does. Nowhere does it say so. It merely describes Him suffering. You are mistaken if you think it describes why Jesus had to die.


Perhaps. Perhaps your mistaken in not seeing something that many others have seen. Peter, to name one.

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I'm getting the impression you do not want to take the time to prove that Waggoner explains RBF or the NC/OC "more clearly" than did Ellen.


The proof is in her own comment. If you don't believe what she said about it, how could I possibly prove it?

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Fine. Suit yourself. But I'm not the only one who disagrees with you. It would serve you well to take the time to substantiate you claims. Simply saying it is so, or quoting the SOP as saying so, does not cut it any more. Please lay their quotes side-by-side and prove that he explains it "more clearly" than she does. That should settle it once and for all. But if you don't think you can do it, then please stop insisting it is so.


MM, I've laid out a course of action which I think would be helpful for you if you followed it. I've explained why I don't think your suggestion would work. You have a bias. You need to take a course of action which would allow for the bias to be corrected. This is, of course, simply my opinion, but given it is my opinion, I have suggested a way of proceeding which would have a chance of doing that.

It's not a question of my not being able to do what you have requested, but of my not believing it would serve a useful purpose. I have outlined what I believe might help, if you followed the suggestion.

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I agree with both of my statements above. Sinners are lost until they embrace Jesus and abide in Him.


I didn't ask this. I asked the following:

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T:Before going on to a new question, how about some closure on the previous one. Do you agree that this statement

"The light shining from the cross reveals the love of God. His love is drawing us to Himself. If we do not resist this drawing, we shall be led to the foot of the cross in repentance for the sins that have crucified the Saviour. Then the Spirit of God through faith produces a new life in the soul. (DA 176)"

T:says that if one does not resist one will be saved?


You responded:

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M:Yes, sinners would be saved if they responded to the loving entreaties of God.


Since this was a rejection of your previous statement, I asked for confirmation on this:

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To be clear, you are disagreeing with what you said previously? Namely, this:

M:I do not agree sinners must resist Jesus’ love to be lost.


You didn't respond to my question. Are you disagreeing with your previous statement that sinners must resist Jesus' love to be lost? I'm asking this because you said "yes" in answer to my question if you agreed that the statement I quoted taught that sinners must resist in order to be lost.

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Please elaborate on what you mean by - "I don't think that sinners are either lost nor saved by default." If they are neither lost nor saved what are they? Are they lost because they have sinned? "All have sinned." Who does this exclude? Does it mean, Not all have sinned.


People enter the world as infants, without the ability to reason. Before the age of accountability, their being saved or lost depends upon a range of factors, including things beyond their control (such as the spiritual condition of their parents). So they are neither saved nor lost by default.

The SOP says:

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None will ever come to Christ, save those who respond to the drawing of the Father's love. But God is drawing all hearts unto Him, and only those who resist His drawing will refuse to come to Christ.(DA 387)


This tells us no one can be lost unless they resist the drawing love of God.
Posted By: Mountain Man

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 01/20/09 10:15 PM

Originally Posted By: Tom
Quote:
I am amazed you think it does. Nowhere does it say so. It merely describes Him suffering. You are mistaken if you think it describes why Jesus had to die.

Perhaps. Perhaps your mistaken in not seeing something that many others have seen. Peter, to name one.

Please point out the verses that you feel describe why Jesus had to die, and then explain how you think they do it.

Quote:
M: I'm getting the impression you do not want to take the time to prove that Waggoner explains RBF or the NC/OC "more clearly" than did Ellen.

T: The proof is in her own comment. If you don't believe what she said about it, how could I possibly prove it?

You're right, I do not believe Ellen's comment applies to everything she wrote about it. It reflected her opinion at the time. I think she was being humble or modest. Taken as a whole her insights regarding RBF and the NC/OC are equally as clear as Elliot's explanations. Your unwillingness to place their insights side-by-side suggests you cannot prove your assertion that his insights are "more clearly" explained.

Quote:
M: Fine. Suit yourself. But I'm not the only one who disagrees with you. It would serve you well to take the time to substantiate you claims. Simply saying it is so, or quoting the SOP as saying so, does not cut it any more. Please lay their quotes side-by-side and prove that he explains it "more clearly" than she does. That should settle it once and for all. But if you don't think you can do it, then please stop insisting it is so.

T: MM, I've laid out a course of action which I think would be helpful for you if you followed it. I've explained why I don't think your suggestion would work. You have a bias. You need to take a course of action which would allow for the bias to be corrected. This is, of course, simply my opinion, but given it is my opinion, I have suggested a way of proceeding which would have a chance of doing that.

It's not a question of my not being able to do what you have requested, but of my not believing it would serve a useful purpose. I have outlined what I believe might help, if you followed the suggestion.

You are dodging the point. Either you don't want to spend the time or you know you can't prove your assertion. I have read and compared their insights on RBF and the NC/OC and I know he does not explain them "more clearly". I don't have a burden for people to believe otherwise.

Quote:
M: I agree with both of my statements above. Sinners are lost until they embrace Jesus and abide in Him.

T: I didn't ask this. I asked the following: Before going on to a new question, how about some closure on the previous one. Do you agree that this statement . . .

"The light shining from the cross reveals the love of God. His love is drawing us to Himself. If we do not resist this drawing, we shall be led to the foot of the cross in repentance for the sins that have crucified the Saviour. Then the Spirit of God through faith produces a new life in the soul. (DA 176)"

. . . says that if one does not resist one will be saved?

You responded: Yes, sinners would be saved if they responded to the loving entreaties of God. Since this was a rejection of your previous statement, I asked for confirmation on this: To be clear, you are disagreeing with what you said previously? Namely, this: I do not agree sinners must resist Jesus’ love to be lost.

You didn't respond to my question. Are you disagreeing with your previous statement that sinners must resist Jesus' love to be lost? I'm asking this because you said "yes" in answer to my question if you agreed that the statement I quoted taught that sinners must resist in order to be lost.

I'm not sure how to answer your question. Let me simply state what I believe. Sinners are lost until they embrace Jesus and abide in Him. Sinners must also resist Jesus' love to remain lost. If do not resist His love they will embrace Jesus be saved.

Quote:
M: Please elaborate on what you mean by - "I don't think that sinners are either lost nor saved by default." If they are neither lost nor saved what are they? Are they lost because they have sinned? "All have sinned." Who does this exclude? Does it mean, Not all have sinned.

T: People enter the world as infants, without the ability to reason. Before the age of accountability, their being saved or lost depends upon a range of factors, including things beyond their control (such as the spiritual condition of their parents). So they are neither saved nor lost by default. The SOP says:

Quote:
None will ever come to Christ, save those who respond to the drawing of the Father's love. But God is drawing all hearts unto Him, and only those who resist His drawing will refuse to come to Christ.(DA 387)

This tells us no one can be lost unless they resist the drawing love of God.

Are you saying some infants are lost and some are saved? Also, does "all have sinned" apply to infants? If not, why not?
Posted By: Mountain Man

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 01/20/09 10:18 PM

Originally Posted By: Tom
M: Please show me where Moses explained why Jesus had to become a man and die on the cross. Genesis 3:15 does not explain why. Also, show me where Moses explained why the animal sacrifices symbolize the death of the Son of God.

T: I don't understand why you're requesting these things. What's your point?

Please?
Posted By: Tom

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 01/21/09 12:34 AM

Quote:
Please point out the verses that you feel describe why Jesus had to die, and then explain how you think they do it.


I already posted the verses. Peter writes:

Quote:
21For even hereunto were ye called: because Christ also suffered for us, leaving us an example, that ye should follow his steps:

22Who did no sin, neither was guile found in his mouth:

23Who, when he was reviled, reviled not again; when he suffered, he threatened not; but committed himself to him that judgeth righteously:

24Who his own self bare our sins in his own body on the tree, that we, being dead to sins, should live unto righteousness: by whose stripes ye were healed.

25For ye were as sheep going astray; but are now returned unto the Shepherd and Bishop of your souls.(1 Pet. 2:22-25)


so this may help.

Quote:
You're right, I do not believe Ellen's comment applies to everything she wrote about it. It reflected her opinion at the time. I think she was being humble or modest. Taken as a whole her insights regarding RBF and the NC/OC are equally as clear as Elliot's explanations.


She was certainly a humble lady, but no, that wasn't her motivation in saying this. She explained that Waggoner had been given special light on the subject. Each one of us has our place in the body of Christ. She was fulfilling her role while Waggoner fulfilled his.

Quote:
Your unwillingness to place their insights side-by-side suggests you cannot prove your assertion that his insights are "more clearly" explained.


Here's something Jesus said when given a similar request:

Quote:
20And there was a certain beggar named Lazarus, which was laid at his gate, full of sores,

21And desiring to be fed with the crumbs which fell from the rich man's table: moreover the dogs came and licked his sores.

22And it came to pass, that the beggar died, and was carried by the angels into Abraham's bosom: the rich man also died, and was buried;

23And in hell he lift up his eyes, being in torments, and seeth Abraham afar off, and Lazarus in his bosom.

24And he cried and said, Father Abraham, have mercy on me, and send Lazarus, that he may dip the tip of his finger in water, and cool my tongue; for I am tormented in this flame.

25But Abraham said, Son, remember that thou in thy lifetime receivedst thy good things, and likewise Lazarus evil things: but now he is comforted, and thou art tormented.

26And beside all this, between us and you there is a great gulf fixed: so that they which would pass from hence to you cannot; neither can they pass to us, that would come from thence.

27Then he said, I pray thee therefore, father, that thou wouldest send him to my father's house:

28For I have five brethren; that he may testify unto them, lest they also come into this place of torment.

29Abraham saith unto him, They have Moses and the prophets; let them hear them.

30And he said, Nay, father Abraham: but if one went unto them from the dead, they will repent.

31And he said unto him, If they hear not Moses and the prophets, neither will they be persuaded, though one rose from the dead. (Luke 16)


If you choose not to believe Ellen White's own words on the matter, there's certainly nothing I could do to persuade you. I think you should consider reevaluating where the unwillingness is lying here.

Quote:
T: MM, I've laid out a course of action which I think would be helpful for you if you followed it. I've explained why I don't think your suggestion would work. You have a bias. You need to take a course of action which would allow for the bias to be corrected. This is, of course, simply my opinion, but given it is my opinion, I have suggested a way of proceeding which would have a chance of doing that.

It's not a question of my not being able to do what you have requested, but of my not believing it would serve a useful purpose. I have outlined what I believe might help, if you followed the suggestion.

M:You are dodging the point. Either you don't want to spend the time or you know you can't prove your assertion. I have read and compared their insights on RBF and the NC/OC and I know he does not explain them "more clearly". I don't have a burden for people to believe otherwise.


Again, MM, if you choose not to believe her words, there's nothing I could do to persuade you. The same principle applies as to what Christ said above. The best evidence on this question is what Ellen White said. If the best evidence is rejected, lesser evidence would be rejected as well, as Christ's parable points out.
Posted By: Mountain Man

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 02/06/09 09:49 PM

Tom, 1 Peter 2 commands Christians to patiently endure persecution like Jesus did. We are commanded to imitate Jesus' righteous example. But it doesn't explain why Jesus had to die. Verse 24 implies believers are dead to sin and awake to righteousness, they are healed by His stripes, therefore, they have the mind of Jesus, they are expected to be like Him.

Quote:
2:19 For this [is] thankworthy, if a man for conscience toward God endure grief, suffering wrongfully.
2:20 For what glory [is it], if, when ye be buffeted for your faults, ye shall take it patiently? but if, when ye do well, and suffer [for it], ye take it patiently, this [is] acceptable with God.
2:21 For even hereunto were ye called: because Christ also suffered for us, leaving us an example, that ye should follow his steps:
2:22 Who did no sin, neither was guile found in his mouth:
2:23 Who, when he was reviled, reviled not again; when he suffered, he threatened not; but committed [himself] to him that judgeth righteously:
2:24 Who his own self bare our sins in his own body on the tree, that we, being dead to sins, should live unto righteousness: by whose stripes ye were healed.
2:25 For ye were as sheep going astray; but are now returned unto the Shepherd and Bishop of your souls.

1 John 3 explains what Jesus accomplished while here. Listen:

3:4 Whosoever committeth sin transgresseth also the law: for sin is the transgression of the law.
3:5 And ye know that he was manifested to take away our sins; and in him is no sin.
3:6 Whosoever abideth in him sinneth not: whosoever sinneth hath not seen him, neither known him.
3:7 Little children, let no man deceive you: he that doeth righteousness is righteous, even as he is righteous.
3:8 He that committeth sin is of the devil; for the devil sinneth from the beginning. For this purpose the Son of God was manifested, that he might destroy the works of the devil.
3:9 Whosoever is born of God doth not commit sin; for his seed remaineth in him: and he cannot sin, because he is born of God.
Posted By: Mountain Man

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 02/06/09 09:56 PM

Tom, I am truly amazed you are unwilling to post passages that prove Waggoner explained certain truths "more clearly" than did Ellen. I realize she, at least at one point, felt Waggoner could explain some things more clearly than she could, but where is the proof? Please post an example of something he explained more clearly than she did.
Posted By: Mountain Man

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 02/06/09 09:57 PM

Originally Posted By: Tom
M: Please show me where Moses explained why Jesus had to become a man and die on the cross. Genesis 3:15 does not explain why. Also, show me where Moses explained why the animal sacrifices symbolize the death of the Son of God.

T: I don't understand why you're requesting these things. What's your point?

Please?
Posted By: Tom

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 02/06/09 11:07 PM

Regarding 1 Peter 2, and 1 Peter 3, Peter says Christ died to bring us to God.

Regarding your amazement regarding Waggoner's teaching rbf more clearly than EGW, this is something EGW herself said. If you don't believe her, why would you believe me? I think your amazement her is misplaced.

Regarding your question regarding Moses, I don't understand your point. If you will explain your point, I may be better able to address your question. Apparently, you're not even seeing how Peter explained the purpose for Christ's death, when he flat out said what it was. What Moses wrote would of necessity, being before the fact rather than after, would involve more to understand. Perhaps we could agree on what Peter said, and, assuming we can agree on this, move on from there.
Posted By: Mountain Man

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 02/07/09 12:38 AM

Tom, since Ellen said Waggoner explained it more clearly you shouldn't have any trouble posting an example. Please do so.

Do you agree with what I wrote about 1 John 3 quoted and highlighted above? I didn't see where you quoted from 1 Peter 3. I saw where you quoted from 1 Peter 2:22-25 but this passage simply says Christians should endure persecution patiently because Jesus did.

Regarding Moses I am simply asking you to post a quote where he explains why Jesus had to die or a quote that says the animal sacrifices symbolize the death of Jesus. There is no point. Just a request for quotes.
Posted By: Tom

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 02/08/09 06:19 AM

Quote:
Tom, since Ellen said Waggoner explained it more clearly you shouldn't have any trouble posting an example. Please do so.


Since she didn't do so, I see no reason why I should. She referred people over and over to the messages which God was sending through Jones and Waggoner, and I choose to do the same as she. She said there was great light in their messages, light which we would not have had without them (Jones and Waggoner), unless God sent someone else to bring that same light, and pointed people to that light.

Quote:
Do you agree with what I wrote about 1 John 3 quoted and highlighted above?


You didn't really write anything, did you? You just quoted it, right? I don't see anything to agree/disagree with other than what John wrote.

Quote:
I didn't see where you quoted from 1 Peter 3.


Peter express a similar thought in chapter 3 to what he said in 1 Pet. 2:24, 25.

Quote:
For Christ also hath once suffered for sins, the just for the unjust, that he might bring us to God


Christ died "that He might bring us to God."

Quote:
I saw where you quoted from 1 Peter 2:22-25 but this passage simply says Christians should endure persecution patiently because Jesus did.


I think I just quoted the last two verses, the main point being "For ye were as sheep going astray; but are now returned unto the Shepherd and Bishop of your souls."

Quote:
Regarding Moses I am simply asking you to post a quote where he explains why Jesus had to die or a quote that says the animal sacrifices symbolize the death of Jesus. There is no point. Just a request for quotes.


I don't understand this. A request like this should flow from the conversation in some way.
Posted By: Mountain Man

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 02/08/09 08:46 PM

Originally Posted By: Tom
. . . light which we would not have had without them . . .

Can we find this "light" in the SOP? Or, is it only found in J&W? Please explain.

Originally Posted By: Tom
M: Do you agree with what I wrote about 1 John 3 quoted and highlighted above?

T: You didn't really write anything, did you? You just quoted it, right? I don't see anything to agree/disagree with other than what John wrote.

Here's what I wrote about it:

1 John 3 explains what Jesus accomplished while here. Listen: ". . . he was manifested to take away our sins . . . For this purpose the Son of God was manifested, that he might destroy the works of the devil."

So, do you agree with me that Jesus accomplished these things while He was here?

Originally Posted By: Tom
Christ died "that He might bring us to God."

Amen! Do you think His death accomplished other things? If so, please explain and provide scriptures. Thank you.

Originally Posted By: Tom
M: I saw where you quoted from 1 Peter 2:22-25 but this passage simply says Christians should endure persecution patiently because Jesus did.

T: I think I just quoted the last two verses, the main point being "For ye were as sheep going astray; but are now returned unto the Shepherd and Bishop of your souls."

Actually you quoted all of 1 Peter 2:21-25. See 107710 above. How does returning unto Jesus like sheep explain why Jesus had to die? Also, do you agree with my assessment of 1 Peter 2:19-25?

Originally Posted By: Tom
M: Regarding Moses I am simply asking you to post a quote where he explains why Jesus had to die or a quote that says the animal sacrifices symbolize the death of Jesus. There is no point. Just a request for quotes.

T: I don't understand this. A request like this should flow from the conversation in some way.

Since you don't seem to mind quoting Peter to explain why Jesus had to die it seems reasonable to request that you quote Moses explaining why Jesus had to die.

I seem to remember earlier on this thread saying the Jews obeyed God's command to sacrifice animals without an explanation as to why. He simply expected them to obey Him. Someone argued that the Jews understood it symbolized Jesus' death and that their obedience was intelligent not slavish. I requested scripture proof. So far no one has posted any proof. I keep hoping you will.
Posted By: Tom

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 02/08/09 11:57 PM

1.Ellen White says it is light that we would not have had unless God had sent someone else to bring it.

2.I agree that Jesus accomplished the things that John said he did.

3.Regarding what Christ's death accomplished, we've had long discussions regarding this. I think the chapter "It Is Finished" provides a good summary. As a brief summary, EGW suggests that the whole purpose of Christ's mission on earth was the revelation of God. She quotes John 17, especially vss. 3, 4 and 7 I think (from memory). I already quoted Peter, who himself quote Isa. 53, so those are good verses. These discuss that Christ's death brings us to God, which I believe ties into the point made in John 17 (i.e., we are brought to God as a result of the revelation of His character). In addition, the death of Christ brought an end to the Great Controversy. Col. 2 comes to mind as a good text for this. Also Revelation 12, where it talks about how Satan was cast down.

Quote:
How does returning unto Jesus like sheep explain why Jesus had to die? Also, do you agree with my assessment of 1 Peter 2:19-25?


Returning to God is the same theme as 1 Peter 3:18. Christ's death brings us to God by revealing His goodness and love, as well as revealing our sinfulness (and hence need for His forgiveness).

I don't disagree with the points you made in regards to 1 Peter 2:19-25, but you didn't touch on the point I was making, which was the same as 1 Pet. 3:18, that Christ died to bring us to God. We have been discussing the purpose for Christ's death, so I didn't see how your points regarding 1 Pet. 2 tied into this.

Quote:
Since you don't seem to mind quoting Peter to explain why Jesus had to die it seems reasonable to request that you quote Moses explaining why Jesus had to die.


Why? Peter lived after Christ's death, while Moses lived before. It should be clear that this is a big difference. Are you looking for Moses explaining Jesus' death in the same was as Peter or Paul or John? Or did you have something else in mind?

Quote:
I seem to remember earlier on this thread saying the Jews obeyed God's command to sacrifice animals without an explanation as to why.


I don't recall saying this. Can you quote something?

Quote:
He simply expected them to obey Him. Someone argued that the Jews understood it symbolized Jesus' death and that their obedience was intelligent not slavish. I requested scripture proof. So far no one has posted any proof. I keep hoping you will.


I don't think I've said anything about this.

Quote:
While God has desired to teach men that from His own love comes the Gift which reconciles them to Himself, the archenemy of mankind has endeavored to represent God as one who delights in their destruction. Thus the sacrifices and the ordinances designed of Heaven to reveal divine love have been perverted to serve as means whereby sinners have vainly hoped to propitiate, with gifts and good works, the wrath of an offended God. (PK 685)


This isn't Scripture, but it brings out that God's purpose was to teach men that from His own love comes the Gift which reconciles them to Himself.

Another SOP quote:

Quote:
Beginning at Moses, the very Alpha of Bible history, Christ expounded in all the Scriptures the things concerning Himself. Had He first made Himself known to them, their hearts would have been satisfied. In the fullness of their joy they would have hungered for nothing more. But it was necessary for them to understand the witness borne to Him by the types and prophecies of the Old Testament. Upon these their faith must be established. Christ performed no miracle to convince them, but it was His first work to explain the Scriptures. They had looked upon His death as the destruction of all their hopes. Now He showed from the prophets that this was the very strongest evidence for their faith. (DA 798)


This is speaking of the road to Emmaus. She doesn't specify which prophecies were included, but she specifically mentions Moses.
Posted By: Mountain Man

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 02/10/09 01:04 AM

Originally Posted By: Tom
1. Ellen White says it is light that we would not have had unless God had sent someone else to bring it.

What is this light? Can we find it in the SOP? If so, where?

Quote:
2. I agree that Jesus accomplished the things that John said he did.

Do you think I agree with John? I ask this question because you didn’t answer my question above: “So, do you agree with me that Jesus accomplished these things while He was here?”

Quote:
3. Regarding what Christ's death accomplished, we've had long discussions regarding this. I think the chapter "It Is Finished" provides a good summary. As a brief summary, EGW suggests that the whole purpose of Christ's mission on earth was the revelation of God. She quotes John 17, especially vss. 3, 4 and 7 I think (from memory). I already quoted Peter, who himself quote Isa. 53, so those are good verses. These discuss that Christ's death brings us to God, which I believe ties into the point made in John 17 (i.e., we are brought to God as a result of the revelation of His character). In addition, the death of Christ brought an end to the Great Controversy. Col. 2 comes to mind as a good text for this. Also Revelation 12, where it talks about how Satan was cast down.

If Jesus’ death ended the GC why is it still waging? Also, I couldn’t help noticing you didn’t include vindicating the law as a reason why Jesus had to die. Why not? I also noticed you didn’t say anything about His death satisfying the just and loving demands of law and justice as it pertains to the death penalty. Why not?

Quote:
M: How does returning unto Jesus like sheep explain why Jesus had to die? Also, do you agree with my assessment of 1 Peter 2:19-25?

T: Returning to God is the same theme as 1 Peter 3:18. Christ's death brings us to God by revealing His goodness and love, as well as revealing our sinfulness (and hence need for His forgiveness).

I don't disagree with the points you made in regards to 1 Peter 2:19-25, but you didn't touch on the point I was making, which was the same as 1 Pet. 3:18, that Christ died to bring us to God. We have been discussing the purpose for Christ's death, so I didn't see how your points regarding 1 Pet. 2 tied into this.

Yeah, that’s what I thought, too. That is, I don’t see how 1 Peter 2:19-25 explains why Jesus had to die.

Quote:
M: Since you don't seem to mind quoting Peter to explain why Jesus had to die it seems reasonable to request that you quote Moses explaining why Jesus had to die.

T: Why? Peter lived after Christ's death, while Moses lived before. It should be clear that this is a big difference. Are you looking for Moses explaining Jesus' death in the same was as Peter or Paul or John? Or did you have something else in mind?

Yes, I am looking for where Moses explained to the Jews why God required them to sacrifice animals. Or, did God expect them to do it simply because He said so?

Quote:
M: I seem to remember earlier on this thread saying the Jews obeyed God's command to sacrifice animals without an explanation as to why.

T: I don't recall saying this. Can you quote something?

“I seem to remember . . . saying” it “earlier on this thread”.

Quote:
M: He simply expected them to obey Him. Someone argued that the Jews understood it symbolized Jesus' death and that their obedience was intelligent not slavish. I requested scripture proof. So far no one has posted any proof. I keep hoping you will.

T: I don't think I've said anything about this.

Yeah, I know. That’s why I keep hoping you will.

Quote:
While God has desired to teach men that from His own love comes the Gift which reconciles them to Himself, the archenemy of mankind has endeavored to represent God as one who delights in their destruction. Thus the sacrifices and the ordinances designed of Heaven to reveal divine love have been perverted to serve as means whereby sinners have vainly hoped to propitiate, with gifts and good works, the wrath of an offended God. (PK 685)

T: This isn't Scripture, but it brings out that God's purpose was to teach men that from His own love comes the Gift which reconciles them to Himself.

Another SOP quote: Beginning at Moses, the very Alpha of Bible history, Christ expounded in all the Scriptures the things concerning Himself. Had He first made Himself known to them, their hearts would have been satisfied. In the fullness of their joy they would have hungered for nothing more. But it was necessary for them to understand the witness borne to Him by the types and prophecies of the Old Testament. Upon these their faith must be established. Christ performed no miracle to convince them, but it was His first work to explain the Scriptures. They had looked upon His death as the destruction of all their hopes. Now He showed from the prophets that this was the very strongest evidence for their faith. (DA 798)

This is speaking of the road to Emmaus. She doesn't specify which prophecies were included, but she specifically mentions Moses.

Yes, the SOP is very clear about the symbolic nature of the animal sacrifices, but where in the Pentateuch is it clear? Or, did the Jews obey God out of ignorance not knowing the sacrifices prefigured the death of Jesus? If so, was such obedience slavish?
Posted By: Tom

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 02/10/09 02:52 AM

Quote:
T:Ellen White says it is light that we would not have had unless God had sent someone else to bring it.

M:What is this light? Can we find it in the SOP? If so, where?


The best source for the light which Jones and Waggoner brought is Jones and Waggoner.

Quote:
T:I agree that Jesus accomplished the things that John said he did.

Do you think I agree with John? I ask this question because you didn’t answer my question above: “So, do you agree with me that Jesus accomplished these things while He was here?”


All you did was quote John, wasn't it? What are asking that I agree with? Can you ask your question in your own words, instead of John's?

Quote:
If Jesus’ death ended the GC why is it still waging?


Christ's death decided the GC. That's what I meant by saying He brought it to an end.

Quote:
Also, I couldn’t help noticing you didn’t include vindicating the law as a reason why Jesus had to die. Why not? I also noticed you didn’t say anything about His death satisfying the just and loving demands of law and justice as it pertains to the death penalty. Why not?


I think these are included in the points I made. Specifically, deciding the GC does these things. For example, the law of God is a transcript of God's character, so vindicating God's character must of necessity vindicate the law of God.

Quote:
T:Returning to God is the same theme as 1 Peter 3:18. Christ's death brings us to God by revealing His goodness and love, as well as revealing our sinfulness (and hence need for His forgiveness).

I don't disagree with the points you made in regards to 1 Peter 2:19-25, but you didn't touch on the point I was making, which was the same as 1 Pet. 3:18, that Christ died to bring us to God. We have been discussing the purpose for Christ's death, so I didn't see how your points regarding 1 Pet. 2 tied into this.

M:Yeah, that’s what I thought, too. That is, I don’t see how 1 Peter 2:19-25 explains why Jesus had to die.


See the underlined portion (which 1 Pet. 2:25 speaks of)

Quote:
M:Yes, I am looking for where Moses explained to the Jews why God required them to sacrifice animals. Or, did God expect them to do it simply because He said so?


You're assuming that if Moses didn't explain the them why God required them to sacrifice animals, that they could not intelligently obey God, is that the point? So your argument is:

a.Moses did not explain to the Jews why they should sacrifice animals.
b.But they required to do so anyway.
c.Therefore their obedience was not an intelligent obedience.

So if Moses did not explain why God required sacrifice, then this would be proof that God requires "stupid" obedience (that is, obedience which is not intelligent obedience). This seems to be the argument you have in mind. If so, I can respond. But I'll wait for confirmation.

Quote:
M: He simply expected them to obey Him. Someone argued that the Jews understood it symbolized Jesus' death and that their obedience was intelligent not slavish. I requested scripture proof. So far no one has posted any proof. I keep hoping you will.

T: I don't think I've said anything about this.

M:Yeah, I know. That’s why I keep hoping you will.


I don't know why you would be hoping I would be providing Scriptural proof regarding something I had not commented on.

Quote:
T:This is speaking of the road to Emmaus. She doesn't specify which prophecies were included, but she specifically mentions Moses.

M:Yes, the SOP is very clear about the symbolic nature of the animal sacrifices, but where in the Pentateuch is it clear?


The where isn't the salient point; the "that" is. The point here is not that the SOP is very clear about the symbolic nature of the animal sacrifices, but that the SOP identified the OT as being clear. Where it is clear is not the point here, but *that* it was clear. We're not told which passages Christ used, but we are told that He did use passages, so there are such passages.

Quote:
Or, did the Jews obey God out of ignorance not knowing the sacrifices prefigured the death of Jesus? If so, was such obedience slavish?


How does this tie in with the Road to Emmaus?

To be clear here, I used SOP comments regarding the Road to Emmaus to make clear that Moses was used by Christ to explain His death. Given this is the case, the Jews did not need to "obey" God out of ignorance.
Posted By: Mountain Man

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 02/11/09 01:06 AM

Originally Posted By: Tom
T: Ellen White says it is light that we would not have had unless God had sent someone else to bring it.

M: What is this light? Can we find it in the SOP? If so, where?

T: The best source for the light which Jones and Waggoner brought is Jones and Waggoner.

What is this light? Can we find it in the SOP? If so, where?

Quote:
T: I agree that Jesus accomplished the things that John said he did.

M: Do you think I agree with John? I ask this question because you didn’t answer my question above: “So, do you agree with me that Jesus accomplished these things while He was here?”

T: All you did was quote John, wasn't it? What are asking that I agree with? Can you ask your question in your own words, instead of John's?

Do you think I believe Jesus accomplished the following things: 1) He took away our sins, and 2) He earned the right to destroy the works of the devil at the end of time? See 1 John 3:5,8.

Quote:
M: If Jesus’ death ended the GC why is it still waging?

T: Christ's death decided the GC. That's what I meant by saying He brought it to an end.

Decided what and for who?

Quote:
M: Also, I couldn’t help noticing you didn’t include vindicating the law as a reason why Jesus had to die. Why not? I also noticed you didn’t say anything about His death satisfying the just and loving demands of law and justice as it pertains to the death penalty. Why not?

T: I think these are included in the points I made. Specifically, deciding the GC does these things. For example, the law of God is a transcript of God's character, so vindicating God's character must of necessity vindicate the law of God.

Law requires God to execute the death penalty in consequence of man’s sin. That’s another reason why Jesus had to die. His death satisfies the death penalty require of God by law. Listen:

Justice demands that sin be not merely pardoned, but the death penalty must be executed. God, in the gift of His only-begotten Son, met both these requirements. By dying in man's stead, Christ exhausted the penalty and provided a pardon. {AG 139.2} In the plan of redemption there must be the shedding of blood, for death must come in consequence of man's sin. {Con 21.3}

Quote:
T:Returning to God is the same theme as 1 Peter 3:18. Christ's death brings us to God by revealing His goodness and love, as well as revealing our sinfulness (and hence need for His forgiveness).

I don't disagree with the points you made in regards to 1 Peter 2:19-25, but you didn't touch on the point I was making, which was the same as 1 Pet. 3:18, that Christ died to bring us to God. We have been discussing the purpose for Christ's death, so I didn't see how your points regarding 1 Pet. 2 tied into this.

M: Yeah, that’s what I thought, too. That is, I don’t see how 1 Peter 2:19-25 explains why Jesus had to die.

T: See the underlined portion (which 1 Pet. 2:25 speaks of)

“For ye were as sheep going astray; but are now returned unto the Shepherd and Bishop of your souls.” In what way do you think Peter meant sinners are “returned” to Jesus?

Quote:
M: Yes, I am looking for where Moses explained to the Jews why God required them to sacrifice animals. Or, did God expect them to do it simply because He said so?

T: You're assuming that if Moses didn't explain the them why God required them to sacrifice animals, that they could not intelligently obey God, is that the point? So your argument is:

a.Moses did not explain to the Jews why they should sacrifice animals.
b.But they required to do so anyway.
c.Therefore their obedience was not an intelligent obedience.

So if Moses did not explain why God required sacrifice, then this would be proof that God requires "stupid" obedience (that is, obedience which is not intelligent obedience). This seems to be the argument you have in mind. If so, I can respond. But I'll wait for confirmation.

Sort of. The fact Moses required the Jews to sacrifice animals, without explaining to them that it symbolizes the eventual death of Jesus, suggests they obeyed God for reasons that did not include understanding it prefigured the death of Jesus. This leads me to wonder what were the reasons the Jews relied on for obeying God in sacrificing animals. And, do those reasons qualify as slavish or intelligent obedience. So far you haven’t addressed this aspect of the issue. I hope you will.

Quote:
M: He simply expected them to obey Him. Someone argued that the Jews understood it symbolized Jesus' death and that their obedience was intelligent not slavish. I requested scripture proof. So far no one has posted any proof. I keep hoping you will.

T: I don't think I've said anything about this.

M: Yeah, I know. That’s why I keep hoping you will.

T: I don't know why you would be hoping I would be providing Scriptural proof regarding something I had not commented on.

Do you agree with the idea? If not, please explain why. If so, please post scripture to support it. Thank you.

Quote:
T: This is speaking of the road to Emmaus. She doesn't specify which prophecies were included, but she specifically mentions Moses.

M: Yes, the SOP is very clear about the symbolic nature of the animal sacrifices, but where in the Pentateuch is it clear?

T: The where isn't the salient point; the "that" is. The point here is not that the SOP is very clear about the symbolic nature of the animal sacrifices, but that the SOP identified the OT as being clear. Where it is clear is not the point here, but *that* it was clear. We're not told which passages Christ used, but we are told that He did use passages, so there are such passages.

Do you know of any passages in the Pentateuch where Moses explained to the Jews that the animal sacrifices symbolized the death of Jesus? I’m beginning to sense that you do not know where Moses explained it. It doesn’t matter to me if you can’t answer this question. I’m pretty certain Moses never recorded this explanation.

Also, the fact Jesus cited OT passages to prove Christ had to “suffer these things, and to enter into his glory” doesn’t mean Moses explained it clearly to the Jews back in the day. “And beginning at Moses and all the prophets, he expounded unto them in all the scriptures the things concerning himself.” Jesus “expounded” upon what Moses and the others wrote about it. Why? Perhaps it was because it wasn’t crystal clear. Perhaps it needed to be explained further by Jesus to be seen clearly.

Quote:
M: Or, did the Jews obey God out of ignorance not knowing the sacrifices prefigured the death of Jesus? If so, was such obedience slavish?

T: How does this tie in with the Road to Emmaus? To be clear here, I used SOP comments regarding the Road to Emmaus to make clear that Moses was used by Christ to explain His death. Given this is the case, the Jews did not need to "obey" God out of ignorance.

If it is as clearly explained in the Pentateuch as you seem to think it is, then you shouldn’t have any trouble posting those places where Moses clearly explained to the Jews that sacrificing animals symbolize the eventual death of Jesus. Please do so. Thank you.
Posted By: Tom

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 02/11/09 08:10 AM

Quote:
T: Ellen White says it is light that we would not have had unless God had sent someone else to bring it.

M: What is this light? Can we find it in the SOP? If so, where?

T: The best source for the light which Jones and Waggoner brought is Jones and Waggoner.

M:What is this light? Can we find it in the SOP? If so, where?


Since Ellen White wrote we would not have had the light unless someone other than Jones and Waggoner had brought it, that means it was not present in the SOP at the time she wrote this statement, since if it were her statement would be false, as we would have had it in her writings. So if it is to be found in the SOP, it would be found in her writings after this point in time. To locate in her writings the light Jones and Waggoner brought requires first knowing what that light is. The best way of knowing that is from their writings. I've suggested a couple of places to start.

Quote:
Do you think I believe Jesus accomplished the following things: 1) He took away our sins, and 2) He earned the right to destroy the works of the devil at the end of time? See 1 John 3:5,8.


If you say you do, I believe you. I don't understand what you mean by 2).

Quote:
M: If Jesus’ death ended the GC why is it still waging?

T: Christ's death decided the GC. That's what I meant by saying He brought it to an end.

M:Decided what and for who?


Decided the GC for the universe. The GC is a controversy between two individuals, both claiming to have the best interests of God's creatures at heart, and claiming the other to be a liar, severe, harsh, petty, seeking self-glory, and having their own interests at heart. Christ revealed who was telling the truth by unmasking Satan's character while revealing the Father's love.

Quote:
Law requires God to execute the death penalty in consequence of man’s sin.


1.Where does the law require this?
2.If this requirement did not exist, would beings who sin die? (second death)

Quote:
“For ye were as sheep going astray; but are now returned unto the Shepherd and Bishop of your souls.” In what way do you think Peter meant sinners are “returned” to Jesus?


In the same sense as 1 Pet. 3:18; they are brought to God. As EGW put it, the whole purpose of Christ's mission on earth was the revelation of God, to set men right with God. I think this is expressing the same idea as Peter (also of John in John 17, which is actually Jesus' idea, since John is quoting Jesus' prayer).

Quote:
T: You're assuming that if Moses didn't explain the them why God required them to sacrifice animals, that they could not intelligently obey God, is that the point? So your argument is:

a.Moses did not explain to the Jews why they should sacrifice animals.
b.But they required to do so anyway.
c.Therefore their obedience was not an intelligent obedience.

So if Moses did not explain why God required sacrifice, then this would be proof that God requires "stupid" obedience (that is, obedience which is not intelligent obedience). This seems to be the argument you have in mind. If so, I can respond. But I'll wait for confirmation.

M:Sort of. The fact Moses required the Jews to sacrifice animals, without explaining to them that it symbolizes the eventual death of Jesus, suggests they obeyed God for reasons that did not include understanding it prefigured the death of Jesus. This leads me to wonder what were the reasons the Jews relied on for obeying God in sacrificing animals. And, do those reasons qualify as slavish or intelligent obedience. So far you haven’t addressed this aspect of the issue. I hope you will.


You seem to be assuming that if Moses did not explain the meaning of the sacrifice, then the Jews could not have known why they were to sacrifice animals. But couldn't the reason why have been knowledge they already had? Or knowledge that was communicated by the sacrificial services themselves? For example, if God gave us commands to do certain things which involved televisions or cars, we have an understanding of these acts because televisions and cars are a part of our culture; these are things we are intimately familiar with.

Quote:
M: He simply expected them to obey Him. Someone argued that the Jews understood it symbolized Jesus' death and that their obedience was intelligent not slavish. I requested scripture proof. So far no one has posted any proof. I keep hoping you will.

T: I don't think I've said anything about this.

M: Yeah, I know. That’s why I keep hoping you will.

T: I don't know why you would be hoping I would be providing Scriptural proof regarding something I had not commented on.

M:Do you agree with the idea? If not, please explain why. If so, please post scripture to support it. Thank you.


You're asking for Scriptural proof that the Jews understood the sacrifices symbolized Christ's death? It seems clear that Abraham understood it. This seems clear from Genesis itself, and Paul makes this argument in many places, including Romans 4, Galatians 3 and Hebrews 11.

Quote:
Do you know of any passages in the Pentateuch where Moses explained to the Jews that the animal sacrifices symbolized the death of Jesus? I’m beginning to sense that you do not know where Moses explained it.


Look at the writings of Paul. They are founded on the OT writings, especially the Pentateuch. Paul explains Christ's death by means of these passages, especially in Romans and Galatians.

Quote:
It doesn’t matter to me if you can’t answer this question. I’m pretty certain Moses never recorded this explanation.


I don't understand why you would think this. Jesus said that Moses saw His day and wrote of Him. The NT writers, especially Paul, quoted extensively from Moses.

Quote:
Also, the fact Jesus cited OT passages to prove Christ had to “suffer these things, and to enter into his glory” doesn’t mean Moses explained it clearly to the Jews back in the day. “And beginning at Moses and all the prophets, he expounded unto them in all the scriptures the things concerning himself.” Jesus “expounded” upon what Moses and the others wrote about it. Why? Perhaps it was because it wasn’t crystal clear. Perhaps it needed to be explained further by Jesus to be seen clearly.


Paul seems to have understood Moses clearly. Perhaps the fault was not with Moses but with the Jews.

Quote:
M: Or, did the Jews obey God out of ignorance not knowing the sacrifices prefigured the death of Jesus? If so, was such obedience slavish?

T: How does this tie in with the Road to Emmaus? To be clear here, I used SOP comments regarding the Road to Emmaus to make clear that Moses was used by Christ to explain His death. Given this is the case, the Jews did not need to "obey" God out of ignorance.

M:If it is as clearly explained in the Pentateuch as you seem to think it is, then you shouldn’t have any trouble posting those places where Moses clearly explained to the Jews that sacrificing animals symbolize the eventual death of Jesus. Please do so. Thank you.


I would again refer you to the writings of Paul. He explains the Gospel clearly using passages from Moses.
Posted By: Mountain Man

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 02/11/09 10:08 PM

Originally Posted By: Tom
T: The best source for the light which Jones and Waggoner brought is Jones and Waggoner.

M: What is this light? Can we find it in the SOP? If so, where?

T: Since Ellen White wrote we would not have had the light unless someone other than Jones and Waggoner had brought it, that means it was not present in the SOP at the time she wrote this statement, since if it were her statement would be false, as we would have had it in her writings. So if it is to be found in the SOP, it would be found in her writings after this point in time. To locate in her writings the light Jones and Waggoner brought requires first knowing what that light is. The best way of knowing that is from their writings. I've suggested a couple of places to start.

I disagree. She didn’t say the message was nonexistent prior to J&W. It has existed from the foundation of the world. Here’s what she wrote about it:

Quote:
The Lord in His great mercy sent a most precious message to His people through Elders [E.J.] Waggoner and [A. T.] Jones. This message was to bring more prominently before the world the uplifted Saviour, the sacrifice for the sins of the whole world. It presented justification through faith in the Surety; it invited the people to receive the righteousness of Christ, which is made manifest in obedience to all the commandments of God. {LDE 200.1}

Many had lost sight of Jesus. They needed to have their eyes directed to His divine person, His merits, and His changeless love for the human family. All power is given into His hands, that He may dispense rich gifts unto men, imparting the priceless gift of His own righteousness to the helpless human agent. This is the message that God commanded to be given to the world. It is the third angel's message, which is to be proclaimed with a loud voice, and attended with the outpouring of His Spirit in a large measure.--TM 91, 92 (1895). {LDE 200.2}

As you can see, she said, “Many had lost sight of Jesus”, and that the message of J&W redirected their eyes to Him. She also wrote that their message was designed to bring Jesus “more prominently” to the world. These are things that God's messengers have been doing since the beginning of time, and things Ellen had been doing long before J&W did it.

Quote:
M: Do you think I believe Jesus accomplished the following things: 1) He took away our sins, and 2) He earned the right to destroy the works of the devil at the end of time? See 1 John 3:5,8.

T: If you say you do, I believe you. I don't understand what you mean by 2).

Thank you for believing me. The way I worded #2 above is what I think John means in 1 John 3:8 – “For this purpose the Son of God was manifested, that he might destroy the works of the devil.” Jesus will destroy the works of the devil (i.e. the sins of the world) with Satan in the lake of fire at the end of time. Of course, Jesus can also destroy the works of the devil by empowering believers to live without sinning.

Quote:
M: If Jesus’ death ended the GC why is it still waging?

T: Christ's death decided the GC. That's what I meant by saying He brought it to an end.

M: Decided what and for who?

T: Decided the GC for the universe. The GC is a controversy between two individuals, both claiming to have the best interests of God's creatures at heart, and claiming the other to be a liar, severe, harsh, petty, seeking self-glory, and having their own interests at heart. Christ revealed who was telling the truth by unmasking Satan's character while revealing the Father's love.

Satan also says it is impossible for FMAs to be all they can be plus live within the confines of the law. He says it is impossible to obey the law perfectly because it goes against our nature as gods. Satan says God is a tyrant for commanding FMAs to obey His law and promising to execute justice and judgment upon those who refuse to comply. The GC, therefore, will not end favorably for God until the 144,000 demonstrate the truth and benefit of obeying God’s law. That’s when Satan will finally be compelled to admit that he has been wrong all along about God and His law.

Quote:
M: Law requires God to execute the death penalty in consequence of man’s sin. That’s another reason why Jesus had to die. His death satisfies the death penalty require of God by law. Listen:

Justice demands that sin be not merely pardoned, but the death penalty must be executed. God, in the gift of His only-begotten Son, met both these requirements. By dying in man's stead, Christ exhausted the penalty and provided a pardon. {AG 139.2} In the plan of redemption there must be the shedding of blood, for death must come in consequence of man's sin. {Con 21.3}

T: 1. Where does the law require this? 2. If this requirement did not exist, would beings who sin die? (second death)

1. The quotes posted above confirm the truthfulness of what I wrote about law and justice and the substitutionary death of Jesus. 2. “Sin is not imputed when there is no law.” Rom 5:13. No law, no sin; no sin, no death. Of course, this is purely hypothetical because God is too wise and good to create FMAs without a law to govern them and Him. BTW, sinners could live indefinitely if God gave them access to eat from the tree of life. Listen:

I was pointed to Adam and Eve in Eden. They partook of the forbidden tree and were driven from the garden, and then the flaming sword was placed around the tree of life, lest they should partake of its fruit and be immortal sinners. The tree of life was to perpetuate immortality. I heard an angel ask, "Who of the family of Adam have passed the flaming sword and have partaken of the tree of life?" I heard another angel answer, "Not one of Adam's family has passed that flaming sword and partaken of that tree; therefore there is not an immortal sinner. The soul that sinneth it shall die an everlasting death--a death that will last forever, from which there will be no hope of a resurrection; and then the wrath of God will be appeased. {EW 51.2}

Quote:
M: “For ye were as sheep going astray; but are now returned unto the Shepherd and Bishop of your souls.” In what way do you think Peter meant sinners are “returned” to Jesus?

T: In the same sense as 1 Pet. 3:18; they are brought to God. As EGW put it, the whole purpose of Christ's mission on earth was the revelation of God, to set men right with God. I think this is expressing the same idea as Peter (also of John in John 17, which is actually Jesus' idea, since John is quoting Jesus' prayer).

Who brought the sheep back to the shepherd? What is symbolized by the sheep, the shepherd, and the person who brought the sheep back to the shepherd? And, how did that person bring them back?

Quote:
T: You're assuming that if Moses didn't explain the them why God required them to sacrifice animals, that they could not intelligently obey God, is that the point? So your argument is:

a.Moses did not explain to the Jews why they should sacrifice animals.
b.But they required to do so anyway.
c.Therefore their obedience was not an intelligent obedience.

So if Moses did not explain why God required sacrifice, then this would be proof that God requires "stupid" obedience (that is, obedience which is not intelligent obedience). This seems to be the argument you have in mind. If so, I can respond. But I'll wait for confirmation.

M: Sort of. The fact Moses required the Jews to sacrifice animals, without explaining to them that it symbolizes the eventual death of Jesus, suggests they obeyed God for reasons that did not include understanding it prefigured the death of Jesus. This leads me to wonder what were the reasons the Jews relied on for obeying God in sacrificing animals. And, do those reasons qualify as slavish or intelligent obedience. So far you haven’t addressed this aspect of the issue. I hope you will.

T: You seem to be assuming that if Moses did not explain the meaning of the sacrifice, then the Jews could not have known why they were to sacrifice animals. But couldn't the reason why have been knowledge they already had? Or knowledge that was communicated by the sacrificial services themselves? For example, if God gave us commands to do certain things which involved televisions or cars, we have an understanding of these acts because televisions and cars are a part of our culture; these are things we are intimately familiar with.

Are you suggesting Moses didn’t record it because it was common knowledge, and that the reasons they obeyed God’s command to sacrifice animals was indeed based on knowing it symbolized the eventual death of Jesus, therefore, their obedience was not slavish but intelligent?

Quote:
M: He simply expected them to obey Him. Someone argued that the Jews understood it symbolized Jesus' death and that their obedience was intelligent not slavish. I requested scripture proof. So far no one has posted any proof. I keep hoping you will.

T: I don't think I've said anything about this.

M: Yeah, I know. That’s why I keep hoping you will.

T: I don't know why you would be hoping I would be providing Scriptural proof regarding something I had not commented on.

M: Do you agree with the idea? If not, please explain why. If so, please post scripture to support it. Thank you.

T: You're asking for Scriptural proof that the Jews understood the sacrifices symbolized Christ's death? It seems clear that Abraham understood it. This seems clear from Genesis itself, and Paul makes this argument in many places, including Romans 4, Galatians 3 and Hebrews 11.

“Seems clear” and is clear are two entirely different realities. I’m guessing you cannot prove from the Pentateuch that the Jews understood that the animal sacrifices symbolized the eventual death of Jesus.

Quote:
M: Do you know of any passages in the Pentateuch where Moses explained to the Jews that the animal sacrifices symbolized the death of Jesus? I’m beginning to sense that you do not know where Moses explained it.

T: Look at the writings of Paul. They are founded on the OT writings, especially the Pentateuch. Paul explains Christ's death by means of these passages, especially in Romans and Galatians.

Every time you avoid or refuse posting passages from the Pentateuch that make it clear the animal sacrifices symbolize the eventual death of Jesus I am more convinced you can’t do it and that such passages do not exist. I agree with you that Paul understood it, but please post passages from him that clearly teach it.

Quote:
M: It doesn’t matter to me if you can’t answer this question. I’m pretty certain Moses never recorded this explanation.

T: I don't understand why you would think this. Jesus said that Moses saw His day and wrote of Him. The NT writers, especially Paul, quoted extensively from Moses.

Again, your unwillingness to quote from the Pentateuch is convincing evidence it isn’t there. Otherwise, you would post them freely like a slam dunk.

Quote:
M: Also, the fact Jesus cited OT passages to prove Christ had to “suffer these things, and to enter into his glory” doesn’t mean Moses explained it clearly to the Jews back in the day. “And beginning at Moses and all the prophets, he expounded unto them in all the scriptures the things concerning himself.” Jesus “expounded” upon what Moses and the others wrote about it. Why? Perhaps it was because it wasn’t crystal clear. Perhaps it needed to be explained further by Jesus to be seen clearly.

T: Paul seems to have understood Moses clearly. Perhaps the fault was not with Moses but with the Jews.

Perhaps. Please show me the passages in the Pentateuch which you believe the Jews failed to understand, passages that clearly explained it. Also, why do you think Jesus had to “expound” (elaborate, expand, and explain) the OT scriptures concerning Him if it was clearly spelled out?

Quote:
M: Or, did the Jews obey God out of ignorance not knowing the sacrifices prefigured the death of Jesus? If so, was such obedience slavish?

T: How does this tie in with the Road to Emmaus? To be clear here, I used SOP comments regarding the Road to Emmaus to make clear that Moses was used by Christ to explain His death. Given this is the case, the Jews did not need to "obey" God out of ignorance.

M: If it is as clearly explained in the Pentateuch as you seem to think it is, then you shouldn’t have any trouble posting those places where Moses clearly explained to the Jews that sacrificing animals symbolize the eventual death of Jesus. Please do so. Thank you.

T: I would again refer you to the writings of Paul. He explains the Gospel clearly using passages from Moses.

Isn’t it time you admit Moses didn’t clearly explain it? How long can you pretend he did and refuse to quote him? Either quote him or admit it isn’t there. Thank you.
Posted By: Tom

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 02/12/09 07:30 AM

Quote:
I disagree. She didn’t say the message was nonexistent prior to J&W.


She said they brought light we would not have had unless someone else had brought it.

Quote:
As you can see, she said, “Many had lost sight of Jesus”, and that the message of J&W redirected their eyes to Him. She also wrote that their message was designed to bring Jesus “more prominently” to the world. These are things that God's messengers have been doing since the beginning of time, and things Ellen had been doing long before J&W did it.


I don't understand what you have against Jones and Waggoner.

That others did things Jones and Waggoner did as well does not mean that Jones and Waggoner did not do things that others did.

Quote:
Thank you for believing me. The way I worded #2 above is what I think John means in 1 John 3:8 – “For this purpose the Son of God was manifested, that he might destroy the works of the devil.” Jesus will destroy the works of the devil (i.e. the sins of the world) with Satan in the lake of fire at the end of time. Of course, Jesus can also destroy the works of the devil by empowering believers to live without sinning.


In context, John is not discussing the destruction of Satan in the lake of fire.

Quote:
Jesus came to "destroy the works of the devil." "In Him was life," and He says, "I am come that they might have life, and that they might have it more abundantly." He is "a quickening spirit." 1 John 3:8; John 1:4; 10:10; 1 Corinthians 15:45. And He still has the same life-giving power as when on earth He healed the sick, and spoke forgiveness to the sinner. He "forgiveth all thine iniquities," He "healeth all thy diseases." Psalm 103:3. (DA 270)


I think John was thinking along the same lines as Ellen White brings out here.

Quote:
Satan also says it is impossible for FMAs to be all they can be plus live within the confines of the law. He says it is impossible to obey the law perfectly because it goes against our nature as gods. Satan says God is a tyrant for commanding FMAs to obey His law and promising to execute justice and judgment upon those who refuse to comply. The GC, therefore, will not end favorably for God until the 144,000 demonstrate the truth and benefit of obeying God’s law. That’s when Satan will finally be compelled to admit that he has been wrong all along about God and His law.


The cross was the deciding event that secured the universe.

Regarding my questions: 1. Where does the law require this? 2. If this requirement did not exist, would beings who sin die? (second death), I didn't see that your response addressed these. Specifically I don't see where you said the law requires death, and also I don't know if you think that if this requirement did not exist if beings who sin would still die.

I'm guessing you think sinners wouldn't did because you don't think that sin is lethal, but that sinners only die because God kills them (or destroys them, or casts them in the lake of fire, or engulfs them with fire from above, however you want to put it).

Quote:
T: In the same sense as 1 Pet. 3:18; they are brought to God. As EGW put it, the whole purpose of Christ's mission on earth was the revelation of God, to set men right with God. I think this is expressing the same idea as Peter (also of John in John 17, which is actually Jesus' idea, since John is quoting Jesus' prayer).

Who brought the sheep back to the shepherd? What is symbolized by the sheep, the shepherd, and the person who brought the sheep back to the shepherd? And, how did that person bring them back?


Christ, the shepherd, brings the sheep (repentant sinners) back to the fold, according to the means EGW mentioned that I quoted above.

Quote:
Are you suggesting Moses didn’t record it because it was common knowledge, and that the reasons they obeyed God’s command to sacrifice animals was indeed based on knowing it symbolized the eventual death of Jesus, therefore, their obedience was not slavish but intelligent?


I'm suggesting your suggestion that the Jews must not have known the meaning of sacrifice if Moses didn't tell them is not a sufficient argument as it does not take into account this possibility.

Quote:
“Seems clear” and is clear are two entirely different realities.


Writing "seems clear" is simply proper etiquette.

Quote:
I’m guessing you cannot prove from the Pentateuch that the Jews understood that the animal sacrifices symbolized the eventual death of Jesus.


This is a new request. Before you were asking for proof that Moses taught this. Why are you asking for proof that the Jews believed it?

Quote:
Every time you avoid or refuse posting passages from the Pentateuch that make it clear the animal sacrifices symbolize the eventual death of Jesus I am more convinced you can’t do it and that such passages do not exist. I agree with you that Paul understood it, but please post passages from him that clearly teach it.


I told you where they are.

Quote:
Again, your unwillingness to quote from the Pentateuch is convincing evidence it isn’t there. Otherwise, you would post them freely like a slam dunk.


Again I told you where to look. Look particularly in Galatians 3 and Romans 4. There are are couple of specific places to look where Paul his gospel argued from Moses. Really, there are so many places where Paul argues this, I'm surprised you would ask for proof. It's all over his writings.

Quote:
T: Paul seems to have understood Moses clearly. Perhaps the fault was not with Moses but with the Jews.

M:Perhaps. Please show me the passages in the Pentateuch which you believe the Jews failed to understand, passages that clearly explained it. Also, why do you think Jesus had to “expound” (elaborate, expand, and explain) the OT scriptures concerning Him if it was clearly spelled out?


2 Cor. 3 is another place to look. This speaks to the Jews blindness, and uses Moses to argue both in regards to Jesus' importance, and their blindness to it. I'd start with Gal. 3 however. The whole chapter is good, but you could focus on the first 18 verses.

Quote:
T: I would again refer you to the writings of Paul. He explains the Gospel clearly using passages from Moses.

M:Isn’t it time you admit Moses didn’t clearly explain it? How long can you pretend he did and refuse to quote him? Either quote him or admit it isn’t there. Thank you.


Moses didn't explain the Gospel? Really, I'm surprised you would assert such a thing. Here's a specific reference from Paul:

Quote:
6Even as Abraham believed God, and it was accounted to him for righteousness.

7Know ye therefore that they which are of faith, the same are the children of Abraham.

8And the scripture, foreseeing that God would justify the heathen through faith, preached before the gospel unto Abraham, saying, In thee shall all nations be blessed.

9So then they which be of faith are blessed with faithful Abraham.

10For as many as are of the works of the law are under the curse: for it is written, Cursed is every one that continueth not in all things which are written in the book of the law to do them.(Gal. 3)


Note that Paul says that God preached the Gospel to Abraham, and Paul was quoting Moses to so argue. Please also remember that the Gospel is Jesus Christ and Him crucified.
Posted By: Mountain Man

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 02/12/09 11:01 PM

Originally Posted By: Tom
M: I disagree. She didn’t say the message was nonexistent prior to J&W.

T: She said they brought light we would not have had unless someone else had brought it.

This doesn’t mean the light was nonexistent prior to J&W. Otherwise, the Bible is not a sufficient guide unto all truth and salvation. It was old light that seemed new because it had been largely forgotten.

Quote:
M: As you can see, she said, “Many had lost sight of Jesus”, and that the message of J&W redirected their eyes to Him. She also wrote that their message was designed to bring Jesus “more prominently” to the world. These are things that God's messengers have been doing since the beginning of time, and things Ellen had been doing long before J&W did it.

T: I don't understand what you have against Jones and Waggoner. That others did things Jones and Waggoner did as well does not mean that Jones and Waggoner did not do things that others did.

There is nothing new under the sun, Tom. J&W didn’t share anything that wasn’t first shared by someone else, especially in the Bible. What I have against J&W is their writing style. I prefer how Ellen shared the same message.

Quote:
M: Thank you for believing me. The way I worded #2 above is what I think John means in 1 John 3:8 – “For this purpose the Son of God was manifested, that he might destroy the works of the devil.” Jesus will destroy the works of the devil (i.e. the sins of the world) with Satan in the lake of fire at the end of time. Of course, Jesus can also destroy the works of the devil by empowering believers to live without sinning.

T: In context, John is not discussing the destruction of Satan in the lake of fire.

Quote:
Jesus came to "destroy the works of the devil." "In Him was life," and He says, "I am come that they might have life, and that they might have it more abundantly." He is "a quickening spirit." 1 John 3:8; John 1:4; 10:10; 1 Corinthians 15:45. And He still has the same life-giving power as when on earth He healed the sick, and spoke forgiveness to the sinner. He "forgiveth all thine iniquities," He "healeth all thy diseases." Psalm 103:3. (DA 270)

I think John was thinking along the same lines as Ellen White brings out here.

Yeah, that seems more to the point. Thank you for sharing. By the way, this just occurred to me, do you see a connection between John’s expression “the works of the devil” and Paul’s expression “the works of the flesh”? Here’s the context of Paul’s expression:

Galatians
5:19 Now the works of the flesh are manifest, which are [these]; Adultery, fornication, uncleanness, lasciviousness,
5:20 Idolatry, witchcraft, hatred, variance, emulations, wrath, strife, seditions, heresies,
5:21 Envyings, murders, drunkenness, revellings, and such like: of the which I tell you before, as I have also told [you] in time past, that they which do such things shall not inherit the kingdom of God.

Quote:
M: Satan also says it is impossible for FMAs to be all they can be plus live within the confines of the law. He says it is impossible to obey the law perfectly because it goes against our nature as gods. Satan says God is a tyrant for commanding FMAs to obey His law and promising to execute justice and judgment upon those who refuse to comply. The GC, therefore, will not end favorably for God until the 144,000 demonstrate the truth and benefit of obeying God’s law. That’s when Satan will finally be compelled to admit that he has been wrong all along about God and His law.

T: The cross was the deciding event that secured the universe.

True, but I was addressing a different issue. Jesus Himself could not prove beyond question that sinners can experience rebirth and live without sinning for the simple reason He never sinned and experienced rebirth. This aspect of the GC can only be settled by born again sinners. Jesus cannot win the GC until this happens. And, the universe will not be secure until after it happens. But it is as good as done because God said it will happen.

Quote:
M: 1. The quotes posted above confirm the truthfulness of what I wrote about law and justice and the substitutionary death of Jesus. 2. “Sin is not imputed when there is no law.” Rom 5:13. No law, no sin; no sin, no death. Of course, this is purely hypothetical because God is too wise and good to create FMAs without a law to govern them and Him. BTW, sinners could live indefinitely if God gave them access to eat from the tree of life.

T: Regarding my questions: 1. Where does the law require this? 2. If this requirement did not exist, would beings who sin die? (second death), I didn't see that your response addressed these. Specifically I don't see where you said the law requires death, and also I don't know if you think that if this requirement did not exist if beings who sin would still die. I'm guessing you think sinners wouldn't did because you don't think that sin is lethal, but that sinners only die because God kills them (or destroys them, or casts them in the lake of fire, or engulfs them with fire from above, however you want to put it).

Where does it say the law requires anything? As you like to argue – “The law is not a sentient being.” Of course, the SOP describes the law requiring obedience and condemning disobedience and requiring God to execute the death penalty in consequence of sin. But, to answer your question, I don’t know where the law requires anything (other than what God said about it through the SOP).

To add to what I posted above in response to your second question I also believe even if sinners had regular access to the tree of life they would die if someone lopped off their head. But it is clear that sin itself is not the reason sinners die. Sinners die a long lingering first death because they cannot eat regularly from the tree of life. Which is why there isn’t an immortal sinner. Unprotected exposure to the firelight of God’s glory, on the other hand, causes sinful flesh to burn up. In such cases, the death of the sinner is collateral damage. That’s why God had to shield His glory when He appeared unto Moses on the mount.

Quote:
T: In the same sense as 1 Pet. 3:18; they are brought to God. As EGW put it, the whole purpose of Christ's mission on earth was the revelation of God, to set men right with God. I think this is expressing the same idea as Peter (also of John in John 17, which is actually Jesus' idea, since John is quoting Jesus' prayer).

M: Who brought the sheep back to the shepherd? What is symbolized by the sheep, the shepherd, and the person who brought the sheep back to the shepherd? And, how did that person bring them back?

T: Christ, the shepherd, brings the sheep (repentant sinners) back to the fold, according to the means EGW mentioned that I quoted above.

Thank you for answering my question.

Quote:
M: Are you suggesting Moses didn’t record it because it was common knowledge, and that the reasons they obeyed God’s command to sacrifice animals was indeed based on knowing it symbolized the eventual death of Jesus, therefore, their obedience was not slavish but intelligent?

T: I'm suggesting your suggestion that the Jews must not have known the meaning of sacrifice if Moses didn't tell them is not a sufficient argument as it does not take into account this possibility.

You didn’t answer my question.

Quote:
M: I’m guessing you cannot prove from the Pentateuch that the Jews understood that the animal sacrifices symbolized the eventual death of Jesus.

T: This is a new request. Before you were asking for proof that Moses taught this. Why are you asking for proof that the Jews believed it?

I’m asking for proof for both. So far you have refused to provide it.

Quote:
M: Every time you avoid or refuse posting passages from the Pentateuch that make it clear the animal sacrifices symbolize the eventual death of Jesus I am more convinced you can’t do it and that such passages do not exist. I agree with you that Paul understood it, but please post passages from him that clearly teach it.

T: I told you where they are.

Nothing you referenced clearly taught it. Do you know of a Pauline passage that does?

Quote:
M: Again, your unwillingness to quote from the Pentateuch is convincing evidence it isn’t there. Otherwise, you would post them freely like a slam dunk.

T: Again I told you where to look. Look particularly in Galatians 3 and Romans 4. There are are couple of specific places to look where Paul his gospel argued from Moses. Really, there are so many places where Paul argues this, I'm surprised you would ask for proof. It's all over his writings.

Once you again you have not provided passages from the Pentateuch that clearly say it.

Quote:
T: Paul seems to have understood Moses clearly. Perhaps the fault was not with Moses but with the Jews.

M: Perhaps. Please show me the passages in the Pentateuch which you believe the Jews failed to understand, passages that clearly explained it. Also, why do you think Jesus had to “expound” (elaborate, expand, and explain) the OT scriptures concerning Him if it was clearly spelled out?

T: 2 Cor. 3 is another place to look. This speaks to the Jews blindness, and uses Moses to argue both in regards to Jesus' importance, and their blindness to it. I'd start with Gal. 3 however. The whole chapter is good, but you could focus on the first 18 verses.

I just reread Gal 3 and I didn’t see where Paul said, “Jesus had to die because …” The closest he got to saying it is in verse 3: “Christ hath redeemed us from the curse of the law, being made a curse for us: for it is written, Cursed is every one that hangeth on a tree.” Most likely Paul is referring to the following passage in Deuteronomy:

21:22 And if a man have committed a sin worthy of death, and he be to be put to death, and thou hang him on a tree:
21:23 His body shall not remain all night upon the tree, but thou shalt in any wise bury him that day; (for he that is hanged is accursed of God;) that thy land be not defiled, which the LORD thy God giveth thee for an inheritance.

Nor did I find anything in 2 Cor 3 where Paul plainly explained why Jesus had to die. The only thing he said about Moses is the following:

3:14 But their minds were blinded: for until this day remaineth the same veil untaken away in the reading of the old testament; which [veil] is done away in Christ.
3:15 But even unto this day, when Moses is read, the veil is upon their heart.
3:16 Nevertheless when it shall turn to the Lord, the veil shall be taken away.

Also, you didn’t answer the second question - Why do you think Jesus had to “expound” (elaborate, expand, and explain) the OT scriptures concerning Him if it was clearly spelled out?

Quote:
T: I would again refer you to the writings of Paul. He explains the Gospel clearly using passages from Moses.

M: Isn’t it time you admit Moses didn’t clearly explain it? How long can you pretend he did and refuse to quote him? Either quote him or admit it isn’t there. Thank you.

T: Moses didn't explain the Gospel?

I’ve been asking you to show me where Moses 1) clearly explained why Jesus had to die or 2) where he clearly explained that the animal sacrifices symbolize the eventual death of Jesus. So far you have refused to do it. Why?

Quote:
T: Please also remember that the Gospel is Jesus Christ and Him crucified.

Please show me where Moses 1) clearly explained that the gospel is Christ and Him crucified, and 2) clearly explained why Jesus had to die.
Posted By: Tom

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 02/13/09 01:45 AM

Quote:
M: I disagree. She didn’t say the message was nonexistent prior to J&W.

T: She said they brought light we would not have had unless someone else had brought it.

M:This doesn’t mean the light was nonexistent prior to J&W.


That's exactly what it means. If I say, "the Lord sent us light through MM which we would not have had unless the Lord sent someone else to bring that light," that means the light that was brought didn't exist before the Lord gave it to MM. This is simple logic.

Quote:
Otherwise, the Bible is not a sufficient guide unto all truth and salvation.


That doesn't follow it all. Light is progressive. The fact that the Lord is constantly sending new light does not mean the Bible is not a sufficient guide.

Quote:
T: I don't understand what you have against Jones and Waggoner. That others did things Jones and Waggoner did as well does not mean that Jones and Waggoner did not do things that others did.

M:There is nothing new under the sun, Tom.


Then there's no need to quote Ellen White, right?

Quote:
J&W didn’t share anything that wasn’t first shared by someone else, especially in the Bible. What I have against J&W is their writing style. I prefer how Ellen shared the same message.


I can't say anything about any personal preferences you may have, but Ellen White's opinion was that Waggoner could explain righteousness by faith better than she. Of course, you're free to disagree with her.

Quote:
Yeah, that seems more to the point. Thank you for sharing. By the way, this just occurred to me, do you see a connection between John’s expression “the works of the devil” and Paul’s expression “the works of the flesh”? Here’s the context of Paul’s expression:

Galatians
5:19 Now the works of the flesh are manifest, which are [these]; Adultery, fornication, uncleanness, lasciviousness,
5:20 Idolatry, witchcraft, hatred, variance, emulations, wrath, strife, seditions, heresies,
5:21 Envyings, murders, drunkenness, revellings, and such like: of the which I tell you before, as I have also told [you] in time past, that they which do such things shall not inherit the kingdom of God.


I think the works of the flesh are the result of the works of the devil. The work of the devil is primarily to foster unbelief -- distrust of God. If we don't trust God (love Him, believe in Him, live by His principles) the works of the flesh will follow.

Quote:
M:The GC, therefore, will not end favorably for God until the 144,000 demonstrate the truth and benefit of obeying God’s law. That’s when Satan will finally be compelled to admit that he has been wrong all along about God and His law.

T: The cross was the deciding event that secured the universe.

M:True, but I was addressing a different issue. Jesus Himself could not prove beyond question that sinners can experience rebirth and live without sinning for the simple reason He never sinned and experienced rebirth. This aspect of the GC can only be settled by born again sinners. Jesus cannot win the GC until this happens. And, the universe will not be secure until after it happens. But it is as good as done because God said it will happen.


I disagree with this, especially the last two sentences. The penultimate sentence I disagree with because we've been told that the universe has been made eternally secure by the cross. This is something which already happened. It is not something yet future.

Quote:
The argument he had brought forward, that self-denial was impossible with God, and therefore unjustly required from His created intelligences, was forever answered. Satan's claims were forever set aside. The heavenly universe was secured in eternal allegiance. (The Review and Herald, March 12, 1901; the context is speaking of the cross)


The last sentence I disagree with because if the GC could be resolved simply by God's saying something, there would have been no need to fight it in the first place.

Quote:
Where does it say the law requires anything? As you like to argue – “The law is not a sentient being.” Of course, the SOP describes the law requiring obedience and condemning disobedience and requiring God to execute the death penalty in consequence of sin. But, to answer your question, I don’t know where the law requires anything (other than what God said about it through the SOP).


I was actually thinking of Scripture here. That is, I was asking where in Scripture does the law require death for sinning? I think what Scripture does is describe what happens to those who sin; they die. For example, "The soul that sins shall die" or "and sin, when it is finished, brings forth death" or "The wages of sin is death" (also translated "Sin pages its wages: death") or "the sting of death is sin."

Quote:
To add to what I posted above in response to your second question I also believe even if sinners had regular access to the tree of life they would die if someone lopped off their head. But it is clear that sin itself is not the reason sinners die.


So sin does not result in death.

Here's why I disagree with this idea. In the first chapter of the Desire of Ages, the "law of life for the universe," is described, which is a law of giving. She speaks of "the circuit of beneficence" which is what she identifies as the "law of life." Now sin is in its essence selfishness. Selfishness is the antithesis of love. Selfishness does not give, but takes. As such, selfishness, and hence sin, can only result in death. Selfishness is not a principle which promotes life, but death.

Quote:
M: I’m guessing you cannot prove from the Pentateuch that the Jews understood that the animal sacrifices symbolized the eventual death of Jesus.

T: This is a new request. Before you were asking for proof that Moses taught this. Why are you asking for proof that the Jews believed it?

I’m asking for proof for both. So far you have refused to provide it.


So far? You've only asked once, just now. I'm asking why. This isn't even a claim I've made. Why are you asking me to prove something I've not said?

Regarding your questions regarding Moses and the Gospel, here's one example. Gal. 3 says, "The Scripture, foreseeing that God would justify the Gentiles by faith, preached the Gospel beforehand unto Abraham." This Gospel was recorded by Moses. The Gospel is Jesus Christ and Him crucified. So we see that Moses preached the Gospel, and thus Christ and Him crucified.

Both the books of Romans and Galatians are full of Scriptures from Moses, which Paul used to prove his Gospel. As Moses was held in such high esteem, it was natural that he should do this.
Posted By: Mountain Man

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 02/14/09 12:22 AM

Originally Posted By: Tom
T: She said they brought light we would not have had unless someone else had brought it.

M: This doesn’t mean the light was nonexistent prior to J&W. Otherwise, the Bible is not a sufficient guide unto all truth and salvation.

T: That doesn't follow it all. Light is progressive. The fact that the Lord is constantly sending new light does not mean the Bible is not a sufficient guide.

Are you suggesting J&W received and shared light not found in the Bible or in the SOP? Please explain.

Quote:
T: I don't understand what you have against Jones and Waggoner. That others did things Jones and Waggoner did as well does not mean that Jones and Waggoner did not do things that others did.

M: There is nothing new under the sun, Tom.

T: Then there's no need to quote Ellen White, right?

Wrong. God used the SOP to help us understand the Bible – not to add to the Bible. Do you agree? If not, please explain why.

Quote:
M: J&W didn’t share anything that wasn’t first shared by someone else, especially in the Bible. What I have against J&W is their writing style. I prefer how Ellen shared the same message.

T: I can't say anything about any personal preferences you may have, but Ellen White's opinion was that Waggoner could explain righteousness by faith better than she. Of course, you're free to disagree with her.

She is entitled to her opinion, but I happen to think she explains it better than he does. What she said about Waggoner was not a, Thus saith the Lord, as if God is mandating reading Waggoner’s explanation instead of White’s.

Quote:
M: Yeah, that seems more to the point. Thank you for sharing. By the way, this just occurred to me, do you see a connection between John’s expression “the works of the devil” and Paul’s expression “the works of the flesh”? Here’s the context of Paul’s expression:

Galatians
5:19 Now the works of the flesh are manifest, which are [these]; Adultery, fornication, uncleanness, lasciviousness,
5:20 Idolatry, witchcraft, hatred, variance, emulations, wrath, strife, seditions, heresies,
5:21 Envyings, murders, drunkenness, revellings, and such like: of the which I tell you before, as I have also told [you] in time past, that they which do such things shall not inherit the kingdom of God.

T: I think the works of the flesh are the result of the works of the devil. The work of the devil is primarily to foster unbelief -- distrust of God. If we don't trust God (love Him, believe in Him, live by His principles) the works of the flesh will follow.

How, then, did Jesus destroy the works of the devil (using your definition) while He was here in the flesh?

Quote:
M: The GC, therefore, will not end favorably for God until the 144,000 demonstrate the truth and benefit of obeying God’s law. That’s when Satan will finally be compelled to admit that he has been wrong all along about God and His law.

T: The cross was the deciding event that secured the universe.

M: True, but I was addressing a different issue. 1) Jesus Himself could not prove beyond question that sinners can experience rebirth and live without sinning for the simple reason He never sinned and experienced rebirth. 2) This aspect of the GC can only be settled by born again sinners. 3) Jesus cannot win the GC until this happens. 4) And, the universe will not be secure until after it happens. 5) But it is as good as done because God said it will happen.

T: I disagree with this, especially the last two sentences. The penultimate sentence I disagree with because we've been told that the universe has been made eternally secure by the cross. This is something which already happened. It is not something yet future.

Are you suggesting unfallen beings would be secure even if Jesus fails to produce the 144,000? And, what about the first point I made above?

Quote:
”The argument he had brought forward, that self-denial was impossible with God, and therefore unjustly required from His created intelligences, was forever answered. Satan's claims were forever set aside. The heavenly universe was secured in eternal allegiance. (The Review and Herald, March 12, 1901; the context is speaking of the cross)

T: The last sentence I disagree with [#5 above] because if the GC could be resolved simply by God's saying something, there would have been no need to fight it in the first place.

Take a closer look at the five points listed above. I didn’t say the GC could have been won by a word. The quote you posted above is founded on the fact God will win the GC in the way I described above.

Quote:
M: Where does it say the law requires anything? As you like to argue – “The law is not a sentient being.” Of course, the SOP describes the law requiring obedience and condemning disobedience and requiring God to execute the death penalty in consequence of sin. But, to answer your question, I don’t know where the law requires anything (other than what God said about it through the SOP).

T: I was actually thinking of Scripture here. That is, I was asking where in Scripture does the law require death for sinning? I think what Scripture does is describe what happens to those who sin; they die. For example, "The soul that sins shall die" or "and sin, when it is finished, brings forth death" or "The wages of sin is death" (also translated "Sin pages its wages: death") or "the sting of death is sin."

I like how your typo above rhymes. Yes, the Bible says the wages of sin is death, but it also goes on to spell out how, when, where, and why. That the law requires God to execute the death penalty in consequence of sin is clearly explained in the SOP.

Quote:
M: To add to what I posted above in response to your second question I also believe even if sinners had regular access to the tree of life they would die if someone lopped off their head. But it is clear that sin itself is not the reason sinners die.

T: So sin does not result in death.

M: Under certain circumstances sin results in the first death, but not in the second death. In order for the second death to occur, God must first resurrect sinners. It cannot happen naturally.

T: Here's why I disagree with this idea. In the first chapter of the Desire of Ages, the "law of life for the universe," is described, which is a law of giving. She speaks of "the circuit of beneficence" which is what she identifies as the "law of life." Now sin is in its essence selfishness. Selfishness is the antithesis of love. Selfishness does not give, but takes. As such, selfishness, and hence sin, can only result in death. Selfishness is not a principle which promotes life, but death.

I agree that the law of life is taking to give, but I disagree with you that sin results in death. If this were true, then what God said in Genesis 3:22 would have been impossible and therefore untrue. However, God cannot lie.

Quote:
T: Regarding your questions regarding Moses and the Gospel, here's one example. Gal. 3 says, "The Scripture, foreseeing that God would justify the Gentiles by faith, preached the Gospel beforehand unto Abraham." This Gospel was recorded by Moses. The Gospel is Jesus Christ and Him crucified. So we see that Moses preached the Gospel, and thus Christ and Him crucified.

Both the books of Romans and Galatians are full of Scriptures from Moses, which Paul used to prove his Gospel. As Moses was held in such high esteem, it was natural that he should do this.

None of the passages Paul quoted clearly explain why Jesus had to die. If such passages existed in the Pentateuch you would be posting them profusely and rebuking me for not admitting it. Please, Tom, settle this issue once and forever by quoting from the Pentateuch where Moses plainly explains it. Thank you.
Posted By: Tom

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 02/14/09 06:14 AM

Quote:
T: She said they brought light we would not have had unless someone else had brought it.

M: This doesn’t mean the light was nonexistent prior to J&W. Otherwise, the Bible is not a sufficient guide unto all truth and salvation.

T: That doesn't follow it all. Light is progressive. The fact that the Lord is constantly sending new light does not mean the Bible is not a sufficient guide.

M:Are you suggesting J&W received and shared light not found in the Bible or in the SOP? Please explain.


As I stated above, she said that Jones and Waggoner brought light that we would not have had unless someone else had brought it. I think that's clear enough. Here's the actual quote:

Quote:
If we place ourselves in a position that we will not recognize the light God sends or His messages to us, then we are in danger of sinning against the Holy Ghost. Then for us to turn and see if we can find some little thing that is done that we can hang some of our doubts upon and begin to question! The question is, has God sent the truth? Has God raised up these men to proclaim the truth? I say, yes, God has sent men to bring us the truth that we should not have had unless God had sent somebody to bring it to us. God has let me have a light of what His Spirit is, and therefore I accept it, and I no more dare to lift my hand against these persons, because it would be against Jesus Christ, who is to be recognized in His messengers. (1888 Mat. 608; emphasis mine)


The underlined portion is something I fear, as I see many who appear to be doing just this very thing.

Quote:
T: I don't understand what you have against Jones and Waggoner. That others did things Jones and Waggoner did as well does not mean that Jones and Waggoner did not do things that others did.

M: There is nothing new under the sun, Tom.

T: Then there's no need to quote Ellen White, right?

M:Wrong. God used the SOP to help us understand the Bible – not to add to the Bible. Do you agree? If not, please explain why.


You said there's nothing new under the sun, apparently as an excuse to dismiss Jones and Waggoner. This same excuse could be used to dismiss the SOP.

Quote:
T: I can't say anything about any personal preferences you may have, but Ellen White's opinion was that Waggoner could explain righteousness by faith better than she. Of course, you're free to disagree with her.

M:She is entitled to her opinion, but I happen to think she explains it better than he does. What she said about Waggoner was not a, Thus saith the Lord, as if God is mandating reading Waggoner’s explanation instead of White’s.


When you agree with something she says, you present it as proof. When you disagree you say some word does not mean what it normally means or dismiss it altogether.

Quote:
T: I think the works of the flesh are the result of the works of the devil. The work of the devil is primarily to foster unbelief -- distrust of God. If we don't trust God (love Him, believe in Him, live by His principles) the works of the flesh will follow.

M:How, then, did Jesus destroy the works of the devil (using your definition) while He was here in the flesh?


Good question! By revealing God's character.

Quote:
4) And, the universe will not be secure until after it happens. 5) But it is as good as done because God said it will happen.

T: I disagree with this, especially the last two sentences. The penultimate sentence I disagree with because we've been told that the universe has been made eternally secure by the cross. This is something which already happened. It is not something yet future.

M:Are you suggesting unfallen beings would be secure even if Jesus fails to produce the 144,000? And, what about the first point I made above?


Ellen White said that the universe was secured by the cross. This is what I was pointing out.

Quote:
T: The last sentence I disagree with [#5 above] because if the GC could be resolved simply by God's saying something, there would have been no need to fight it in the first place.

Take a closer look at the five points listed above. I didn’t say the GC could have been won by a word. The quote you posted above is founded on the fact God will win the GC in the way I described above.


You didn't quote what you said, that is, the sentence I was commenting on. You said something to the effect that something was as good as done because God said something. This is what I was responding to.

Quote:
(also translated "Sin pages its wages: death") or "the sting of death is sin."

M:I like how your typo above rhymes.


Yes, that's cool.

Quote:
Yes, the Bible says the wages of sin is death, but it also goes on to spell out how, when, where, and why. That the law requires God to execute the death penalty in consequence of sin is clearly explained in the SOP.


I asked where in Scripture the law says this. So far, you haven't said.

Quote:
I agree that the law of life is taking to give


Not taking to give, but receiving to give. Receiving from the hand of God.

Quote:
, but I disagree with you that sin results in death. If this were true, then what God said in Genesis 3:22 would have been impossible and therefore untrue. However, God cannot lie.


I've quoted from the Scriptures, that "sin, when it is finished, brings forth death." Here's how one translation puts it:

Quote:
Lust gets pregnant, and has a baby: sin! Sin grows up to adulthood, and becomes a real killer. (The Message)


Here's another:

Quote:
Our desires make us sin, and when sin is finished with us, it leaves us dead. (CEV)


Another one:

Quote:
15then lust, having conceived, gives birth to sin; but sin fully completed brings forth death. (Darby)


The most common translation is that sin "gives birth to death."

The SOP says that death is "the inevitable result of sin" (DA 764). So it is beyond me how you can assert that sin does not result in death.

You've never addressed the argument, as far as I can tell, that selfishness is not a principle which can sustain life. Would you please explain this?

To be clear what I'm asking, if sin does not does result in death, as you assert, and sin is in its essence selfishness, then it must be the case that selfishness does not lead to death. I find this idea very odd.

Quote:
None of the passages Paul quoted clearly explain why Jesus had to die. If such passages existed in the Pentateuch you would be posting them profusely and rebuking me for not admitting it. Please, Tom, settle this issue once and forever by quoting from the Pentateuch where Moses plainly explains it. Thank you.


1.Paul says that the Gospel is Jesus Christ and Him crucified.
2.Paul says that the Gospel was preached to Abraham, and this is recorded in Moses.
3.Therefore Moses preached Jesus Christ and Him crucified.

Do you agree with these points?
Posted By: Mountain Man

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 02/15/09 03:48 AM

Quote:
T: I think the works of the flesh are the result of the works of the devil. The work of the devil is primarily to foster unbelief -- distrust of God. If we don't trust God (love Him, believe in Him, live by His principles) the works of the flesh will follow.

M:How, then, did Jesus destroy the works of the devil (using your definition) while He was here in the flesh?

T: Good question! By revealing God's character.

How do you define the word “destroyed”? I ask this question because as I look around the world I see plenty of evidence that the works of the devil and the works of the flesh are very much alive and kicking.

Quote:
M:Are you suggesting unfallen beings would be secure even if Jesus fails to produce the 144,000?

T: Ellen White said that the universe was secured by the cross. This is what I was pointing out.

I know what you said, and it inspired a different question (see above), which you didn’t answer. If you refuse to answer it in your next response I will ask it again, so please, save me the trouble and just answer it. Thank you.

Quote:
Yes, the Bible says the wages of sin is death, but it also goes on to spell out how, when, where, and why. That the law requires God to execute the death penalty in consequence of sin is clearly explained in the SOP.

T: I asked where in Scripture the law says this. So far, you haven't said.

I don’t where in the Bible the law says anything about life or death. Do you? The law is rather brief. See Ex 20:3-17. It mostly says what to do and what not to do. It also says, “I the LORD thy God am a jealous God, visiting the iniquity of the fathers upon the children unto the third and fourth generation of them that hate me; and showing mercy unto thousands of them that love me, and keep my commandments.”

Quote:
M: I agree that the law of life is taking to give . . .

T: Not taking to give, but receiving to give. Receiving from the hand of God.

I had in mind DA 21 “. . . takes to give.”

Quote:
T: The most common translation is that sin "gives birth to death." The SOP says that death is "the inevitable result of sin" (DA 764). So it is beyond me how you can assert that sin does not result in death. You've never addressed the argument, as far as I can tell, that selfishness is not a principle which can sustain life. Would you please explain this? To be clear what I'm asking, if sin does not does result in death, as you assert, and sin is in its essence selfishness, then it must be the case that selfishness does not lead to death. I find this idea very odd.

Sin results in “sleep” from which there will be a resurrection “unto condemnation,” which is the “resurrection unto damnation.”

Quote:
None of the passages Paul quoted clearly explain why Jesus had to die. If such passages existed in the Pentateuch you would be posting them profusely and rebuking me for not admitting it. Please, Tom, settle this issue once and forever by quoting from the Pentateuch where Moses plainly explains it. Thank you.

T: Do you agree with these points?

1.Paul says that the Gospel is Jesus Christ and Him crucified.
2.Paul says that the Gospel was preached to Abraham, and this is recorded in Moses.
3.Therefore Moses preached Jesus Christ and Him crucified.

No, I don’t agree. Nowhere does Paul quote from the Pentateuch where Moses clearly explains why Jesus had to die. Also, not once does Paul explain in the context of the gospel why Jesus had to die. Nor does he use words crucified and gospel in close proximity. Listen:

Romans
2:16 In the day when God shall judge the secrets of men by Jesus Christ according to my gospel.
16:25 Now to him that is of power to stablish you according to my gospel, and the preaching of Jesus Christ, according to the revelation of the mystery, which was kept secret since the world began,

Galatians
3:8 And the scripture, foreseeing that God would justify the heathen through faith, preached before the gospel unto Abraham, [saying], In thee shall all nations be blessed.

2 Thessalonians
1:8 In flaming fire taking vengeance on them that know not God, and that obey not the gospel of our Lord Jesus Christ:
1:9 Who shall be punished with everlasting destruction from the presence of the Lord, and from the glory of his power;

2 Timothy
1:10 But is now made manifest by the appearing of our Saviour Jesus Christ, who hath abolished death, and hath brought life and immortality to light through the gospel:
2:8 Remember that Jesus Christ of the seed of David was raised from the dead according to my gospel:
Posted By: Tom

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 02/15/09 04:17 AM

Quote:
How do you define the word “destroyed”? I ask this question because as I look around the world I see plenty of evidence that the works of the devil and the works of the flesh are very much alive and kicking.


You mean "destroy"? John says that Jesus Christ came to destroy the works of the devil. Immediately after that he said that those who are born again do not continue to sin, so in context to destroy the works of the devil is to free one from sin, which happens to those who are born again, or converted. The reason you see the evidence you do is because many choose not to be converted.

Quote:
M:Are you suggesting unfallen beings would be secure even if Jesus fails to produce the 144,000?

T: Ellen White said that the universe was secured by the cross. This is what I was pointing out.

M:I know what you said, and it inspired a different question (see above), which you didn’t answer. If you refuse to answer it in your next response I will ask it again, so please, save me the trouble and just answer it. Thank you.


No, I wasn't suggesting that. I was suggesting what I said, that the universe was secured by the cross, which is what we were discussing. You said, "4) And, the universe will not be secure until after it happens," so I pointed out the SOP statement that says the universe was secured by the cross, to point out that this is when this happened.

Quote:
T: I asked where in Scripture the law says this. So far, you haven't said.

M:I don’t where in the Bible the law says anything about life or death. Do you? The law is rather brief. See Ex 20:3-17. It mostly says what to do and what not to do. It also says, “I the LORD thy God am a jealous God, visiting the iniquity of the fathers upon the children unto the third and fourth generation of them that hate me; and showing mercy unto thousands of them that love me, and keep my commandments.”


I agree with you that the law does not say the things you were claiming it did.

Quote:
I had in mind DA 21 “. . . takes to give.”


Ok.

Quote:
T: The most common translation is that sin "gives birth to death." The SOP says that death is "the inevitable result of sin" (DA 764). So it is beyond me how you can assert that sin does not result in death. You've never addressed the argument, as far as I can tell, that selfishness is not a principle which can sustain life. Would you please explain this? To be clear what I'm asking, if sin does not does result in death, as you assert, and sin is in its essence selfishness, then it must be the case that selfishness does not lead to death. I find this idea very odd.

M:Sin results in “sleep” from which there will be a resurrection “unto condemnation,” which is the “resurrection unto damnation.”


The death referred to in Scripture is not sleep, but the second death. Anyway, I'm still not understanding how you can think that selfishness could support life.

Quote:
T: Do you agree with these points?

1.Paul says that the Gospel is Jesus Christ and Him crucified.
2.Paul says that the Gospel was preached to Abraham, and this is recorded in Moses.
3.Therefore Moses preached Jesus Christ and Him crucified.

M:No, I don’t agree.


Which point do you disagree with?

Quote:
Also, not once does Paul explain in the context of the gospel why Jesus had to die.


So you're saying that Paul did not explain Christ's death in the context of the Gospel? So not only Moses didn't explain it, but Paul as well? Do you think anybody did?
Posted By: Mountain Man

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 02/15/09 11:59 PM

Originally Posted By: Tom
M: How do you define the word “destroyed”? I ask this question because as I look around the world I see plenty of evidence that the works of the devil and the works of the flesh are very much alive and kicking.

T: You mean "destroy"? John says that Jesus Christ came to destroy the works of the devil. Immediately after that he said that those who are born again do not continue to sin, so in context to destroy the works of the devil is to free one from sin, which happens to those who are born again, or converted. The reason you see the evidence you do is because many choose not to be converted.

Amen! But your explanation applies more to my view of rebirth than it does to yours. According to your view people are born again ignorantly practicing many of the sinful habits they cultivated prior to rebirth. Thus, the works of the devil and the works of the flesh are very much alive and kicking.

Quote:
M:Are you suggesting unfallen beings would be secure even if Jesus fails to produce the 144,000?

T: Ellen White said that the universe was secured by the cross. This is what I was pointing out.

M:I know what you said, and it inspired a different question (see above), which you didn’t answer. If you refuse to answer it in your next response I will ask it again, so please, save me the trouble and just answer it. Thank you.

T: No, I wasn't suggesting that. I was suggesting what I said, that the universe was secured by the cross, which is what we were discussing. You said, "4) And, the universe will not be secure until after it happens," so I pointed out the SOP statement that says the universe was secured by the cross, to point out that this is when this happened.

You have an amazing way of making me work like a dog to get you to answer my questions. Reminds me of, "Who's on first?" Let me see if I can ask the question in such a way you feel compelled to answer my question in such a way I never have to ask it again. Unless, of course, you're responding to my question the way I respond to Kland's questions, in which case I will stop asking questions.

At any rate, here goes. If the 144,000 fail to materialize, will the universe be secure? Please elaborate. Thank you.

Quote:
T: I asked where in Scripture the law says this. So far, you haven't said.

M:I don’t know where in the Bible the law says anything about life or death. Do you? The law is rather brief. See Ex 20:3-17. It mostly says what to do and what not to do. It also says, “I the LORD thy God am a jealous God, visiting the iniquity of the fathers upon the children unto the third and fourth generation of them that hate me; and showing mercy unto thousands of them that love me, and keep my commandments.”

T: I agree with you that the law does not say the things you were claiming it did.

I take it, then, that you agree the law doesn't affirm your contradicting view either. Is that right?

Quote:
T: The most common translation is that sin "gives birth to death." The SOP says that death is "the inevitable result of sin" (DA 764). So it is beyond me how you can assert that sin does not result in death. You've never addressed the argument, as far as I can tell, that selfishness is not a principle which can sustain life. Would you please explain this? To be clear what I'm asking, if sin does not does result in death, as you assert, and sin is in its essence selfishness, then it must be the case that selfishness does not lead to death. I find this idea very odd.

M: Sin results in “sleep” from which there will be a resurrection “unto condemnation,” which is the “resurrection unto damnation.”

T: The death referred to in Scripture is not sleep, but the second death. Anyway, I'm still not understanding how you can think that selfishness could support life.

If sin results in death, why, then, are people able to live to be 100 years old? Obviously there is something wrong with your observations.

Also, if sin results in death, why, then, did God station an angel to prevent sinners from accessing the tree of life? Please answer this question (as opposed to ignoring it).

Quote:
T: Do you agree with these points?

1.Paul says that the Gospel is Jesus Christ and Him crucified.
2.Paul says that the Gospel was preached to Abraham, and this is recorded in Moses.
3.Therefore Moses preached Jesus Christ and Him crucified.

M:No, I don’t agree.

T: Which point do you disagree with?

All of them. Paul did not say the gospel is Christ and Him crucified. Nor did Moses say what Paul said about Abraham. And, nowhere did Moses say Jesus would die.

Quote:
M: Also, not once does Paul explain in the context of the gospel why Jesus had to die.

T: So you're saying that Paul did not explain Christ's death in the context of the Gospel? So not only Moses didn't explain it, but Paul as well? Do you think anybody did?

Apparently you agree with me since you have been unwilling, and mostly likely unable, to post passages which clearly explain why Jesus had to die. I've asked this question zillions of times and you have consistently refused to answer it. You are reduced to using logical deduction, which hasn't proven logical at all. Put the issue to rest by simply posting all those passages you keep alluding to but never post.

By the way, yes, I do think somebody has explained it clearly.
Posted By: Tom

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 02/16/09 03:01 AM

Quote:
Amen! But your explanation applies more to my view of rebirth than it does to yours. According to your view people are born again ignorantly practicing many of the sinful habits they cultivated prior to rebirth. Thus, the works of the devil and the works of the flesh are very much alive and kicking.


Don't you believe that people may be born again ignorantly practicing sinful habits, like smoking, Sabbath-breaking, drinking, polygamy, living together?

Quote:
M:I know what you said, and it inspired a different question (see above), which you didn’t answer. If you refuse to answer it in your next response I will ask it again, so please, save me the trouble and just answer it. Thank you.

T: No, I wasn't suggesting that. I was suggesting what I said, that the universe was secured by the cross, which is what we were discussing. You said, "4) And, the universe will not be secure until after it happens," so I pointed out the SOP statement that says the universe was secured by the cross, to point out that this is when this happened.

You have an amazing way of making me work like a dog to get you to answer my questions.


You have an amazing way of not acknowledging when you're in error. You've been saying the universe has not been made secure, but the SOP says it was made secure by the cross. Before jumping to some new question, it would be nice if you would acknowledge points on questions which have already been raised.

Quote:
Unless, of course, you're responding to my question the way I respond to Kland's questions, in which case I will stop asking questions.


What does this mean?

Quote:
If the 144,000 fail to materialize, will the universe be secure? Please elaborate. Thank you.


I don't see this as a possibility. It would be like asking, "If Jesus Christ did not come again, will the universe be secure?" Certainly the answer is no, the universe would not be secure if Jesus Christ did not come again, but does that mean the universe is not secure now? I don't think so, especially since we've been told that the universe was made secure by the cross.

Quote:
T: I agree with you that the law does not say the things you were claiming it did.

M:I take it, then, that you agree the law doesn't affirm your contradicting view either. Is that right?


What? You're asserting the law says something. I asked where. You then say it doesn't, which I agree with. My view is that you're view was wrong. If you agree with me that you were wrong, then we're in agreement.

Quote:
T: The death referred to in Scripture is not sleep, but the second death. Anyway, I'm still not understanding how you can think that selfishness could support life.

M:If sin results in death, why, then, are people able to live to be 100 years old?


As I've pointed out to you many times, this is dealing with the second death.

Quote:
Obviously there is something wrong with your observations.


Perhaps there's something wrong with your comprehension.

Quote:
Also, if sin results in death, why, then, did God station an angel to prevent sinners from accessing the tree of life? Please answer this question (as opposed to ignoring it).


MM, you keep asking the same things over and over again. I answered this in great detail. It's not ignoring your question if I answer it and you forget what I said.

In brief, that sin results in death is not in doubt:

Quote:
Had Satan and his host then been left to reap the full result of their sin, they would have perished; but it would not have been apparent to heavenly beings that this was the inevitable result of sin.(DA 764)


This says that had Satan been left to reap the full result of their sin, they would have died. Furthermore it calls death "the inevitable result of sin." So that death is the inevitable result of sin is clear.

Regarding why God did not want Adam and Eve to eat of the tree of life, it is because He did not want to perpetuate suffering. After the GC is ended, and Christ comes again, then a world can exist without misery and suffering, and life can be perpetuated without reservation.

Quote:
T: Do you agree with these points?

1.Paul says that the Gospel is Jesus Christ and Him crucified.
2.Paul says that the Gospel was preached to Abraham, and this is recorded in Moses.
3.Therefore Moses preached Jesus Christ and Him crucified.

M:No, I don’t agree.

T: Which point do you disagree with?

All of them. Paul did not say the gospel is Christ and Him crucified. Nor did Moses say what Paul said about Abraham. And, nowhere did Moses say Jesus would die.


Ok, let's look at each point. First of all, that the Gospel is Jesus Christ and Him crucified.

Quote:
For I determined not to know any thing among you, save Jesus Christ, and him crucified'
(1 Corinthians 2:2).


Here Paul says he was determined to know nothing except Jesus Christ and Him crucified. A few verses earlier he wrote:

Quote:
For Christ did not send me to baptize, but to preach the gospel—not with wisdom and eloquence, lest the cross of Christ be emptied of its power.(1 Cor. 1:17)


I think this should be sufficient to establish point 1, since Paul was determined to know nothing but Jesus Christ and Him crucified, and while saying this he was preaching the Gospel, the presentation of which meant the cross of Christ being presented with power.

Regarding point 2, that Paul says that the Gospel was reached to Abraham:

Quote:
And the scripture, foreseeing that God would justify the heathen through faith, preached before the gospel unto Abraham, saying, In thee shall all nations be blessed.(Gal. 3:8)


So this established point 2.

Regarding point 3, that this is recorded in Moses, this is also established in the above quote, since Paul was quoting Moses to establish that the Gospel was preached to Abraham.

Quote:
M: Also, not once does Paul explain in the context of the gospel why Jesus had to die.

T: So you're saying that Paul did not explain Christ's death in the context of the Gospel? So not only Moses didn't explain it, but Paul as well? Do you think anybody did?

M:Apparently you agree with me since you have been unwilling, and mostly likely unable, to post passages which clearly explain why Jesus had to die. I've asked this question zillions of times and you have consistently refused to answer it.


I've answered it repeatedly. I've pointed you to specific passages. I've quoted specific verses. You're free to disagree, and continue asserting that neither Moses nor Paul explained why Jesus had to die, but it's not just to assert I am "consistently refusing" to answer your question. I've suggested you take a look at Galatians 3 and Romans 4. Here's something from Romans 4:

Quote:
23The words "it was credited to him" were written not for him alone, 24but also for us, to whom God will credit righteousness—for us who believe in him who raised Jesus our Lord from the dead. 25He was delivered over to death for our sins and was raised to life for our justification.


2 Cor. 5:21 tells us that Christ was made to be sin for us that we might be made the righteousness of God.

In Romans 3 Paul wrote:

Quote:
25God presented him as a sacrifice of atonement, through faith in his blood. He did this to demonstrate his justice, because in his forbearance he had left the sins committed beforehand unpunished— 26he did it to demonstrate his justice at the present time, so as to be just and the one who justifies those who have faith in Jesus.


Surely you've read these things. I don't understand how you can read Paul and not understand that his Gospel explains why Jesus Christ had to die. I've never heard anyone suggest this. There's certainly no point in discussing Moses if you can't see Christ's death explained in Paul's preaching.

Quote:
You are reduced to using logical deduction, which hasn't proven logical at all. Put the issue to rest by simply posting all those passages you keep alluding to but never post.

By the way, yes, I do think somebody has explained it clearly.


But not Paul? Or Moses? How about Jesus Christ? Did He explain it? Or any Scripture writer? Is there any Scripture writer that you see as explaining why Christ had to die? If so, who?
Posted By: Mountain Man

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 02/16/09 09:26 PM

Originally Posted By: Tom
M: Amen! But your explanation applies more to my view of rebirth than it does to yours. According to your view people are born again ignorantly practicing many of the sinful habits they cultivated prior to rebirth. Thus, the works of the devil and the works of the flesh are very much alive and kicking.

T: Don't you believe that people may be born again ignorantly practicing sinful habits, like smoking, Sabbath-breaking, drinking, polygamy, living together?

Yes, and in such cases some of the works of the devil are alive and kicking. However, I also happen to believe there are times when people experience rebirth (i.e. old man habits crucified) and conversion (i.e. obeying everything Jesus commanded) simultaneously. In such cases, the works of the devil are destroyed. Your view does not allow for such cases.

Quote:
M:I know what you said, and it inspired a different question (see above), which you didn’t answer. If you refuse to answer it in your next response I will ask it again, so please, save me the trouble and just answer it. Thank you.

T: No, I wasn't suggesting that. I was suggesting what I said, that the universe was secured by the cross, which is what we were discussing. You said, "4) And, the universe will not be secure until after it happens," so I pointed out the SOP statement that says the universe was secured by the cross, to point out that this is when this happened.

M: You have an amazing way of making me work like a dog to get you to answer my questions.

T: You have an amazing way of not acknowledging when you're in error. You've been saying the universe has not been made secure, but the SOP says it was made secure by the cross. Before jumping to some new question, it would be nice if you would acknowledge points on questions which have already been raised.

I believe the universe was made secure at the cross. I also believe it has been secure from the moment Jesus became the Lamb slain from the foundation of the world. I also believe it hinges on the 144,000 demonstrating the benefits of Jesus’ blood during the time of trouble. All these things have been living realities in minds of unfallen beings since the day Jesus first proclaimed them.

Quote:
M: Unless, of course, you're responding to my question the way I respond to Kland's questions, in which case I will stop asking questions.

T: What does this mean?

I don’t enjoy his questions and comments, and I answer them briefly just to be nice. His posts are not rewarding to read. If you feel this way about me, please let me know, and you’ll never hear from me again.

Quote:
M: If the 144,000 fail to materialize, will the universe be secure? Please elaborate. Thank you.

T: I don't see this as a possibility. It would be like asking, "If Jesus Christ did not come again, will the universe be secure?" Certainly the answer is no, the universe would not be secure if Jesus Christ did not come again, but does that mean the universe is not secure now? I don't think so, especially since we've been told that the universe was made secure by the cross.

Thank you for answering my question thoroughly and forthrightly. It sounds to me, though, that although the cross made the universe secure you believe their security would be forfeited if the 144,000 fail to materialize and Jesus does not return. But you also believe failure is not a possibility. Given what you believe about God’s knowledge of the future, how can you be personally so sure the 144,000 will succeed?

Quote:
T: I agree with you that the law does not say the things you were claiming it did.

M:I take it, then, that you agree the law doesn't affirm your contradicting view either. Is that right?

T: What? You're asserting the law says something. I asked where. You then say it doesn't, which I agree with. My view is that you're view was wrong. If you agree with me that you were wrong, then we're in agreement.

Of course we both know my view isn’t wrong because it is confirmed through the SOP. Agreeing with you that the Bible doesn’t portray the law as saying anything about life and death isn’t the same thing as saying I don’t believe the law requires God to execute the death penalty in consequence of sin. Listen:

Justice demands that sin be not merely pardoned, but the death penalty must be executed. God, in the gift of His only-begotten Son, met both these requirements. By dying in man's stead, Christ exhausted the penalty and provided a pardon. {AG 139.2}

Fallen man, because of his guilt, could no longer come directly before God with his supplications; for his transgression of the divine law had placed an impassable barrier between the holy God and the transgressor. But a plan was devised that the sentence of death should rest upon a Substitute. In the plan of redemption there must be the shedding of blood, for death must come in consequence of man's sin. The beasts for sacrificial offerings were to prefigure Christ. In the slain victim, man was to see the fulfillment for the time being of God's word, "Thou shalt surely die." {Con 21.3}

Quote:
T: The death referred to in Scripture is not sleep, but the second death. Anyway, I'm still not understanding how you can think that selfishness could support life.

M: If sin results in death, why, then, are people able to live to be 100 years old?

T: As I've pointed out to you many times, this is dealing with the second death.

M: Obviously there is something wrong with your observations.

T: Perhaps there's something wrong with your comprehension.

M: Also, if sin results in death, why, then, did God station an angel to prevent sinners from accessing the tree of life? Please answer this question (as opposed to ignoring it).

T: MM, you keep asking the same things over and over again. I answered this in great detail. It's not ignoring your question if I answer it and you forget what I said.

In brief, that sin results in death is not in doubt: Had Satan and his host then been left to reap the full result of their sin, they would have perished; but it would not have been apparent to heavenly beings that this was the inevitable result of sin.(DA 764)

This says that had Satan been left to reap the full result of their sin, they would have died. Furthermore it calls death "the inevitable result of sin." So that death is the inevitable result of sin is clear.

Regarding why God did not want Adam and Eve to eat of the tree of life, it is because He did not want to perpetuate suffering. After the GC is ended, and Christ comes again, then a world can exist without misery and suffering, and life can be perpetuated without reservation.

In the past (can’t quote where) you’ve suggested something to the effect that God supernaturally prevents sinners from succumbing to the natural cause and effect relationship that exists between sin and death, namely, instant death, and that His intervention allows sinners to die a gradual first death. And, of course, I agree with this insight. However, I also happen to believe denying sinners access to the tree of life is what made these unusual measures necessary. You seem unwilling to acknowledge the fact if God had not barred access to the tree of life that sinners would have been immortal. Listen:

They were visited by angels, and were granted communion with their Maker, with no obscuring veil between. They were full of the vigor imparted by the tree of life, and their intellectual power was but little less than that of the angels.--Patriarchs and Prophets, pp. 45-50. {RC 135.5}

[Our first parents] were to enjoy communion with God and with holy angels; but . . . their loyalty must be tested. . . . Obedience, perfect and perpetual, was the condition of eternal happiness. On this condition he [man] was to have access to the tree of life.--Ibid., pp. 48, 49. {RC 135.6}

In order to possess an endless existence, man must continue to partake of the tree of life. Deprived of this, his vitality would gradually diminish until life should become extinct. . . . He [Satan] hoped that they would eat of the tree of life. . . . But after man's fall, holy angels were immediately commissioned to guard the tree of life. . . . None of the family of Adam were permitted to pass that barrier to partake of the life-giving fruit; hence there is not an immortal sinner.--Ibid., p. 60. {RC 135.7}

Quote:
T: Do you agree with these points?

1.Paul says that the Gospel is Jesus Christ and Him crucified.
2.Paul says that the Gospel was preached to Abraham, and this is recorded in Moses.
3.Therefore Moses preached Jesus Christ and Him crucified.

M: No, I don’t agree.

T: Which point do you disagree with?

M: All of them. Paul did not say the gospel is Christ and Him crucified. Nor did Moses say what Paul said about Abraham. And, nowhere did Moses say Jesus would die.

T: Ok, let's look at each point. First of all, that the Gospel is Jesus Christ and Him crucified. “For I determined not to know any thing among you, save Jesus Christ, and him crucified. (1 Corinthians 2:2).

Here Paul says he was determined to know nothing except Jesus Christ and Him crucified. A few verses earlier he wrote: “For Christ did not send me to baptize, but to preach the gospel—not with wisdom and eloquence, lest the cross of Christ be emptied of its power. (1 Cor. 1:17)

I think this should be sufficient to establish point 1, since Paul was determined to know nothing but Jesus Christ and Him crucified, and while saying this he was preaching the Gospel, the presentation of which meant the cross of Christ being presented with power.

Yes, the gospel, of course, includes Christ and Him crucified. But it includes many other things as well. Just read the rest of Corinthians and you’ll see what I mean. IOW, the gospel embraces every aspect of life. My point is Paul didn’t use the words “gospel” and “crucified” in the same context.

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M: Nor did Moses say what Paul said about Abraham.

T: Regarding point 2, that Paul says that the Gospel was reached to Abraham: “And the scripture, foreseeing that God would justify the heathen through faith, preached before the gospel unto Abraham, saying, In thee shall all nations be blessed. (Gal. 3:8) So this established point 2.

Yes, of course, Paul said it. But my point is Moses didn’t say what Paul said about it. I wrote, “Nor did Moses say what Paul said about Abraham.” Please bear in mind I’ve been asking you all along to prove from the Pentateuch that Jesus had to die or that Moses said the sacrificial animals symbolize the death of Jesus. That’s what your list above is designed to prove – not that Paul believed it.

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M: And, nowhere did Moses say Jesus would die.

T: Regarding point 3, that this is recorded in Moses, this is also established in the above quote, since Paul was quoting Moses to establish that the Gospel was preached to Abraham.

Again, I’m not asking you to prove Paul believed it; instead, I’m asking you to prove Moses plainly taught it.

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M: Also, not once does Paul explain in the context of the gospel why Jesus had to die.

T: So you're saying that Paul did not explain Christ's death in the context of the Gospel? So not only Moses didn't explain it, but Paul as well? Do you think anybody did?

M: Apparently you agree with me since you have been unwilling, and mostly likely unable, to post passages which clearly explain why Jesus had to die. I've asked this question zillions of times and you have consistently refused to answer it.

T: I've answered it repeatedly. I've pointed you to specific passages. I've quoted specific verses. You're free to disagree, and continue asserting that neither Moses nor Paul explained why Jesus had to die, but it's not just to assert I am "consistently refusing" to answer your question. I've suggested you take a look at Galatians 3 and Romans 4.

And I responded to these posts and demonstrated how they do not say what you are asserting. Your saying so doesn’t make it so.

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T: Here's something from Romans 4: 23 The words "it was credited to him" were written not for him alone, 24but also for us, to whom God will credit righteousness—for us who believe in him who raised Jesus our Lord from the dead. 25He was delivered over to death for our sins and was raised to life for our justification.

This describes what Jesus did – but not why He had to do it.

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T: 2 Cor. 5:21 tells us that Christ was made to be sin for us that we might be made the righteousness of God.

Same comment as above.

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T: In Romans 3 Paul wrote: 25God presented him as a sacrifice of atonement, through faith in his blood. He did this to demonstrate his justice, because in his forbearance he had left the sins committed beforehand unpunished— 26he did it to demonstrate his justice at the present time, so as to be just and the one who justifies those who have faith in Jesus.

Surely you've read these things. I don't understand how you can read Paul and not understand that his Gospel explains why Jesus Christ had to die. I've never heard anyone suggest this. There's certainly no point in discussing Moses if you can't see Christ's death explained in Paul's preaching.

Here’s what Paul actually said (as opposed to what you quoted above):

3:24 Being justified freely by his grace through the redemption that is in Christ Jesus:
3:25 Whom God hath set forth [to be] a propitiation through faith in his blood, to declare his righteousness for the remission of sins that are past, through the forbearance of God;
3:26 To declare, [I say], at this time his righteousness: that he might be just, and the justifier of him which believeth in Jesus.

Again, this describes what Jesus accomplished – but not why He had to die. I agree it is implied, but it certainly isn’t plainly stated. Moses never even came close to implying why Jesus had to die. And you know it.

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M: You are reduced to using logical deduction, which hasn't proven logical at all. Put the issue to rest by simply posting all those passages you keep alluding to but never post. By the way, yes, I do think somebody has explained it clearly.

T: But not Paul? Or Moses? How about Jesus Christ? Did He explain it? Or any Scripture writer? Is there any Scripture writer that you see as explaining why Christ had to die? If so, who?

None of the people you named above clearly explain why Jesus had to die. They simply say He suffered and died with our sins on the cross. The SOP is the only place where God has clearly explained why Jesus had to die.

BTW, let’s not forget the real reason why I brought this up – I believe the fact Moses did not give the Jews better reasons for obeying God (as it relates to sacrificing animals) than merely, Because He said so, it proves it is possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for commanding obedience, and that such is not slavish.
Posted By: Tom

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 02/16/09 10:17 PM

Quote:
M: Amen! But your explanation applies more to my view of rebirth than it does to yours. According to your view people are born again ignorantly practicing many of the sinful habits they cultivated prior to rebirth. Thus, the works of the devil and the works of the flesh are very much alive and kicking.

T: Don't you believe that people may be born again ignorantly practicing sinful habits, like smoking, Sabbath-breaking, drinking, polygamy, living together?

M:Yes, and in such cases some of the works of the devil are alive and kicking. However, I also happen to believe there are times when people experience rebirth (i.e. old man habits crucified) and conversion (i.e. obeying everything Jesus commanded) simultaneously. In such cases, the works of the devil are destroyed. Your view does not allow for such cases.


Agreed. I don't believe in this idea of instant sanctification or perfection of character.

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T: You have an amazing way of not acknowledging when you're in error. You've been saying the universe has not been made secure, but the SOP says it was made secure by the cross. Before jumping to some new question, it would be nice if you would acknowledge points on questions which have already been raised.

M:I believe the universe was made secure at the cross. I also believe it has been secure from the moment Jesus became the Lamb slain from the foundation of the world. I also believe it hinges on the 144,000 demonstrating the benefits of Jesus’ blood during the time of trouble. All these things have been living realities in minds of unfallen beings since the day Jesus first proclaimed them.


Inspiration supports the first "I believe," but not the other two. At least, DA 764 says clearly that the cross secured the universe, making very clear that before the cross the universe was not secured, but after the cross it was. If the cross already secured it, then it cannot hinge on something yet future.

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M: Unless, of course, you're responding to my question the way I respond to Kland's questions, in which case I will stop asking questions.

T: What does this mean?

M:I don’t enjoy his questions and comments, and I answer them briefly just to be nice. His posts are not rewarding to read. If you feel this way about me, please let me know, and you’ll never hear from me again.


If I didn't want to converse with you, I simply wouldn't respond to your posts.

Why do you not find kland's posts rewarding to read?

Since you're responding out of a desire to be nice, it would be more nice, IMO, if you're responses had more to them.

Quote:
Thank you for answering my question thoroughly and forthrightly. It sounds to me, though, that although the cross made the universe secure you believe their security would be forfeited if the 144,000 fail to materialize and Jesus does not return. But you also believe failure is not a possibility. Given what you believe about God’s knowledge of the future, how can you be personally so sure the 144,000 will succeed?


Given God knows every possible future, and given that in every possible future the 144,000 materialize, it will surely come to pass. The details can change (e.g., this could have happened shortly after the 1888 message) but not that fact of its happening.

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Of course we both know my view isn’t wrong because it is confirmed through the SOP. Agreeing with you that the Bible doesn’t portray the law as saying anything about life and death isn’t the same thing as saying I don’t believe the law requires God to execute the death penalty in consequence of sin.


Ok, so your idea is that this isn't in the law itself, or in Scripture, but Ellen White had this idea, and it's true because she had the idea, although it's not in the law itself, nor in Scripture?

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In the past (can’t quote where) you’ve suggested something to the effect that God supernaturally prevents sinners from succumbing to the natural cause and effect relationship that exists between sin and death, namely, instant death, and that His intervention allows sinners to die a gradual first death. And, of course, I agree with this insight. However, I also happen to believe denying sinners access to the tree of life is what made these unusual measures necessary. You seem unwilling to acknowledge the fact if God had not barred access to the tree of life that sinners would have been immortal.


This would have required continuously eating of the tree of life, not a one time eating. The tree of life is immaterial to this whole question. Life comes from God, not from a tree. The point is that God, if He chose, could indefinitely prolong the existence of beings who have chosen to sin, but this isn't something which God chooses to do. He gives people the opportunity to develop their character, which is explained in the DA 764 quote. This quote points out the following:

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Had Satan and his host then been left to reap the full result of their sin, they would have perished; but it would not have been apparent to heavenly beings that this was the inevitable result of sin.


There's absolutely nothing about a tree involved here! Death is "the inevitable result of sin," again, having nothing to do with any tree.

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Yes, the gospel, of course, includes Christ and Him crucified. But it includes many other things as well. Just read the rest of Corinthians and you’ll see what I mean. IOW, the gospel embraces every aspect of life. My point is Paul didn’t use the words “gospel” and “crucified” in the same context.


The gospel, as well as Christ and Him crucified, encompassed everything in Paul's thinking. This is a useful principle in understanding his writings.

If you look at Gal. 3, the first third of the chapter or so, you will see that Paul is simultaneously speaking of the Gospel and Christ crucified. In fact, to Paul, Christ crucified was the Gospel. By the way, Ellen White had the same thought as Paul, writing something to the effect that Christ hanging on the cross was the Gospel.

Romans 3 is another example where the Gospel and Christ crucified are used in the same context. Romans 4 is another. Romans 10 is another (see especially vss. 9,10 to the end of the chapter).

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M: Nor did Moses say what Paul said about Abraham.

T: Regarding point 2, that Paul says that the Gospel was preached to Abraham: “And the scripture, foreseeing that God would justify the heathen through faith, preached before the gospel unto Abraham, saying, In thee shall all nations be blessed. (Gal. 3:8) So this established point 2.

Yes, of course, Paul said it. But my point is Moses didn’t say what Paul said about it. I wrote, “Nor did Moses say what Paul said about Abraham.” Please bear in mind I’ve been asking you all along to prove from the Pentateuch that Jesus had to die or that Moses said the sacrificial animals symbolize the death of Jesus. That’s what your list above is designed to prove – not that Paul believed it.


You said you disagree with each point. Point 2 was that Paul said the Gospel was preached to Abraham. You were wrong to say you disagreed with this point, since you agree with it.

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M: And, nowhere did Moses say Jesus would die.

T: Regarding point 3, that this is recorded in Moses, this is also established in the above quote, since Paul was quoting Moses to establish that the Gospel was preached to Abraham.

Again, I’m not asking you to prove Paul believed it; instead, I’m asking you to prove Moses plainly taught it.


Paul thought he did. So did Jesus Christ.

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M: Apparently you agree with me since you have been unwilling, and mostly likely unable, to post passages which clearly explain why Jesus had to die. I've asked this question zillions of times and you have consistently refused to answer it.

T: I've answered it repeatedly. I've pointed you to specific passages. I've quoted specific verses. You're free to disagree, and continue asserting that neither Moses nor Paul explained why Jesus had to die, but it's not just to assert I am "consistently refusing" to answer your question. I've suggested you take a look at Galatians 3 and Romans 4.

M:And I responded to these posts and demonstrated how they do not say what you are asserting. Your saying so doesn’t make it so.


You wrote, "I've asked this question zillions of times and you have consistently refused to answer it." If I've responded to your question, and you've responded to my posts with some sort of rebuttal, this proves on the face of it that your assertion here is false. I'm hardly refusing to answer your question if you're having to come up with rebuttals to my answers.

To use your words, "you're saying so doesn't make it so." It's clear I have not been "consistently refusing" to answer your question, so it would be nice if you would refrain from saying things like this which you know to be false.

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T: Here's something from Romans 4: 23 The words "it was credited to him" were written not for him alone, 24but also for us, to whom God will credit righteousness—for us who believe in him who raised Jesus our Lord from the dead. 25He was delivered over to death for our sins and was raised to life for our justification.

M:This describes what Jesus did – but not why He had to do it.


"He was delivered over to death for our sins and raised to life for our justification" explains why. The "for our sins" and "for our justification" is dealing with why.

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T: 2 Cor. 5:21 tells us that Christ was made to be sin for us that we might be made the righteousness of God.

M:Same comment as above.


That "we might be made the righteousness of God" is why.

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T: In Romans 3 Paul wrote: 25God presented him as a sacrifice of atonement, through faith in his blood. He did this to demonstrate his justice, because in his forbearance he had left the sins committed beforehand unpunished— 26he did it to demonstrate his justice at the present time, so as to be just and the one who justifies those who have faith in Jesus.

Surely you've read these things. I don't understand how you can read Paul and not understand that his Gospel explains why Jesus Christ had to die. I've never heard anyone suggest this. There's certainly no point in discussing Moses if you can't see Christ's death explained in Paul's preaching.

M:Here’s what Paul actually said (as opposed to what you quoted above):

3:24 Being justified freely by his grace through the redemption that is in Christ Jesus:
3:25 Whom God hath set forth [to be] a propitiation through faith in his blood, to declare his righteousness for the remission of sins that are past, through the forbearance of God;
3:26 To declare, [I say], at this time his righteousness: that he might be just, and the justifier of him which believeth in Jesus.


You know Jesus didn't actually speak in King James English. I quoted one translation while you quoted another. It's absurd to quote one English translation over another and say this is "what Jesus actually said." You'd be better off quoting Greek, if you want to say "what Jesus actually said," but even doing that wouldn't be right because Jesus didn't actually speak in Greek, but at least it would be closer to the truth.

But to say, when I quote Scripture, that Jesus Christ didn't actually say what I said, but said something else which is simply another English translation isn't a reasonable assertion.

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Again, this describes what Jesus accomplished – but not why He had to die. I agree it is implied, but it certainly isn’t plainly stated.


It is plainly stated. This was Paul's whole purpose, to plainly state why Jesus Christ had to die, and he did so. Christ died to declare God's righteousness that He might be just and the justified of all who believe in Him. That's clearly stated.

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Moses never even came close to implying why Jesus had to die. And you know it.


We were talking about Paul. If you don't think Paul taught why Christ had to die, you certainly wouldn't believe Moses did. There's not even a point to discussing Moses if we can't agree regarding Paul.

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None of the people you named above clearly explain why Jesus had to die. They simply say He suffered and died with our sins on the cross. The SOP is the only place where God has clearly explained why Jesus had to die.


Sounds like a good new topic for a thread! Was the world ignorant of why Jesus Christ had to die until the latter half of the 19th century when Ellen White explained why.

Quote:
BTW, let’s not forget the real reason why I brought this up – I believe the fact Moses did not give the Jews better reasons for obeying God (as it relates to sacrificing animals) than merely, Because He said so, it proves it is possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for commanding obedience, and that such is not slavish.


I think we can forget this for the time being. If you don't believe that Paul, or John, or Jesus Christ, explained why Christ had to die, we have more important things to talk about.
Posted By: Mountain Man

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 02/18/09 07:38 PM

Originally Posted By: Tom
T: Don't you believe that people may be born again ignorantly practicing sinful habits, like smoking, Sabbath-breaking, drinking, polygamy, living together?

M: Yes, and in such cases some of the works of the devil are alive and kicking. However, I also happen to believe there are times when people experience rebirth (i.e. old man habits crucified) and conversion (i.e. obeying everything Jesus commanded) simultaneously. In such cases, the works of the devil are destroyed. Your view does not allow for such cases.

T: Agreed. I don't believe in this idea of instant sanctification or perfection of character.

I haven’t described instant sanctification or instant character perfection. I’m simply referring to the following state of experience:

Quote:
The life of the vine will be manifest in fragrant fruit on the branches. "He that abideth in Me," said Jesus, "and I in him, the same bringeth forth much fruit: for without Me ye can do nothing." When we live by faith on the Son of God, the fruits of the Spirit will be seen in our lives; not one will be missing. {DA 676.4}

God will accept only those who are determined to aim high. He places every human agent under obligation to do his best. Moral perfection is required of all. Never should we lower the standard of righteousness in order to accommodate inherited or cultivated tendencies to wrong-doing. We need to understand that imperfection of character is sin. All righteous attributes of character dwell in God as a perfect, harmonious whole, and every one who receives Christ as a personal Saviour is privileged to possess these attributes. {COL 330.2}

I believe the two passages above apply to newborn believers who are obeying everything Jesus commanded, which is the result of studying the 28 beliefs with a teacher in the Remnant Church (a teacher like you or Doug Batchelor or Dwight Nelson). Nevertheless, they have not attained unto instant sanctification or instant character perfection. There is no such thing as instant sanctification or instant character perfection. Eternity isn’t long enough to reach sanctified perfection, that is, perfection in the sense there is no more room to grow and become more mature in the fruits of the Spirit. The saints will always be growing, always maturing, always becoming more and more perfect, more and more like Jesus.

Peter, Paul, and John also describe these kinds of newborn believers:

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1 Peter
2:1 Wherefore laying aside all malice, and all guile, and hypocrisies, and envies, and all evil speakings,
2:2 As newborn babes, desire the sincere milk of the word, that ye may grow thereby:
2:3 If so be ye have tasted that the Lord [is] gracious.
4:1 Forasmuch then as Christ hath suffered for us in the flesh, arm yourselves likewise with the same mind: for he that hath suffered in the flesh hath ceased from sin;
4:2 That he no longer should live the rest of [his] time in the flesh to the lusts of men, but to the will of God.

Romans
6:3 Know ye not, that so many of us as were baptized into Jesus Christ were baptized into his death?
6:4 Therefore we are buried with him by baptism into death: that like as Christ was raised up from the dead by the glory of the Father, even so we also should walk in newness of life.
6:5 For if we have been planted together in the likeness of his death, we shall be also [in the likeness] of [his] resurrection:
6:6 Knowing this, that our old man is crucified with [him], that the body of sin might be destroyed, that henceforth we should not serve sin.
6:7 For he that is dead is freed from sin.

1 John
3:3 And every man that hath this hope in him purifieth himself, even as he is pure.
3:4 Whosoever committeth sin transgresseth also the law: for sin is the transgression of the law.
3:5 And ye know that he was manifested to take away our sins; and in him is no sin.
3:6 Whosoever abideth in him sinneth not: whosoever sinneth hath not seen him, neither known him.
3:7 Little children, let no man deceive you: he that doeth righteousness is righteous, even as he is righteous.
3:8 He that committeth sin is of the devil; for the devil sinneth from the beginning. For this purpose the Son of God was manifested, that he might destroy the works of the devil.
3:9 Whosoever is born of God doth not commit sin; for his seed remaineth in him: and he cannot sin, because he is born of God.

The people portrayed in the passages above are newborn believers who are abiding in Jesus experiencing grow in grace while daily maturing in the fruits of the Spirit – not one fruit or attribute of God’s character is missing. They are obeying everything Jesus commanded. Nevertheless, they have not attained unto instant sanctification or instant character perfection. As mentioned above, believers do not begin the work of perfecting the righteous traits of character God implanted in them until the instant they experience rebirth. From then on it is their privilege to enjoy unbroken growth in grace, uninterrupted victories over sin, self, and Satan. Listen:

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The sins that were practiced before conversion, are to be put off, with the old man. With the new man, Christ Jesus, are to be put on “kindness, humbleness of mind, meekness, longsuffering.” (SD 300) We must gain the victory over self, crucify the affections and lusts; and then begins the union of the soul with Christ. (5T 47)

The Christian’s life is not a modification or improvement of the old, but a transformation of nature. There is a death to self and sin, and a new life altogether. This change can be brought about only by the effectual working of the Holy Spirit. (DA 172)

[Jesus] knew that truth, armed with the omnipotence of the Holy Spirit, would conquer in the contest with evil; and that the bloodstained banner would wave triumphantly over His followers. He knew that the life of His trusting disciples would be like His, a series of uninterrupted victories, not seen to be such here, but recognized as such in the great hereafter. {DA 679.2}

In the new birth the heart is brought into harmony with God, as it is brought into accord with His law. When this mighty change has taken place in the sinner, he has passed from death unto life, from sin unto holiness, from transgression and rebellion to obedience and loyalty. The old life of alienation from God has ended; the new life of reconciliation, of faith and love, has begun. Then “the righteousness of the law” will “be fulfilled in us, who walk not after the flesh, but after the Spirit.” Romans 8:4. And the language of the soul will be: “O how love I Thy law! it is my meditation all the day.” Psalm 119:97. (GC 468)

Again, I believe the passages above apply to newborn believers who are obeying everything Jesus commanded, which is the result of studying the 28 beliefs with a teacher in the Remnant Church. "When this mighty change has taken place in the sinner, he has passed from death unto life, from sin unto holiness, from transgression and rebellion to obedience and loyalty." Nevertheless, they have not attained unto instant sanctification or instant character perfection.
Posted By: Mountain Man

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 02/18/09 10:22 PM

Quote:
T: You have an amazing way of not acknowledging when you're in error. You've been saying the universe has not been made secure, but the SOP says it was made secure by the cross. Before jumping to some new question, it would be nice if you would acknowledge points on questions which have already been raised.

M: I believe the universe was made secure at the cross. I also believe it has been secure from the moment Jesus became the Lamb slain from the foundation of the world. I also believe it hinges on the 144,000 demonstrating the benefits of Jesus’ blood during the time of trouble. All these things have been living realities in minds of unfallen beings since the day Jesus first proclaimed them.

T: Inspiration supports the first "I believe," but not the other two. At least, DA 764 says clearly that the cross secured the universe, making very clear that before the cross the universe was not secured, but after the cross it was. If the cross already secured it, then it cannot hinge on something yet future.

Through faith the unfallen beings have been secure in the truth about God’s character and kingdom from the moment Jesus announced the plan of salvation. I realize you believe they were living in a state of fear and doubt and disbelief until the instant Jesus literally died on the cross, but I totally disagree with you.

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M: I don’t enjoy his questions and comments, and I answer them briefly just to be nice. His posts are not rewarding to read. If you feel this way about me, please let me know, and you’ll never hear from me again.

T: If I didn't want to converse with you, I simply wouldn't respond to your posts. Why do you not find kland's posts rewarding to read? Since you're responding out of a desire to be nice, it would be more nice, IMO, if you're responses had more to them.

You may have seen the post where I explained I am not going to respond to his comments and question unless I feel especially impressed to do so. In that post I also explained why I don’t find his posts rewarding. Thank you for the advice you shared above.

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M: Thank you for answering my question thoroughly and forthrightly. It sounds to me, though, that although the cross made the universe secure you believe their security would be forfeited if the 144,000 fail to materialize and Jesus does not return. But you also believe failure is not a possibility. Given what you believe about God’s knowledge of the future, how can you be personally so sure the 144,000 will succeed?

T: Given God knows every possible future, and given that in every possible future the 144,000 materialize, it will surely come to pass. The details can change (e.g., this could have happened shortly after the 1888 message) but not that fact of its happening.

Oh, that’s right, now I remember you explaining this awhile ago. I don’t remember, though, how you know it to be true. Did you read it in the SOP? That is, where did you read all the different ways the future could play out involve the 144,000 succeeding?

Quote:
M: Of course we both know my view isn’t wrong because it is confirmed through the SOP. Agreeing with you that the Bible doesn’t portray the law as saying anything about life and death isn’t the same thing as saying I don’t believe the law requires God to execute the death penalty in consequence of sin.

T: Ok, so your idea is that this isn't in the law itself, or in Scripture, but Ellen White had this idea, and it's true because she had the idea, although it's not in the law itself, nor in Scripture?

Not necessarily. Help me out here. Where in the Bible did God clearly explain the following insights:

Quote:
Soon I saw Him approach the exceeding bright light which enshrouded the Father. Said my accompanying angel, He is in close converse with His Father. The anxiety of the angels seemed to be intense while Jesus was communing with His Father. Three times He was shut in by the glorious light about the Father, and the third time He came out from the Father, His person could be seen. His countenance was calm, free from all perplexity and doubt, and shone with benevolence and loveliness, such as words cannot express. {SR 42.1}

He then made known to the angelic host that a way of escape had been made for lost man. He told them that He had been pleading with His Father, and had offered to give His life a ransom, to take the sentence of death upon Himself, that through Him man might find pardon; that through the merits of His blood, and obedience to the law of God, they could have the favor of God and be brought into the beautiful garden and eat of the fruit of the tree of life. {SR 42.2}

Justice demands that sin be not merely pardoned, but the death penalty must be executed. God, in the gift of His only-begotten Son, met both these requirements. By dying in man's stead, Christ exhausted the penalty and provided a pardon. {AG 139.2}

In the plan of redemption there must be the shedding of blood, for death must come in consequence of man's sin. The beasts for sacrificial offerings were to prefigure Christ. In the slain victim, man was to see the fulfillment for the time being of God's word, "Thou shalt surely die." {Con 21.3}

Is it possible God did not share all of the details expressed above with those whose writings make up the Bible? If so, does it mean they are less inspired, less authoritative?

Quote:
M: In the past (can’t quote where) you’ve suggested something to the effect that God supernaturally prevents sinners from succumbing to the natural cause and effect relationship that exists between sin and death, namely, instant death, and that His intervention allows sinners to die a gradual first death. And, of course, I agree with this insight. However, I also happen to believe denying sinners access to the tree of life is what made these unusual measures necessary. You seem unwilling to acknowledge the fact if God had not barred access to the tree of life that sinners would have been immortal.

T: This would have required continuously eating of the tree of life, not a one time eating. The tree of life is immaterial to this whole question. Life comes from God, not from a tree. The point is that God, if He chose, could indefinitely prolong the existence of beings who have chosen to sin, but this isn't something which God chooses to do.

He gives people the opportunity to develop their character, which is explained in the DA 764 quote. This quote points out the following: “Had Satan and his host then been left to reap the full result of their sin, they would have perished; but it would not have been apparent to heavenly beings that this was the inevitable result of sin.”

There's absolutely nothing about a tree involved here! Death is "the inevitable result of sin," again, having nothing to do with any tree.

I am unable to arrive at this conclusion because of the truthfulness of the following inspired passages:

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In the midst of the garden stood the tree of life, surpassing in glory all other trees. Its fruit appeared like apples of gold and silver, and had the power to perpetuate life. {PP 46.4}

The tree of life possessed the power to perpetuate life, and as long as they ate of it, they could not die. The lives of the antediluvians were protracted because of the life-giving power of this tree, which was transmitted to them from Adam and Eve (RH Jan. 26, 1897). {7BC 988.9}

After his disobedience he was not suffered to eat of the tree of life and perpetuate a life of sin. In order for man to possess an endless life he must continue to eat of the fruit of the tree of life. Deprived of that tree, his life would gradually wear out. {3SG 64.1}

I was pointed to Adam and Eve in Eden. They partook of the forbidden tree, and then the flaming sword was placed around the tree of life, and they were driven from the Garden, lest they should partake of the tree of life, and be immortal sinners. The tree of life was to perpetuate immortality. I heard an angel ask, Who of the family of Adam have passed that flaming sword, and have partaken of the tree of life? I heard another angel answer, Not one of the family of Adam have passed that flaming sword, and partaken of that tree; therefore there is not an immortal sinner. The soul that sinneth it shall die an everlasting death; a death that will last forever, where there will be no hope of a resurrection; and then the wrath of God will be appeased. {1SG 113.2}

In order to possess an endless existence, man must continue to partake of the tree of life. Deprived of this, his vitality would gradually diminish until life should become extinct. It was Satan's plan that Adam and Eve should by disobedience incur God's displeasure; and then, if they failed to obtain forgiveness, he hoped that they would eat of the tree of life, and thus perpetuate an existence of sin and misery. But after man's fall, holy angels were immediately commissioned to guard the tree of life. Around these angels flashed beams of light having the appearance of a glittering sword. None of the family of Adam were permitted to pass the barrier to partake of the life-giving fruit; hence there is not an immortal sinner. {PP 60.3}

Which one of the passages above inspires you to believe regularly eating of the tree of life would *not* have resulted immortal sinners? You may be tempted to disregard these passages and post other quotes which you believe contradict them, but please, show me how the passages above refute the idea sinners could live forever if allowed regular access to the tree of life. Or, do you agree with me that they do indeed clearly say sinners could live forever? Tom, I am afraid you are going to disregard showing me from the passages above how my conclusions are dead wrong. Please, Tom, please use these passages to disprove my view.

Quote:
M: Yes, the gospel, of course, includes Christ and Him crucified. But it includes many other things as well. Just read the rest of Corinthians and you’ll see what I mean. IOW, the gospel embraces every aspect of life. My point is Paul didn’t use the words “gospel” and “crucified” in the same context.

T: The gospel, as well as Christ and Him crucified, encompassed everything in Paul's thinking. This is a useful principle in understanding his writings.

If you look at Gal. 3, the first third of the chapter or so, you will see that Paul is simultaneously speaking of the Gospel and Christ crucified. In fact, to Paul, Christ crucified was the Gospel. By the way, Ellen White had the same thought as Paul, writing something to the effect that Christ hanging on the cross was the Gospel.

Romans 3 is another example where the Gospel and Christ crucified are used in the same context. Romans 4 is another. Romans 10 is another (see especially vss. 9,10 to the end of the chapter).

Again, I agree the death of Jesus is an integral part of the gospel, however, the point I am making is that it isn’t clearly spelled out in the Bible, that is, nowhere in the Bible does it plainly say, “The death of Jesus is an integral part of the gospel.” Yes, it is implied, but it is not clearly spelled out. Ellen wrote:

Quote:
The very essence of the gospel is restoration, and the Saviour would have us bid the sick, the hopeless, and the afflicted take hold upon His strength. {DA 824.5} The gospel is the revelation of God's love to men, and means everything that is essential to the happiness and well-being of humanity. {FE 186.2}

No man can rightly present the law of God without the gospel, or the gospel without the law. The law is the gospel embodied, and the gospel is the law unfolded. The law is the root, the gospel is the fragrant blossom and fruit which it bears. {COL 128.2}

They hate the purity which reveals and condemns their sins, and they persecute and destroy those who would urge upon them its just and holy claims. It is in this sense--because the exalted truths it brings occasion hatred and strife--that the gospel is called a sword. {GC 46.3}

We know that the gospel is a perfect and complete system, revealing the immutability of the law of God. {AG 70.4} When the gospel is received in its purity and power, it is a cure for the maladies that originated in sin. The Sun of Righteousness arises, "with healing in His wings." {MH 115.2} The gospel is a wonderful simplifier of life's problems. Its instruction, heeded, would make plain many a perplexity and save us from many an error. {MH 363.1}

When Christ crucified is preached, the power of the gospel is demonstrated by the influence it exerts over the believer. In place of remaining dead in trespasses and sins, he is awakened. {SD 221.5} The gospel is the power and wisdom of God, if it is correctly represented by those who claim to be Christians. Christ crucified for our sins should humble every soul before God in his own estimation. Christ risen from the dead, ascended on high, our living Intercessor in the presence of God, is the science of salvation which we need to learn and teach to children and youth. {FE 262.3}

As you can see, the gospel is many things – it is the truth as it is in Jesus.

Quote:
M: Nor did Moses say what Paul said about Abraham.

T: Regarding point 2, that Paul says that the Gospel was preached to Abraham: “And the scripture, foreseeing that God would justify the heathen through faith, preached before the gospel unto Abraham, saying, In thee shall all nations be blessed. (Gal. 3:8) So this established point 2.

M: Yes, of course, Paul said it. But my point is Moses didn’t say what Paul said about it. I wrote, “Nor did Moses say what Paul said about Abraham.” Please bear in mind I’ve been asking you all along to prove from the Pentateuch that Jesus had to die or that Moses said the sacrificial animals symbolize the death of Jesus. That’s what your list above is designed to prove – not that Paul believed it.

T: You said you disagree with each point. Point 2 was that Paul said the Gospel was preached to Abraham. You were wrong to say you disagreed with this point, since you agree with it.

Here are your three points:

1.Paul says that the Gospel is Jesus Christ and Him crucified.
2.Paul says that the Gospel was preached to Abraham, and this is recorded in Moses.
3.Therefore Moses preached Jesus Christ and Him crucified.

As you can see, you didn’t quite quote point number two accurately. As I said before, yes, Paul said the gospel was preached unto Abraham, and, no, Moses didn’t say it, that is, Moses didn’t say the gospel was preached unto Abraham. Moses simply wrote, “In thee shall all nations be blessed.” That’s it. He didn’t say anything about the gospel. It was Paul who made the connection, who recorded it.

Quote:
M: And, nowhere did Moses say Jesus would die.

T: Regarding point 3, that this is recorded in Moses, this is also established in the above quote, since Paul was quoting Moses to establish that the Gospel was preached to Abraham.

M: Again, I’m not asking you to prove Paul believed it; instead, I’m asking you to prove Moses plainly taught it.

T: Paul thought he did. So did Jesus Christ.

No, it was Paul who said the gospel was preached unto Abraham, not Moses. That is, Paul didn’t quote Moses as saying, “The gospel was preached unto Abraham.” Neither did Jesus say Moses said it. Jesus said, “For had ye believed Moses, ye would have believed me: for he wrote of me.” “And beginning at Moses and all the prophets, he expounded unto them in all the scriptures the things concerning himself.” Again, Jesus didn’t quote Moses as saying, “The Son of God will die as symbolized by animal sacrifices.” Which is why He had to “expound” on what Moses wrote.

BTW, do you have any idea which passages in the Pentateuch Jesus might have cited as He “expounded” on the road to Emmaus?

Quote:
M: Apparently you agree with me since you have been unwilling, and mostly likely unable, to post passages which clearly explain why Jesus had to die. I've asked this question zillions of times and you have consistently refused to answer it.

T: I've answered it repeatedly. I've pointed you to specific passages. I've quoted specific verses. You're free to disagree, and continue asserting that neither Moses nor Paul explained why Jesus had to die, but it's not just to assert I am "consistently refusing" to answer your question. I've suggested you take a look at Galatians 3 and Romans 4.

M: And I responded to these posts and demonstrated how they do not say what you are asserting. Your saying so doesn’t make it so.

T: You wrote, "I've asked this question zillions of times and you have consistently refused to answer it." If I've responded to your question, and you've responded to my posts with some sort of rebuttal, this proves on the face of it that your assertion here is false. I'm hardly refusing to answer your question if you're having to come up with rebuttals to my answers.

To use your words, "you're saying so doesn't make it so." It's clear I have not been "consistently refusing" to answer your question, so it would be nice if you would refrain from saying things like this which you know to be false.

Yes, you have been posting passages but not from Moses. You have quoted Paul and Jesus but you have yet to quote Moses. All along I’ve been begging you to quote Moses but you have refused.

Here’s what you say, “If you don't think Paul taught why Christ had to die, you certainly wouldn't believe Moses did. There's not even a point to discussing Moses if we can't agree regarding Paul.” “If you don't believe that Paul, or John, or Jesus Christ, explained why Christ had to die, we have more important things to talk about.”

Rather than honoring my request for you to quote from Moses, you are suggesting we drop it. So, how can you say you’ve done exactly what I have asked you to do when in reality you plainly say you’re not going to do it until I agree with you that Paul and Jesus believed Moses clearly explained why Jesus had to die and that the animal sacrifices symbolize His death? Not once have you quoted from Moses.

BTW, let’s not forget the real reason why I brought this up – I believe the fact Moses did not give the Jews better reasons for obeying God (as it relates to sacrificing animals) than merely, Because He said so, it proves it is possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for commanding obedience, and that such is not slavish.

Quote:
T: Here's something from Romans 4: 23 The words "it was credited to him" were written not for him alone, 24but also for us, to whom God will credit righteousness—for us who believe in him who raised Jesus our Lord from the dead. 25He was delivered over to death for our sins and was raised to life for our justification.

M: This describes what Jesus did – but not why He had to do it.

T: "He was delivered over to death for our sins and raised to life for our justification" explains why. The "for our sins" and "for our justification" is dealing with why.

In the KJV it reads, righteousness “shall be imputed, if we believe on him that raised up Jesus our Lord from the dead; who was delivered for our offences, and was raised again for our justification.” I agree it can be taken the way you are suggesting, but it certainly doesn’t say so “clearly”, that is, it doesn’t clearly say Jesus had to die because . . . (you fill in the blank). Nor does it clearly explain what His resurrection accomplishes that His death didn’t.

Quote:
T: 2 Cor. 5:21 tells us that Christ was made to be sin for us that we might be made the righteousness of God.

M: Same comment as above.

T: That "we might be made the righteousness of God" is why.

“For he hath made him to be sin for us, who knew no sin; that we might be made the righteousness of God in him.” This is addressing His life, not His death.

Quote:
T: In Romans 3 Paul wrote: 25God presented him as a sacrifice of atonement, through faith in his blood. He did this to demonstrate his justice, because in his forbearance he had left the sins committed beforehand unpunished— 26he did it to demonstrate his justice at the present time, so as to be just and the one who justifies those who have faith in Jesus.

Surely you've read these things. I don't understand how you can read Paul and not understand that his Gospel explains why Jesus Christ had to die. I've never heard anyone suggest this. There's certainly no point in discussing Moses if you can't see Christ's death explained in Paul's preaching.

M: Here’s what Paul actually said (as opposed to what you quoted above):

3:24 Being justified freely by his grace through the redemption that is in Christ Jesus:
3:25 Whom God hath set forth [to be] a propitiation through faith in his blood, to declare his righteousness for the remission of sins that are past, through the forbearance of God;
3:26 To declare, [I say], at this time his righteousness: that he might be just, and the justifier of him which believeth in Jesus.

T: You know Jesus didn't actually speak in King James English. I quoted one translation while you quoted another. It's absurd to quote one English translation over another and say this is "what Jesus actually said." You'd be better off quoting Greek, if you want to say "what Jesus actually said," but even doing that wouldn't be right because Jesus didn't actually speak in Greek, but at least it would be closer to the truth. But to say, when I quote Scripture, that Jesus Christ didn't actually say what I said, but said something else which is simply another English translation isn't a reasonable assertion.

Tom, I didn’t say anything about Jesus. I was talking about Paul. Of course the same thing applies to Paul. Here’s what Ellen wrote about this passage:

Quote:
Here the truth is laid out in plain lines. This mercy and goodness is wholly undeserved. The grace of Christ is freely to justify the sinner without merit or claim on his part. Justification is a full, complete pardon of sin. The moment a sinner accepts Christ by faith, that moment he is pardoned. The righteousness of Christ is imputed to him, and he is no more to doubt God's forgiving grace. {RC 78.3}

There is nothing in faith that makes it our saviour. Faith cannot remove our guilt. Christ is the power of God unto salvation to all them that believe. The justification comes through the merits of Jesus Christ. He has paid the price for the sinner's redemption. Yet it is only through faith in His blood that Jesus can justify the believer. {RC 78.4}

Grace is unmerited favor, and the believer is justified without any merit of his own, without any claim to offer to God. He is justified through the redemption that is in Christ Jesus, who stands in the courts of heaven as the sinner's substitute and surety. But while he is justified because of the merit of Christ, he is not free to work unrighteousness. Faith works by love and purifies the soul. Faith buds and blossoms and bears a harvest of precious fruit. Where faith is, good works appear. . . Christ is the great depositary of justifying righteousness and sanctifying grace. {1SM 398.1}

“He has paid the price for the sinner's redemption. Yet it is only through faith in His blood that Jesus can justify the believer.” “He is justified through the redemption that is in Christ Jesus, who stands in the courts of heaven as the sinner's substitute and surety.” Her commentary clearly explains what Paul was trying to convey to the Romans. Jesus earned the right on the cross to pardon sinners and to empower them to live without sinning. Listen:

“Justice demands that sin be not merely pardoned, but the death penalty must be executed. God, in the gift of His only-begotten Son, met both these requirements. By dying in man's stead, Christ exhausted the penalty and provided a pardon. {AG 139.2} “In the plan of redemption there must be the shedding of blood, for death must come in consequence of man's sin. The beasts for sacrificial offerings were to prefigure Christ. In the slain victim, man was to see the fulfillment for the time being of God's word, "Thou shalt surely die." {Con 21.3}
Posted By: Tom

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 02/19/09 12:05 AM

Quote:
T: Inspiration supports the first "I believe," but not the other two. At least, DA 764 says clearly that the cross secured the universe, making very clear that before the cross the universe was not secured, but after the cross it was. If the cross already secured it, then it cannot hinge on something yet future.

M:Through faith the unfallen beings have been secure in the truth about God’s character and kingdom from the moment Jesus announced the plan of salvation. I realize you believe they were living in a state of fear and doubt and disbelief until the instant Jesus literally died on the cross, but I totally disagree with you.


Please quit doing this!! The "I realize" sentence is totally unwarranted. I've never said anything remotely like this. To borrow from you (i.e. please, please please): Please, please, please quote things I've actually said. It's unpleasant to see these unqualified gross misrepresentations of what I've said.

Back to the point at hand. From the SOP:

Quote:
Well, then, might the angels rejoice as they looked upon the Saviour's cross; for though they did not then understand all, they knew that the destruction of sin and Satan was forever made certain, that the redemption of man was assured, and that the universe was made eternally secure. (DA 764)


Quote:
Oh, that’s right, now I remember you explaining this awhile ago. I don’t remember, though, how you know it to be true. Did you read it in the SOP? That is, where did you read all the different ways the future could play out involve the 144,000 succeeding?


Both Scripture and the SOP prophesy regarding end time events. There are certain details which would be different (e.g., the world now is very different than it was in the 19th century), but certain principles which remain true regardless of when Christ comes, and these principles have been prophesied and explained for us.

Quote:
M: Of course we both know my view isn’t wrong because it is confirmed through the SOP. Agreeing with you that the Bible doesn’t portray the law as saying anything about life and death isn’t the same thing as saying I don’t believe the law requires God to execute the death penalty in consequence of sin.

T: Ok, so your idea is that this isn't in the law itself, or in Scripture, but Ellen White had this idea, and it's true because she had the idea, although it's not in the law itself, nor in Scripture?

M:Not necessarily. Help me out here. Where in the Bible did God clearly explain the following insights:


Not necessarily why? Certainly it's not necessary to answer the question you've asked to explain whether or not I've explained your idea correctly.

Quote:
Is it possible God did not share all of the details expressed above with those whose writings make up the Bible? If so, does it mean they are less inspired, less authoritative?


You've got kind of hodge-podge of quotes there, a little from one place, a litte from another. You're asking where in the Bible were certain ideas explained. Are you saying that if it doesn't explain all of the ideas expressed by Ellen White, then it does not explain the subject as clearly as she did?

I'm curious if you would extend your view regarding her explanations to other subjects as well. For example, justification by faith. Would you say as well that neither Paul nor Jesus Christ, nor any other Scripture writer clearly explained justification by faith?

Quote:
Which one of the passages above inspires you to believe regularly eating of the tree of life would *not* have resulted immortal sinners? You may be tempted to disregard these passages and post other quotes which you believe contradict them, but please, show me how the passages above refute the idea sinners could live forever if allowed regular access to the tree of life. Or, do you agree with me that they do indeed clearly say sinners could live forever? Tom, I am afraid you are going to disregard showing me from the passages above how my conclusions are dead wrong. Please, Tom, please use these passages to disprove my view.


There's no reason for me to do so. It would be like me asking you to show me what death is not the inevitable result of sin based on the following passage:

Quote:
At the beginning of the great controversy, the angels did not understand this. Had Satan and his host then been left to reap the full result of their sin, they would have perished; but it would not have been apparent to heavenly beings that this was the inevitable result of sin.(DA 764)


I find your idea regarding the tree of life to be very simplistic. Life comes from God, not from a tree. There's meaning behind what was happening, and it seems to me that you're missing the meaning and instead latching onto only the physical elements involved. It's like when Jesus said, "Beware of the leaven of the Pharisees" and the disciples responded, "It is because we brought no bread."

(More later; also, I'll get to the post I skipped)
Posted By: Tom

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 02/19/09 12:20 AM

Quote:
Again, I agree the death of Jesus is an integral part of the gospel, however, the point I am making is that it isn’t clearly spelled out in the Bible, that is, nowhere in the Bible does it plainly say, “The death of Jesus is an integral part of the gospel.” Yes, it is implied, but it is not clearly spelled out.


Sure it's clearly spelled out. John 3, where Jesus explained the Gospel is probably the clearest place. Ellen White wrote:

Quote:
In the interview with Nicodemus, Jesus unfolded the plan of salvation, and His mission to the world. In none of His subsequent discourses did He explain so fully, step by step, the work necessary to be done in the hearts of all who would inherit the kingdom of heaven. (DA 176)


Quote:
As you can see, the gospel is many things – it is the truth as it is in Jesus.


Sure, we can see this from Scripture. For example, the Gospel is the power of God unto salvation for all who believe. However, without Christ crucified, there is no Gospel.

Quote:
Here are your three points:

1.Paul says that the Gospel is Jesus Christ and Him crucified.
2.Paul says that the Gospel was preached to Abraham, and this is recorded in Moses.
3.Therefore Moses preached Jesus Christ and Him crucified.

As you can see, you didn’t quite quote point number two accurately. As I said before, yes, Paul said the gospel was preached unto Abraham, and, no, Moses didn’t say it, that is, Moses didn’t say the gospel was preached unto Abraham.


The "this" which is recorded by Moses is the Gospel. My point was not that Moses said the Gospel was preached to Abraham, but that Moses recorded the Gospel which was preached to Abraham.

Quote:
Moses simply wrote, “In thee shall all nations be blessed.” That’s it. He didn’t say anything about the gospel. It was Paul who made the connection, who recorded it.


You're not understanding what Moses wrote. The Gospel is there, MM. You're reminding me of 2 Cor. 3

Quote:
13And not as Moses, which put a veil over his face, that the children of Israel could not stedfastly look to the end of that which is abolished:

14But their minds were blinded: for until this day remaineth the same vail untaken away in the reading of the old testament; which vail is done away in Christ.

15But even unto this day, when Moses is read, the vail is upon their heart.

16Nevertheless when it shall turn to the Lord, the vail shall be taken away.


Looking back at Nicodemus, we see the same thing. Nicodemus did not understand the Gospel, but that doesn't mean it wasn't in Moses. Christ used Moses to explain the meaning of His death to Nicodemus. If you read EGW's explanation, you'll see that Nicodemus "got it" on the basis of what Moses wrote!

Quote:
No, it was Paul who said the gospel was preached unto Abraham, not Moses.


You misunderstood the point. Moses recorded the gospel which Paul said was preached to Abraham. The point is not that Moses said the Gospel was preached to Abraham, but that the Gospel was preached to Abraham.

(more later)
Posted By: Mountain Man

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 02/19/09 09:39 PM

Originally Posted By: Tom
T: Inspiration supports the first "I believe," but not the other two. At least, DA 764 says clearly that the cross secured the universe, making very clear that before the cross the universe was not secured, but after the cross it was. If the cross already secured it, then it cannot hinge on something yet future.

M: Through faith the unfallen beings have been secure in the truth about God’s character and kingdom from the moment Jesus announced the plan of salvation. I realize you believe they were living in a state of fear and doubt and disbelief until the instant Jesus literally died on the cross, but I totally disagree with you.

T: Please quit doing this!! The "I realize" sentence is totally unwarranted. I've never said anything remotely like this. To borrow from you (i.e. please, please please): Please, please, please quote things I've actually said. It's unpleasant to see these unqualified gross misrepresentations of what I've said.

Back to the point at hand. From the SOP: “Well, then, might the angels rejoice as they looked upon the Saviour's cross; for though they did not then understand all, they knew that the destruction of sin and Satan was forever made certain, that the redemption of man was assured, and that the universe was made eternally secure. (DA 764)

Tom, I did not think that I was grossly misrepresenting your view. I’m sorry it offended you. Actually, I’m glad to learn you not only disagree with it, but you hotly hate it. However, please explain how your view differs from the view I shared above, namely, “Through faith the unfallen beings have been secure in the truth about God’s character and kingdom from the moment Jesus announced the plan of salvation.”

When you argue that the angels were not secure until the cross it makes me wonder if you believe they were not secure before the cross. In what sense were they not secure, and how did it affect them? Also, in what way did things change for them after the cross?

Quote:
M: Oh, that’s right, now I remember you explaining this awhile ago. I don’t remember, though, how you know it to be true. Did you read it in the SOP? That is, where did you read all the different ways the future could play out involve the 144,000 succeeding?

T: Both Scripture and the SOP prophesy regarding end time events. There are certain details which would be different (e.g., the world now is very different than it was in the 19th century), but certain principles which remain true regardless of when Christ comes, and these principles have been prophesied and explained for us.

I hear you saying that since the prophesies describe the 144,000 succeeding it is proof that no matter which way it actually ends up playing out, in the end the 144,000 will succeed. If this is what you’re saying, it makes me wonder why you believe the prophecies that described Jesus succeeding must be interpreted to mean God did not know for certain if Jesus would fail or succeed. How do those prophecies differ from the ones concerning the 144,000?

Quote:
M: Of course we both know my view isn’t wrong because it is confirmed through the SOP. Agreeing with you that the Bible doesn’t portray the law as saying anything about life and death isn’t the same thing as saying I don’t believe the law requires God to execute the death penalty in consequence of sin.

T: Ok, so your idea is that this isn't in the law itself, or in Scripture, but Ellen White had this idea, and it's true because she had the idea, although it's not in the law itself, nor in Scripture?

M: Not necessarily. Help me out here. Where in the Bible did God clearly explain the following insights:

T: Not necessarily why? Certainly it's not necessary to answer the question you've asked to explain whether or not I've explained your idea correctly.

M: Is it possible God did not share all of the details expressed above with those whose writings make up the Bible? If so, does it mean they are less inspired, less authoritative?

T: You've got kind of hodge-podge of quotes there, a little from one place, a litte from another. You're asking where in the Bible were certain ideas explained. Are you saying that if it doesn't explain all of the ideas expressed by Ellen White, then it does not explain the subject as clearly as she did?

I'm curious if you would extend your view regarding her explanations to other subjects as well. For example, justification by faith. Would you say as well that neither Paul nor Jesus Christ, nor any other Scripture writer clearly explained justification by faith?

What happened to the quotes I posted? Did they get lost in cyberspace? Can you summarize what she said about the law and why Jesus had to die? Do you believe the same insights are as clearly articulated in the Bible? If not, why do you think God shared them with the Remnant Church? To what purpose? If so, why, then, do you think God shared them through the gift and calling of Ellen? To what purpose?

Quote:
M: Which one of the passages above inspires you to believe regularly eating of the tree of life would *not* have resulted immortal sinners? You may be tempted to disregard these passages and post other quotes which you believe contradict them, but please, show me how the passages above refute the idea sinners could live forever if allowed regular access to the tree of life. Or, do you agree with me that they do indeed clearly say sinners could live forever? Tom, I am afraid you are going to disregard showing me from the passages above how my conclusions are dead wrong. Please, Tom, please use these passages to disprove my view.

T: There's no reason for me to do so. It would be like me asking you to show me what death is not the inevitable result of sin based on the following passage: “At the beginning of the great controversy, the angels did not understand this. Had Satan and his host then been left to reap the full result of their sin, they would have perished; but it would not have been apparent to heavenly beings that this was the inevitable result of sin.(DA 764)

I find your idea regarding the tree of life to be very simplistic. Life comes from God, not from a tree. There's meaning behind what was happening, and it seems to me that you're missing the meaning and instead latching onto only the physical elements involved. It's like when Jesus said, "Beware of the leaven of the Pharisees" and the disciples responded, "It is because we brought no bread."

Bummer, oh well, I knew you were going to blow me off, but I guess it doesn’t hurt to ask, to beg, at least it doesn’t hurt too much. It’s very disappointing to be dismissed and disregarded. It feels like persecution. But in your non-answer I am beginning to believe you really do not believe sinners would live forever if God allowed them unlimited access to the tree of life. How you can come to this conclusion in light of what the Bible and SOP said about it is not clear to me. Can you at least explain to me why it doesn’t mean what it says, why it means the opposite of what it says?

Quote:
T: More later; also, I'll get to the post I skipped.

Okay, thank you.
Posted By: Mountain Man

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 02/19/09 10:09 PM

Originally Posted By: Tom
M: Again, I agree the death of Jesus is an integral part of the gospel, however, the point I am making is that it isn’t clearly spelled out in the Bible, that is, nowhere in the Bible does it plainly say, “The death of Jesus is an integral part of the gospel.” Yes, it is implied, but it is not clearly spelled out.

T: Sure it's clearly spelled out. John 3, where Jesus explained the Gospel is probably the clearest place. Ellen White wrote: “In the interview with Nicodemus, Jesus unfolded the plan of salvation, and His mission to the world. In none of His subsequent discourses did He explain so fully, step by step, the work necessary to be done in the hearts of all who would inherit the kingdom of heaven. (DA 176)

“And as Moses lifted up the serpent in the wilderness, even so must the Son of man be lifted up: that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have eternal life.” Again, this doesn’t explain why. It says what, but it doesn’t say why. For example, it doesn’t say why or how Jesus’ death saves believers from perishing.

Quote:
M: As you can see, the gospel is many things – it is the truth as it is in Jesus.

T: Sure, we can see this from Scripture. For example, the Gospel is the power of God unto salvation for all who believe. However, without Christ crucified, there is no Gospel.

Take this insight back further and we discover that if Jesus hadn’t agreed to die in their place, the human race would have ended with the immediate execution of A&E. Listen:

Christ, in counsel with His Father, instituted the system of sacrificial offerings; that death, instead of being immediately visited upon the transgressor, should be transferred to a victim which should prefigure the great and perfect offering of the son of God. {1BC 1104.5}

Why was not the death penalty at once enforced in his case?--Because a ransom was found. God's only begotten Son volunteered to take the sin of man upon Himself, and to make an atonement for the fallen race. There could have been no pardon for sin had this atonement not been made. {1BC 1082.6}

Quote:
M: Here are your three points:

1.Paul says that the Gospel is Jesus Christ and Him crucified.
2.Paul says that the Gospel was preached to Abraham, and this is recorded in Moses.
3.Therefore Moses preached Jesus Christ and Him crucified.

As you can see, you didn’t quite quote point number two accurately. As I said before, yes, Paul said the gospel was preached unto Abraham, and, no, Moses didn’t say it, that is, Moses didn’t say the gospel was preached unto Abraham.

T: The "this" which is recorded by Moses is the Gospel. My point was not that Moses said the Gospel was preached to Abraham, but that Moses recorded the Gospel which was preached to Abraham.

M: Moses simply wrote, “In thee shall all nations be blessed.” That’s it. He didn’t say anything about the gospel. It was Paul who made the connection, who recorded it.

T: You're not understanding what Moses wrote. The Gospel is there, MM. You're reminding me of 2 Cor. 3. Looking back at Nicodemus, we see the same thing. Nicodemus did not understand the Gospel, but that doesn't mean it wasn't in Moses. Christ used Moses to explain the meaning of His death to Nicodemus. If you read EGW's explanation, you'll see that Nicodemus "got it" on the basis of what Moses wrote!

Oh, I agree all right that the SOP makes it crystal clear. No doubt about it. That’s been my point from the beginning. I just don’t understand why you think what Moses wrote (i.e. “In thee shall all nations be blessed”) clearly explains why Jesus had to die. Ask a child or an unbeliever to read these words and I can guarantee you they will not conclude it clearly explains why Jesus had to die. If you were to try and convince them from the Pentateuch that that is exactly what Moses meant I can also guarantee you they will think “thou art beside thyself; much learning doth make thee mad”.
Posted By: Mountain Man

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 02/24/09 07:39 PM

Tom, are you going to address the posts above and the one you skipped?
Posted By: Tom

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 02/24/09 09:49 PM

Quote:
M: Yes, and in such cases some of the works of the devil are alive and kicking. However, I also happen to believe there are times when people experience rebirth (i.e. old man habits crucified) and conversion (i.e. obeying everything Jesus commanded) simultaneously. In such cases, the works of the devil are destroyed. Your view does not allow for such cases.

T: Agreed. I don't believe in this idea of instant sanctification or perfection of character.

M:I haven’t described instant sanctification or instant character perfection.


Obeying everything that Jesus commanded = sanctification, or perfection of character. That should be clear.

Quote:
Again, I believe the passages above apply to newborn believers who are obeying everything Jesus commanded, which is the result of studying the 28 beliefs with a teacher in the Remnant Church. "When this mighty change has taken place in the sinner, he has passed from death unto life, from sin unto holiness, from transgression and rebellion to obedience and loyalty." Nevertheless, they have not attained unto instant sanctification or instant character perfection.


Why do you think all the Jesus Christ commanded is encompassed by the 28 fundamental beliefs? Do you think these beliefs are inspired? Could there be an error in what we believe?
Posted By: Tom

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 02/24/09 11:07 PM

Quote:
Tom, I did not think that I was grossly misrepresenting your view.


Well, you certainly should have! You must have quite a low opinion of me to think I would think something like the following:

Quote:
You believe they were living in a state of fear and doubt and disbelief until the instant Jesus literally died on the cross.


Quote:
I’m sorry it offended you.


If you're really sorry, please abide by my request, and quote things I've actually written, as I've repeatedly requested.

Quote:
Actually, I’m glad to learn you not only disagree with it, but you hotly hate it. However, please explain how your view differs from the view I shared above, namely, “Through faith the unfallen beings have been secure in the truth about God’s character and kingdom from the moment Jesus announced the plan of salvation.”

When you argue that the angels were not secure until the cross it makes me wonder if you believe they were not secure before the cross. In what sense were they not secure, and how did it affect them? Also, in what way did things change for them after the cross?


The SOP said that the cross made them secure. I'm not sure what there is to discuss here. Here's the quote:

Quote:
Well, then, might the angels rejoice as they looked upon the Saviour's cross; for though they did not then understand all, they knew that the destruction of sin and Satan was forever made certain, that the redemption of man was assured, and that the universe was made eternally secure.(DA 764)


There are other quotes to that make the same point, that the cross made the universe eternally secure.

Quote:
I hear you saying that since the prophesies describe the 144,000 succeeding it is proof that no matter which way it actually ends up playing out, in the end the 144,000 will succeed. If this is what you’re saying, it makes me wonder why you believe the prophecies that described Jesus succeeding must be interpreted to mean God did not know for certain if Jesus would fail or succeed. How do those prophecies differ from the ones concerning the 144,000?


This is a good question. Just based on Scripture, I suppose one could deduce that the Scriptures regarding Christ succeeding were conditional. It makes sense, on the basis that Christ came as a human being with free will. What actually brought this to my attention, however, were the SOP statements, that all heaven was imperiled, that Christ came at the risk of failure and eternal loss, etc.

Regarding the 144,000, there are no such statements. Of course, there's still free will involved, so the formulation of the 144,000 can be delayed (which is, indeed, what actually happened in the 1888 era; by all rights we shouldn't be here), but some day the 144,000 will be formulated. So the timing is unknown, but not the fact. Similarly for Christ's Second Coming.

Quote:
What happened to the quotes I posted? Did they get lost in cyberspace?


I think they're probably where you left them.

Quote:
Can you summarize what she said about the law and why Jesus had to die? Do you believe the same insights are as clearly articulated in the Bible? If not, why do you think God shared them with the Remnant Church? To what purpose? If so, why, then, do you think God shared them through the gift and calling of Ellen? To what purpose?


The law is a transcript of God's character. The GC is all about God. The adversary had presented God in a way He is not, as harsh, cruel, looking to whack anyone who crossed Him in the least way. One of the supposed tools of the harsh taskmaster was the law. This was supposedly a club that severe taskmaster would use to beat His subjects into submission. This club was made to be seen as a heavy yoke that no one could keep.

Along came Jesus Christ to dispel these lies. His yoke (i.e. obedience to the law) was easy and His burden light. He dispelled these and many other lies that enemy had presented. The culmination of His revelation was His death, which unmasked the enemy, as well as being the brightest light in the illumination of agape. The work of revelation is called the "whole purpose" of Christ's earthly mission.

I think the principles are clearly articulated in Scripture, although certain details were given by the SOP which are not clearly spelled out, but the general principles are there (such as the cross bringing us to God, Christ's coming to reveal the Father, Satan being unmasked)

Quote:
T: There's no reason for me to do so. It would be like me asking you to show me what death is not the inevitable result of sin based on the following passage: “At the beginning of the great controversy, the angels did not understand this. Had Satan and his host then been left to reap the full result of their sin, they would have perished; but it would not have been apparent to heavenly beings that this was the inevitable result of sin.(DA 764)

I find your idea regarding the tree of life to be very simplistic. Life comes from God, not from a tree. There's meaning behind what was happening, and it seems to me that you're missing the meaning and instead latching onto only the physical elements involved. It's like when Jesus said, "Beware of the leaven of the Pharisees" and the disciples responded, "It is because we brought no bread."

M:Bummer, oh well, I knew you were going to blow me off, but I guess it doesn’t hurt to ask, to beg, at least it doesn’t hurt too much. It’s very disappointing to be dismissed and disregarded. It feels like persecution. But in your non-answer I am beginning to believe you really do not believe sinners would live forever if God allowed them unlimited access to the tree of life. How you can come to this conclusion in light of what the Bible and SOP said about it is not clear to me. Can you at least explain to me why it doesn’t mean what it says, why it means the opposite of what it says?


It's not an non-answer. God set things up so that by eating of the tree man would live forever. This, like breathing, was a way designed by God to make clear to man that life comes from Him. Man was not allowed to continue eating of the tree as a way of communicating that God did not wish for man, having fallen, live forever in that condition. But the lesson was not that life comes from a tree; it was that life comes from God.
Posted By: Tom

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 02/25/09 12:13 AM

Quote:
“And as Moses lifted up the serpent in the wilderness, even so must the Son of man be lifted up: that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have eternal life.” Again, this doesn’t explain why. It says what, but it doesn’t say why. For example, it doesn’t say why or how Jesus’ death saves believers from perishing.


By looking! Christ was lifted up, just like the snake, that one would be healed (or saved; same word) by looking. There was no need to say this to a Jew, who knew the story. This is why the EGW explanation of the interview says that Nicodemus face lit up when Jesus said this, because then He understood what Jesus was saying, because he knew the story.

Ellen White spelled this out for us, so that we, in our culture, would be on equal footing with Nicodemus. But Jesus' explanation was no less clear from him then Ellen White's was for us.

Just think about it. Does it really make sense that Jesus Christ would explain His death to Nicodemus in an unclear fashion?

Quote:
Oh, I agree all right that the SOP makes it crystal clear. No doubt about it. That’s been my point from the beginning. I just don’t understand why you think what Moses wrote (i.e. “In thee shall all nations be blessed”) clearly explains why Jesus had to die.


Moses was clear for those in his culture. Just because his was a different culture does not make it fair for us to brand him as unclear.

But let's set Moses aside for a bit, as we have the more important task of seeing if Jesus Christ was clear. Or Paul. Or John. If you don't see these fellows as clear, I'm sure you won't see Moses as being clear.
Posted By: Mountain Man

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 02/26/09 10:13 PM

Originally Posted By: Tom
Why do you think all the Jesus Christ commanded is encompassed by the 28 fundamental beliefs? Do you think these beliefs are inspired? Could there be an error in what we believe?

Yes, I believe the 28 fundamental beliefs are inspired, which is also why I believe they encompass everything Jesus commanded. Do you know of truths that are omitted?
Posted By: Mountain Man

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 02/26/09 10:32 PM

Originally Posted By: Tom
There are other quotes to that make the same point, that the cross made the universe eternally secure.

Were unfallen FMAs secure before the cross? If not, please explain.

Originally Posted By: Tom
Just based on Scripture, I suppose one could deduce that the Scriptures regarding Christ succeeding were conditional. It makes sense, on the basis that Christ came as a human being with free will. What actually brought this to my attention, however, were the SOP statements, that all heaven was imperiled, that Christ came at the risk of failure and eternal loss, etc.

Is there anything in the Bible to indicate God didn't know Jesus would succeed on the cross? If not, are you relying on the SOP? Please explain.

Originally Posted By: Tom
It's not an non-answer. God set things up so that by eating of the tree man would live forever. This, like breathing, was a way designed by God to make clear to man that life comes from Him. Man was not allowed to continue eating of the tree as a way of communicating that God did not wish for man, having fallen, live forever in that condition. But the lesson was not that life comes from a tree; it was that life comes from God.

You have not yet verified this view of why God barred access to the tree of life. You simply expect me to take it at your word. I have posted several passages which clearly explain why God barred access to the tree of life and none of them include your view.

Originally Posted By: Tom
Just think about it. Does it really make sense that Jesus Christ would explain His death to Nicodemus in an unclear fashion?

Are you suggesting Nicodemus clearly understood why Jesus had to die after his interview with Jesus? If so, where is the proof?

Originally Posted By: Tom
Moses was clear for those in his culture. Just because his was a different culture does not make it fair for us to brand him as unclear. But let's set Moses aside for a bit, as we have the more important task of seeing if Jesus Christ was clear. Or Paul. Or John. If you don't see these fellows as clear, I'm sure you won't see Moses as being clear.

You must have been really good at dodge ball, Tom. There is no recorded evidence that Moses clearly explained why Jesus had to die or that animal sacrifices symbolized Jesus' death. Yes, there was no doubt oral tradition, but no written record of it. Otherwise, I would be riddled with bruises from the ball beating it into me. You are, of course, entitled to believe whatever you want, but it is crystal clear to me you cannot prove your point from the Bible.
Posted By: Tom

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 02/27/09 12:00 AM

Quote:
T:There are other quotes to that make the same point, that the cross made the universe eternally secure.

M:Were unfallen FMAs secure before the cross? If not, please explain.


From the context, they weren't completely secure until the cross. This doesn't mean they were completely insecure before the cross. The EGW quote points out that the universe was made secure by the cross, referencing angels specifically in this context. So we can conclude that before the cross, there was some level of uncertainty, which was rectified by the cross.

Quote:
T:Just based on Scripture, I suppose one could deduce that the Scriptures regarding Christ succeeding were conditional. It makes sense, on the basis that Christ came as a human being with free will. What actually brought this to my attention, however, were the SOP statements, that all heaven was imperiled, that Christ came at the risk of failure and eternal loss, etc.

M:Is there anything in the Bible to indicate God didn't know Jesus would succeed on the cross? If not, are you relying on the SOP? Please explain.


I did explain. It's right above your question.

Quote:
You have not yet verified this view of why God barred access to the tree of life. You simply expect me to take it at your word.


Not my word, but your brain.

Quote:
I have posted several passages which clearly explain why God barred access to the tree of life and none of them include your view.


This reminds me of when Jesus said, "Beware the leaven of the Pharisees" and the disciples said, "this is because we didn't bring bread."

Anyway, her explanation is in line with what I explained. I'm sure Ellen White understood that life didn't come from the tree, but came from God.

Quote:
T:Just think about it. Does it really make sense that Jesus Christ would explain His death to Nicodemus in an unclear fashion?

M:Are you suggesting Nicodemus clearly understood why Jesus had to die after his interview with Jesus? If so, where is the proof?


You didn't answer my question. I'm suggesting that Jesus Christ clearly explained things to Nicodemus. Please answer my question. Do you think it makes sense that Jesus Christ would explain His death to Nicodemus in an unclear fashion?

Quote:
There is no recorded evidence that Moses clearly explained why Jesus had to die or that animal sacrifices symbolized Jesus' death.


Again, if you don't think Jesus Christ explained this clearly, you surely won't think Moses did. We already have another thread discussing whether Scripture explains the meaning of Christ's death clearly.

You've asserted several times that you think only Ellen White explained this clearly; neither Paul, nor John, nor Jesus Christ, nor anywhere in Scripture. Given this is what you think, what's the purpose of singling out Moses? It's certainly easier to see that the meaning of Christ's death was clearly explained by Him (and the same thing could be said about John or Paul -- or Peter and other NT writers -- than Moses) than Moses, so I don't see the point in discussing this.

As God said to Jeremiah, "If you have run with the footmen, and they have wearied you, then how can you contend with horses?"
Posted By: Mountain Man

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 02/27/09 06:17 AM

Originally Posted By: Tom
1. "From the context, they weren't completely secure until the cross. . . So we can conclude that before the cross, there was some level of uncertainty, which was rectified by the cross."

2. "Is there anything in the Bible to indicate God didn't know Jesus would succeed on the cross? If not, are you relying on the SOP? Please explain." I did explain. It's right above your question.

3."Anyway, her explanation is in line with what I explained. I'm sure Ellen White understood that life didn't come from the tree, but came from God."

4. "Do you think it makes sense that Jesus Christ would explain His death to Nicodemus in an unclear fashion?"

1. It is amazing to me you actually believe the angels were not secure before the cross.
2. Relying on the SOP is fine.
3. God established things in such a way that the life He gave is perpetuated through eating the fruit He supplies.
4. There is no biblical record of Jesus clearly explaining to Nicodemus why He had to die. That's the point.

PS - These insights speak to the question that serves as title for this thread. God required the Jews to sacrifice animals but there is no biblical record which clearly explains why. The assumption is they obeyed for reasons that could be construed as slavish.
Posted By: Tom

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 02/27/09 08:03 PM

1.Your phrasing is vague. Here's what she said:

Quote:
Well, then, might the angels rejoice as they looked upon the Saviour's cross; for though they did not then understand all, they knew that the destruction of sin and Satan was forever made certain, that the redemption of man was assured, and that the universe was made eternally secure.(DA 764)


So the universe was not made eternally secure until the cross. If you read the whole chapter, she discusses this concept at length. There were still doubts until the cross because certain issues were not clear in the minds of the angels.

Quote:
3. God established things in such a way that the life He gave is perpetuated through eating the fruit He supplies.


As well as breathing, and other things.

4.Of course there's a Biblical record. It's in John 3. Nicodemus thought the explanation was clear, as the SOP points out.

Quote:
PS - These insights speak to the question that serves as title for this thread. God required the Jews to sacrifice animals but there is no biblical record which clearly explains why. The assumption is they obeyed for reasons that could be construed as slavish.


These "insights" are simply untrue. The Bible is clear in regards to Christ's died. We've got another thread discussing this.
Posted By: Mountain Man

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 03/01/09 08:05 PM

Originally Posted By: Tom
There were still doubts until the cross because certain issues were not clear in the minds of the angels.

True, but where we seem to differ is I do not apply this to their thoughts and feelings about the character and kingdom of God. I believe they were totally secure in their thoughts and feelings about the character and kingdom of God from the moment war broke out in heaven (which is why they sided with God and not Satan). You seem to think otherwise.
Posted By: Tom

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 03/01/09 08:52 PM

From my reading of the account, things weren't completely clear until the cross. You seem to see this in regarding to Satan (i.e., that they didn't understand Satan's character completely until the cross) but seem not to see this in relation to God. However, it can be seen in at least two ways that God's character was involved in this as well, and not just Satan's.

The first way is that to the extent that they (or we) were confused regarding Satan's character, they (or we) are confused about God's character. This is inevitable. Misunderstanding Satan is misunderstanding sin, and misunderstanding God.

The second way is that the angels were expecting God to wipe humans out instead of giving them His Son.
Posted By: Mountain Man

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 03/02/09 07:02 PM

Tom, I see no relationship between not understanding Satan's accusations about God and not understanding God. They couldn't understand how such an intelligent angel could find fault with such an intelligent God.

Secondly, the angels expected God to wipe out sinners just prior to Jesus' incarnation for the simple reason many of them had long ago filled their cup of woe to overflowing. But as in the case of Pharaoh God would use the unpardonable sinners to demonstrate His power and praise - which He did mightily and wonderfully.
Posted By: Mountain Man

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 03/02/09 07:06 PM

Is it possible to obey God satisfactorily without having satisfactory reasons why? Yes, of course. People have had to do it since the beginning of time. A&E were not given all the reasons why not to eat of the forbidden tree. Such obedience is in no way considered slavish.
Posted By: Tom

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 03/02/09 09:16 PM

Quote:
Is it possible to obey God satisfactorily without having satisfactory reasons why?


Why do you think God would be happy with a robotic obedience?

Quote:
Yes, of course. People have had to do it since the beginning of time. A&E were not given all the reasons why not to eat of the forbidden tree. Such obedience is in no way considered slavish.


Jesus said he no longer called "us" slaves but friends because a slave does not know what his master is doing, but He has told us all things He heard from the Father.

Quote:
15Henceforth I call you not servants; for the servant knoweth not what his lord doeth: but I have called you friends; for all things that I have heard of my Father I have made known unto you.(John 15)


So Jesus seems to have tied together the idea of being a friend to understanding. The obedience of a slave is thus seen to be based on ignorance, whereas the obedience of a friend is based on understanding.

There are a number of parables which also deal with this theme. For example, the parable of the talents, where three servants are given a differing amount of talents comes to mind. The wicked servant acted in ignorance and simply buried his talent, but was reprimanded for it.

Slavish obedience forms the backdrop of the Old Covenant.
Posted By: Mountain Man

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 03/03/09 09:02 PM

Tom, you seem to be implying that you know enough of the reasons why God requires obedience so that you are obeying Him as a friend and not as a servant. You seem to be contrasting friend and servant as though being a servant is bad or less than desirable. But the following passages place the concept of friend and servant in a different light:

But he answered one of them, and said, Friend, I do thee no wrong: didst not thou agree with me for a penny?

And he saith unto him, Friend, how camest thou in hither not having a wedding garment? And he was speechless.

And Jesus said unto him, Friend, wherefore art thou come? Then came they, and laid hands on Jesus, and took him.

And when his friends heard [of it], they went out to lay hold on him: for they said, He is beside himself.

And I say unto you, Make to yourselves friends of the mammon of unrighteousness; that, when ye fail, they may receive you into everlasting habitations.

And ye shall be betrayed both by parents, and brethren, and kinsfolks, and friends; and [some] of you shall they cause to be put to death.

It is enough for the disciple that he be as his master, and the servant as his lord. If they have called the master of the house Beelzebub, how much more [shall they call] them of his household?

Behold my servant, whom I have chosen; my beloved, in whom my soul is well pleased: I will put my spirit upon him, and he shall show judgment to the Gentiles.

And whosoever will be chief among you, let him be your servant: even as the Son of man came not to be ministered unto, but to minister, and to give his life a ransom for many.

But he that is greatest among you shall be your servant. And whosoever shall exalt himself shall be abased; and he that shall humble himself shall be exalted.

Who then is a faithful and wise servant, whom his lord hath made ruler over his household, to give them meat in due season? Blessed [is] that servant, whom his lord when he cometh shall find so doing.

His lord said unto him, Well done, [thou] good and faithful servant: thou hast been faithful over a few things, I will make thee ruler over many things: enter thou into the joy of thy lord.

And he sat down, and called the twelve, and saith unto them, If any man desire to be first, [the same] shall be last of all, and servant of all.
Posted By: Tom

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 03/04/09 02:27 AM

Quote:
M:Tom, you seem to be implying that you know enough of the reasons why God requires obedience so that you are obeying Him as a friend and not as a servant. You seem to be contrasting friend and servant as though being a servant is bad or less than desirable.


No, I'm not implying anything about me, but Jesus Christ was implying something about God, when He said

Quote:
15Henceforth I call you not servants; for the servant knoweth not what his lord doeth: but I have called you friends; for all things that I have heard of my Father I have made known unto you.(John 15)


It sounds to me like He is speaking of this as good thing, to be called friend rather than servant. You don't think He had this in mind?
Posted By: Mountain Man

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 03/04/09 05:33 PM

No, I don't think Jesus was implying being a servant is not as good as being a friend. The passages I posted above prove my point. Jesus called people "friend" who were anything but knowledgeable of "all things that I have heard of my Father". He also called people "servant" who were His closest friends. In fact, He referred to Himself in servant terms.
Posted By: Mountain Man

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 03/04/09 05:37 PM

PS - The point is can we obey God as servants without it being slavish? Yes! We do it all the time in the sense we do not know all the reasons why God requires obedience thus we are forced to obey Him with less than perfect knowledge as to why. Such obedience is faithful not slavish. It is also well pleasing to God our Father.
Posted By: Tom

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 03/04/09 08:32 PM

Quote:
No, I don't think Jesus was implying being a servant is not as good as being a friend.


He said, "I no longer call you slaves but friends." It's hard to believe a person wouldn't perceive being a friend is better than being a slave.

Jesus must have meant something by the comment. What do you think He meant?

Quote:
PS - The point is can we obey God as servants without it being slavish?


This isn't the question. The question is if we can obey God in a non-slavish way without an understanding of His principles, or why we're doing what we're doing.

Quote:
Yes! We do it all the time in the sense we do not know all the reasons why God requires obedience thus we are forced to obey Him with less than perfect knowledge as to why.


This isn't the question either. We're not talking about known "all the reasons" but "none of the reasons."
Posted By: Mountain Man

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 03/05/09 09:53 PM

1. Because God said so is reason enough to obey Him unslavishly.

2. Jesus never once referred to His disciples as "slaves".

3. Jesus referred to Himself as a servant.

4. Just because a master shares certain info with a servant it doesn't mean he stops being a servant.

5. A master can consider his servant a friend but he doesn't stop being a servant.
Posted By: Tom

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 03/05/09 11:42 PM

Quote:
1. Because God said so is reason enough to obey Him unslavishly.


God hasn't said we should be Him ignorantly though.

Quote:
2. Jesus never once referred to His disciples as "slaves".


He said "I no longer call you slaves but friends."

Quote:
3. Jesus referred to Himself as a servant.


Ok.

Quote:
4. Just because a master shares certain info with a servant it doesn't mean he stops being a servant.


Jesus said I no longer call you slaves (or servants), but friends.

Quote:
5. A master can consider his servant a friend but he doesn't stop being a servant.


This is true, but a different topic.
Posted By: Mountain Man

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 03/06/09 07:11 PM

Originally Posted By: Tom
1. Because God said so is reason enough to obey Him unslavishly.

God hasn't said we should be Him ignorantly though.

Do you think obeying Him because He said so constitutes ignorance or slavish obedience? Please explain.

Quote:
2. Jesus never once referred to His disciples as "slaves".

He said "I no longer call you slaves but friends."

Post one place where He actually called them slaves. Nowhere in the NT did He ever call them slaves. BTW, do you make a distinction between slaves and servants?

Quote:
3. Jesus referred to Himself as a servant.

Ok.

He is the Servant of servants. Obviously there is nothing wrong with being a servant. Do you agree?

Quote:
4. Just because a master shares certain info with a servant it doesn't mean he stops being a servant.

Jesus said I no longer call you slaves (or servants), but friends.

Do you think it means they stopped being servants? If so, why, then, did the apostles continually refer to themselves as "servants"? For example:

"Paul, a servant of Jesus Christ."
"Jude, the servant of Jesus Christ."
"Moses the servant of God."
"Likewise also he that is called, being free, is Christ's servant."
"Epaphras, who is one of you, a servant of Christ."
"James, a servant of God and of the Lord Jesus Christ."
"Simon Peter, a servant and an apostle of Jesus Christ."
"And he sent and signified it by his angel unto his servant John."

And, do we dare add your name - Tom Ewall, a servant of Jesus Christ. Or, do you reject this title?

Quote:
5. A master can consider his servant a friend but he doesn't stop being a servant.

This is true, but a different topic.

In another sense we become sons and heirs. "Now I say, That the heir, as long as he is a child, differeth nothing from a servant, though he be lord of all; but is under tutors and governors until the time appointed of the father. . . And because ye are sons, God hath sent forth the Spirit of his Son into your hearts, crying, Abba, Father. Wherefore thou art no more a servant, but a son; and if a son, then an heir of God through Christ."

But "until the time appointed of the father" we are servants. Even in the New Earth we will be a servant-son-friend.
Posted By: Tom

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 03/06/09 07:55 PM

Quote:
Do you think obeying Him because He said so constitutes ignorance or slavish obedience? Please explain.


I don't think we can obey God ignorantly. I think we need to understand something of His character and principles, as well as have a personal relationship with Him. Spiritual things are spiritually discerned. It's not just a matter of intellectually processing a message, and performing some action.

Quote:
God never asks us to believe, without giving sufficient evidence upon which to base our faith.(SC 105)


I think this principle applies. God gives us evidence, and His desire is that we respond intelligently, not robotically or slavishly.

Jesus Christ said He no longer calls us slaves but friends because He has told us what the Father is doing, which establishes the principle that God would have us understand His purposes and activities that we may be His friends.

Quote:
Post one place where He actually called them slaves. Nowhere in the NT did He ever call them slaves.


John 15:15 says "no longer do I call you slaves" (or "servants"), so there's a passage. If He's "no longer" calling them "slaves" (or "servants") then He was up until that point.

Quote:
BTW, do you make a distinction between slaves and servants?


The Greek had one word for both English words.
Posted By: Tom

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 03/06/09 08:07 PM

Quote:
M:He is the Servant of servants. Obviously there is nothing wrong with being a servant. Do you agree?


Yes. It's an amazing thing, astounding really, that God conceives of Himself as a servant.

Quote:
Do you think it means they stopped being servants?


This is besides the point. The point in John 15:15 is that Jesus calls us "not servants (or slaves), but friends" on the basis of having revealed things regarding God to us.

Regarding myself, I wouldn't wish to make any claims, but let the Lord take care of that. I prefer to speak of Him.

Regarding the others, who referred to themselves as servants, this isn't something which should be done lightly. However, all of those you named proved their devotion to Christ, many being martyrs, all giving all they had for Christ, which is the spirit of servanthood, the same spirit God has, who has given all He has for us. Of course, you could say the same thing about friendship:

Quote:
Greater love hath no man than this, that a man lay down his life for his friends. (John 15:13)
Posted By: Mountain Man

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 03/08/09 02:18 AM

Originally Posted By: Tom
Do you think obeying Him because He said so constitutes ignorance or slavish obedience? Please explain.

T: I don't think we can obey God ignorantly. I think we need to understand something of His character and principles, as well as have a personal relationship with Him. Spiritual things are spiritually discerned. It's not just a matter of intellectually processing a message, and performing some action.

Do you think obeying Him because He said so constitutes slavish obedience?

Quote:
T: "God never asks us to believe, without giving sufficient evidence upon which to base our faith. (SC 105) I think this principle applies. God gives us evidence, and His desire is that we respond intelligently, not robotically or slavishly.

Jesus Christ said He no longer calls us slaves but friends because He has told us what the Father is doing, which establishes the principle that God would have us understand His purposes and activities that we may be His friends.

Do you think He must give us sufficient evidence to obey a particular command every time He commands us to obey Him? Or, once we learn to love and trust Him, can He command us to obey a particular command without having to explain to us the reasons why? Would such obedience be slavish?

Quote:
M: Post one place where He actually called them slaves. Nowhere in the NT did He ever call them slaves.

T: John 15:15 says "no longer do I call you slaves" (or "servants"), so there's a passage. If He's "no longer" calling them "slaves" (or "servants") then He was up until that point.

Are you telling me this is the only record we have of Jesus calling them slaves?

Quote:
M: BTW, do you make a distinction between slaves and servants?

T: The Greek had one word for both English words.

Do this mean you think the two different words mean the same thing in the NT?
Posted By: Mountain Man

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 03/08/09 02:58 AM

Originally Posted By: Tom
M:He is the Servant of servants. Obviously there is nothing wrong with being a servant. Do you agree?

T: Yes. It's an amazing thing, astounding really, that God conceives of Himself as a servant.

Amen! This elevates the status of servant. BTW, would you feel comfortable referring to God as the Slave of slaves?

Quote:
M: Do you think it means they stopped being servants?

T: This is besides the point. The point in John 15:15 is that Jesus calls us "not servants (or slaves), but friends" on the basis of having revealed things regarding God to us.

Do you think they stopped being servants because Jesus called them friends? BTW, throughout the Gospels Jesus called many people friend, did it mean they knew everything He knew because He called them friends?

Quote:
T: Regarding myself, I wouldn't wish to make any claims, but let the Lord take care of that. I prefer to speak of Him.

Are you a servant of the Lord?

Quote:
T: Regarding the others, who referred to themselves as servants, this isn't something which should be done lightly. However, all of those you named proved their devotion to Christ, many being martyrs, all giving all they had for Christ, which is the spirit of servanthood, the same spirit God has, who has given all He has for us. Of course, you could say the same thing about friendship:

Quote:
Greater love hath no man than this, that a man lay down his life for his friends. (John 15:13)

Do you think they referred to themselves as servants because they lacked enough information to consider themselves friends?
Posted By: Tom

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 03/08/09 03:32 AM

Quote:
Do you think obeying Him because He said so constitutes slavish obedience?


Does this mean, "Do you think obeying Him only because He said so constitutes slavish obedience?

Quote:
Do you think He must give us sufficient evidence to obey a particular command every time He commands us to obey Him? Or, once we learn to love and trust Him, can He command us to obey a particular command without having to explain to us the reasons why? Would such obedience be slavish?


Given your hypothesis, wouldn't we already understand something about why we're doing what we're doing? Remember what we're discussing is the issue of obeying God without *any* understanding of why we're doing what we're doing. Not without "understanding everything about it," but "nothing about it." So let's be clear about that.

From "Steps to Christ"

Quote:
God never asks us to believe, without giving sufficient evidence upon which to base our faith.(SC 105)


It seems clear to me this answers your question. No, God never does this, is the answer.

Quote:
M: Post one place where He actually called them slaves. Nowhere in the NT did He ever call them slaves.

T: John 15:15 says "no longer do I call you slaves" (or "servants"), so there's a passage. If He's "no longer" calling them "slaves" (or "servants") then He was up until that point.

M:Are you telling me this is the only record we have of Jesus calling them slaves?


MM, please quit doing this. You're brighter than this.

You asked me to "post one place ..." so I respond with a passage. Now you ask, "Are you telling me this is the only record we have of Jesus calling them slaves?"

Of course I'm not telling you this. Why would you conclude such a thing from a conversation that goes like this:

M:Post one place which says blah.
T:Ok, here's a place which says blah.
M:Are you telling me this is the only place that says "blah"?

Quote:
M: BTW, do you make a distinction between slaves and servants?

T: The Greek had one word for both English words.

MM:Do this mean you think the two different words mean the same thing in the NT?


This is an illogical question. There's only one word in the language in which the NT was written, not two. Translators have used different words to express the meaning of the one word, but there's only one word in the NT, not two. If you're asking if this one Greek word can express the meaning of two English words, the answer is yes.
Posted By: Tom

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 03/08/09 03:52 AM

Quote:
Amen! This elevates the status of servant. BTW, would you feel comfortable referring to God as the Slave of slaves?


This brings up a rather interesting question. In the original language, there was only one word. So when Jesus spoke of "servant" this could mean either "slave" or "servant." In English, "slave" has a much more negative connotation than "servant." So we would tend to give the most positive meaning to the words of Jesus, and interpret His radical statement that He was a servant to a more exalted status, to take some of the edge off what He said. We like to do this to protect ourselves.

I hadn't thought about this before, until your asking this, but given how radical Jesus was in saying such things, I think "slave of slaves" captures what He said more accurately. Just consider what He did when He washed His disciples feet.

On the other hand, there's an implication of voluntary service which may be implied. If we understand "slave" to mean "involuntary service" then this is another matter. That wouldn't apply at all.

Quote:
M:Do you think they stopped being servants because Jesus called them friends?


This is besides the point. The point in John 15:15 is that Jesus calls us "not servants (or slaves), but friends" on the basis of having revealed things regarding God to us.

Quote:
BTW, throughout the Gospels Jesus called many people friend, did it mean they knew everything He knew because He called them friends?


No, this is besides the point too. Jesus called these people "friend" because He loved them.

Quote:
M:Are you a servant of the Lord?


Regarding myself, I wouldn't wish to make any claims, but let the Lord take care of that. I prefer to speak of Him.

Regarding the others, who referred to themselves as servants, this isn't something which should be done lightly. However, all of those you named proved their devotion to Christ, many being martyrs, all giving all they had for Christ, which is the spirit of servanthood, the same spirit God has, who has given all He has for us.

Quote:
Do you think they referred to themselves as servants because they lacked enough information to consider themselves friends?


No.

You keep jumping around, MM. We're jumping all over the place, dealing with different concepts.

Let's make this simple. When Jesus said, "I no longer call you servants but friends ..." do you not think He was wishing to communicate something positive? If so, what was that positive thing He was wishing to communicate? Why do you think this was contingent upon His having told them all things He had heard from the Father?
Posted By: Mountain Man

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 03/09/09 04:22 AM

Originally Posted By: Tom
M: Do you think obeying Him because He said so constitutes slavish obedience?

T: Does this mean, "Do you think obeying Him only because He said so constitutes slavish obedience?

I'll rephrase the question. Do you think obeying Him based solely on a "Thus saith the Lord" constitutes slavish obedience? For example, Go sacrifice your son.

Quote:
M: Do you think He must give us sufficient evidence to obey a particular command every time He commands us to obey Him? Or, once we learn to love and trust Him, can He command us to obey a particular command without having to explain to us the reasons why? Would such obedience be slavish?

T: Given your hypothesis, wouldn't we already understand something about why we're doing what we're doing? Remember what we're discussing is the issue of obeying God without *any* understanding of why we're doing what we're doing. Not without "understanding everything about it," but "nothing about it." So let's be clear about that.

From "Steps to Christ". God never asks us to believe, without giving sufficient evidence upon which to base our faith. (SC 105) It seems clear to me this answers your question. No, God never does this, is the answer.

My question doesn't concern faith and belief. It has to do with commands and obedience. I'll rephrase the question. Do you think God has ever commanded anyone to obey Him without telling them the reasons why? Would such obedience be slavish?

Quote:
M: Post one place where He actually called them slaves. Nowhere in the NT did He ever call them slaves.

T: John 15:15 says "no longer do I call you slaves" (or "servants"), so there's a passage. If He's "no longer" calling them "slaves" (or "servants") then He was up until that point.

M:A re you telling me this is the only record we have of Jesus calling them slaves?

T: MM, please quit doing this. You're brighter than this. You asked me to "post one place ..." so I respond with a passage. Now you ask, "Are you telling me this is the only record we have of Jesus calling them slaves?" Of course I'm not telling you this. Why would you conclude such a thing from a conversation that goes like this:

M:Post one place which says blah.
T:Ok, here's a place which says blah.
M:Are you telling me this is the only place that says "blah"?

Tom, the passage you posted is what prompted me to ask the question. Why would you repost the same passage that prompted the question in the first place? It may or may not mean Jesus used to call them servants. Asking for a passage where Jesus actually called them servants is a reasonable request. Since there is no record of Jesus ever calling them servants, I am led to conclude that "Henceforth I call you not servants" is not an indication that He used to call them servants. The fact He is speaking about what He will not do in the future, namely, call them servants, simply means they need not worry about it.

Quote:
M: BTW, do you make a distinction between slaves and servants?

T: The Greek had one word for both English words.

MM: Do this mean you think the two different words mean the same thing in the NT?

T: This is an illogical question. There's only one word in the language in which the NT was written, not two. Translators have used different words to express the meaning of the one word, but there's only one word in the NT, not two. If you're asking if this one Greek word can express the meaning of two English words, the answer is yes.

Wow! Is it ever tricky trying to ask you a question. You wrote, "The Greek had one word for both English words." From this comment I assumed you were talking about one Greek word and two English words. So naturally I asked, "Do this mean you think the two different words mean the same thing in the NT?" This question led you to assume I was saying there were two different Greek words. I'll try to be more clear in the future.
Posted By: Mountain Man

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 03/09/09 04:44 AM

Originally Posted By: Tom
T: On the other hand, there's an implication of voluntary service which may be implied. If we understand "slave" to mean "involuntary service" then this is another matter. That wouldn't apply at all.

Wouldn't this apply to the disciples as well? I mean, wasn't their service and devotion to Jesus voluntary? If so, how, then, can we say they were servants before they were friends?

Quote:
M: Do you think they stopped being servants because Jesus called them friends?

T: This is besides the point. The point in John 15:15 is that Jesus calls us "not servants (or slaves), but friends" on the basis of having revealed things regarding God to us.

Please answer the question anyhow. Thank you.

Quote:
M: BTW, throughout the Gospels Jesus called many people friend, did it mean they knew everything He knew because He called them friends?

T: No, this is besides the point too. Jesus called these people "friend" because He loved them.

Does it mean He doesn't love them if He calls them servant?

Quote:
M: Are you a servant of the Lord?

T: Regarding myself, I wouldn't wish to make any claims, but let the Lord take care of that. I prefer to speak of Him.

Are you a friend of Jesus?

Quote:
T: Regarding the others, who referred to themselves as servants, this isn't something which should be done lightly. However, all of those you named proved their devotion to Christ, many being martyrs, all giving all they had for Christ, which is the spirit of servanthood, the same spirit God has, who has given all He has for us.

M: Do you think they referred to themselves as servants because they lacked enough information to consider themselves friends?

T: No.

There seems to be no rhyme or reason to it.

Quote:
T: You keep jumping around, MM. We're jumping all over the place, dealing with different concepts. Let's make this simple. When Jesus said, "I no longer call you servants but friends ..." do you not think He was wishing to communicate something positive? If so, what was that positive thing He was wishing to communicate? Why do you think this was contingent upon His having told them all things He had heard from the Father?

First of all, Jesus Himself said He didn't tell them everything He knew. Secondly, they didn't understand what He was trying to tell them. Lastly, there is no indication their status changed from servant to friend. They went on referring to themselves as the servants of the Lord. Not once did they ever refer to themselves as the friend of Jesus. Thus, you seem to be making something of John 15:15 that the disciples and apostles of Jesus didn't.
Posted By: Tom

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 03/09/09 04:45 AM

Quote:
I'll rephrase the question. Do you think obeying Him based solely on a "Thus saith the Lord" constitutes slavish obedience? For example, Go sacrifice your son.


I don't think it's God's desire that we obey Him with no clue as to why.

Quote:
My question doesn't concern faith and belief. It has to do with commands and obedience.


So you don't think obedience has anything to do with faith and belief?!

Quote:
I'll rephrase the question. Do you think God has ever commanded anyone to obey Him without telling them the reasons why? Would such obedience be slavish?


I don't think God desires obedience based on ignorance. If we already have an understanding on some point, God wouldn't have to repeat it. An obedience without any understanding of what one is doing would be a slavish obedience.
Posted By: Tom

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 03/09/09 04:54 AM

Quote:
I'll rephrase the question. Do you think obeying Him based solely on a "Thus saith the Lord" constitutes slavish obedience? For example, Go sacrifice your son.


I don't think it's God's desire that we obey Him with no clue as to why.

Quote:
My question doesn't concern faith and belief. It has to do with commands and obedience.


So you don't think obedience has anything to do with faith and belief?!

Quote:
I'll rephrase the question. Do you think God has ever commanded anyone to obey Him without telling them the reasons why? Would such obedience be slavish?


I don't think God desires obedience based on ignorance. If we already have an understanding on some point, God wouldn't have to repeat it. An obedience without any understanding of what one is doing would be a slavish obedience.

Quote:
It may or may not mean Jesus used to call them servants. Asking for a passage where Jesus actually called them servants is a reasonable request.


Since Jesus said "no longer" did He call them servants, "but" he called them friends, this rules out the possibility that He did not call them servants.

Quote:
Since there is no record of Jesus ever calling them servants, I am led to conclude that "Henceforth I call you not servants" is not an indication that He used to call them servants.


I can think of at least one other place of the top of my head.

Quote:
The fact He is speaking about what He will not do in the future, namely, call them servants, simply means they need not worry about it.


What? Clearly Jesus point in saying He would no longer call them servants but friends because He had told them all things He had heard from His Father was communicating something which involved:

a.No longer being called servants.
b.Being called friends.
c.Being informed of things.

Quote:
T: This is an illogical question. There's only one word in the language in which the NT was written, not two. Translators have used different words to express the meaning of the one word, but there's only one word in the NT, not two. If you're asking if this one Greek word can express the meaning of two English words, the answer is yes.

Wow! Is it ever tricky trying to ask you a question. You wrote, "The Greek had one word for both English words." From this comment I assumed you were talking about one Greek word and two English words. So naturally I asked, "Do this mean you think the two different words mean the same thing in the NT?" This question led you to assume I was saying there were two different Greek words. I'll try to be more clear in the future.


Your question isn't very clearly phrased. After reading this, I think what you meant to ask is if I think the Greek word when translated by the two different words meant the same thing in the original both times it was translated differently. Is this what you're meaning? If so, it would depend on the case. If you want to post two specific instances, we could discuss it.
Posted By: Mountain Man

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 03/09/09 10:13 PM

Originally Posted By: Tom
M: I'll rephrase the question. Do you think obeying Him based solely on a "Thus saith the Lord" constitutes slavish obedience? For example, Go sacrifice your son.

T: I don't think it's God's desire that we obey Him with no clue as to why.

Does trusting Him count as a clue? For example, "Go and sacrifice your son." The only clue is trusting God knows what He's doing.

Quote:
M: My question doesn't concern faith and belief. It has to do with commands and obedience.

T: So you don't think obedience has anything to do with faith and belief?!

In a root and fruit way, yes. IOW, in the same way faith and works are two sides of the same coin, so too, obeying God based solely on trust is not slavish.

Quote:
M: I'll rephrase the question. Do you think God has ever commanded anyone to obey Him without telling them the reasons why? Would such obedience be slavish?

T: I don't think God desires obedience based on ignorance. If we already have an understanding on some point, God wouldn't have to repeat it. An obedience without any understanding of what one is doing would be a slavish obedience.

Did Abraham render slavish obedience when he obeyed God to sacrifice his son? Please elaborate.
Posted By: Mountain Man

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 03/09/09 10:26 PM

Originally Posted By: Tom
M: It may or may not mean Jesus used to call them servants. Asking for a passage where Jesus actually called them servants is a reasonable request.

T: Since Jesus said "no longer" did He call them servants, "but" he called them friends, this rules out the possibility that He did not call them servants.

Again, there is no record of Jesus calling slaves or servants while He was here. Perhaps it is referring to the OT when He called them servants regularly.

Quote:
M: Since there is no record of Jesus ever calling them servants, I am led to conclude that "Henceforth I call you not servants" is not an indication that He used to call them servants.

T: I can think of at least one other place of the top of my head.

Please don't post it until after I repeatedly beg you to.

Quote:
M: The fact He is speaking about what He will not do in the future, namely, call them servants, simply means they need not worry about it.

T: What? Clearly Jesus point in saying He would no longer call them servants but friends because He had told them all things He had heard from His Father was communicating something which involved:

a.No longer being called servants.
b.Being called friends.
c.Being informed of things.

I am keying in on the word "henceforth". But I just found out that it can mean "no longer" which implies He used to call them servants.

Quote:
T: This is an illogical question. There's only one word in the language in which the NT was written, not two. Translators have used different words to express the meaning of the one word, but there's only one word in the NT, not two. If you're asking if this one Greek word can express the meaning of two English words, the answer is yes.

M: Wow! Is it ever tricky trying to ask you a question. You wrote, "The Greek had one word for both English words." From this comment I assumed you were talking about one Greek word and two English words. So naturally I asked, "Do this mean you think the two different words mean the same thing in the NT?" This question led you to assume I was saying there were two different Greek words. I'll try to be more clear in the future.

T: Your question isn't very clearly phrased. After reading this, I think what you meant to ask is if I think the Greek word when translated by the two different words meant the same thing in the original both times it was translated differently. Is this what you're meaning? If so, it would depend on the case. If you want to post two specific instances, we could discuss it.

The point is in the Greek there aren't two separate words for slave (involuntary service) and servant (voluntary service). So, how does the Greek language differentiate between the two?
Posted By: Mountain Man

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 03/09/09 10:28 PM

PS - Tom, don't forget 109609. Thank you.
Posted By: Tom

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 03/10/09 12:26 AM

Quote:
First of all, Jesus Himself said He didn't tell them everything He knew. Secondly, they didn't understand what He was trying to tell them. Lastly, there is no indication their status changed from servant to friend. They went on referring to themselves as the servants of the Lord. Not once did they ever refer to themselves as the friend of Jesus. Thus, you seem to be making something of John 15:15 that the disciples and apostles of Jesus didn't.


MM, the point is very simple. Jesus said:

Quote:
5Henceforth I call you not servants; for the servant knoweth not what his lord doeth: but I have called you friends; for all things that I have heard of my Father I have made known unto you.(John 15:15)


He says:

1.Henceforth I call you not servants ...but I have called you friends.

and gives as the reason:

2. (servant)for the servant knoweth not what his lord doeth ... (friend)for all things that I have heard of my Father I have made known unto you.

There's no need to go on and on trying to parse "friend" and "servant" and if Jesus said "friend" here or "servant" there or ever called His disciples "servants" or any of that. It's a very simply point; 1 and 2 above.

What do you think this means? What don't we discuss this?
Posted By: Tom

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 03/10/09 04:27 AM

Here's the problem with "obeying" God without any idea of why you're doing what your doing. If you don't know why you're doing something, with no thought of the principles of God's kingdom, then Satan can tell you something impersonating Christ and you'll think you're following Christ when it's really Satan.

You speak of trust, but how do you know it's God you're trusting and not the enemy?

Quote:
But the people of God will not be misled. The teachings of this false christ are not in accordance with the Scriptures. His blessing is pronounced upon the worshipers of the beast and his image, the very class upon whom the Bible declares that God's unmingled wrath shall be poured out.(GC 625)


Why are the people of God not misled? Because that which the false christ speaks is not in accordance with the Scriptures. Notice how Satan will pronounce blessings upon the very group which is accursed. We can't avoid being misled if we don't understand the principles of God and His Kingdom.

Quote:
It is Satan's constant effort to misrepresent the character of God, the nature of sin, and the real issues at stake in the great controversy....Thus the minds of men are blinded, and Satan secures them as his agents to war against God.(GC 569)


If you don't think this could happen to you, you're mistaken. Our only defense is in knowing that truth about God.

Regarding Abraham, the next sentence from the GC quote says:

Quote:
By perverted conceptions of the divine attributes, heathen nations were led to believe human sacrifices necessary to secure the favor of Deity; and horrible cruelties have been perpetrated under the various forms of idolatry.


Abraham may have had some things to learn. For example:

Quote:
While God has desired to teach men that from His own love comes the Gift which reconciles them to Himself, the archenemy of mankind has endeavored to represent God as one who delights in their destruction. Thus the sacrifices and the ordinances designed of Heaven to reveal divine love have been perverted to serve as means whereby sinners have vainly hoped to propitiate, with gifts and good works, the wrath of an offended God. (GC 686)


Now IIRC Abraham said of the sacrifice more than once, "God will provide." Perhaps God asked Abraham to sacrifice his son as a way to make clear to others that this was not God's way.

In Hebrews we read:

Quote:
17By faith Abraham, when God tested him, offered Isaac as a sacrifice. He who had received the promises was about to sacrifice his one and only son, 18even though God had said to him, "It is through Isaac that your offspring will be reckoned." 19Abraham reasoned that God could raise the dead, and figuratively speaking, he did receive Isaac back from death. (Heb. 11)


So we read that Abraham's actions were predicated on reasoning and faith.
Posted By: Tom

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 03/10/09 04:37 AM

Quote:
M: My question doesn't concern faith and belief. It has to do with commands and obedience.

T: So you don't think obedience has anything to do with faith and belief?!

M:In a root and fruit way, yes. IOW, in the same way faith and works are two sides of the same coin, so too, obeying God based solely on trust is not slavish.


If we trust God, and God tells us He doesn't desire slavish obedience but obedience based on intelligent appreciation, reasoning and evidence, wouldn't our trust in Him be manifest by believing this?

If God never asks us to belief something without presenting evidence, this must extend itself to obedience as obedience involves belief.
Posted By: Tom

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 03/10/09 05:21 AM

Quote:
M: It may or may not mean Jesus used to call them servants. Asking for a passage where Jesus actually called them servants is a reasonable request.

T: Since Jesus said "no longer" did He call them servants, "but" he called them friends, this rules out the possibility that He did not call them servants.

M:Again, there is no record of Jesus calling slaves or servants while He was here. Perhaps it is referring to the OT when He called them servants regularly.


What? The OT?

Quote:
15I no longer call you servants, because a servant does not know his master's business. Instead, I have called you friends, for everything that I learned from my Father I have made known to you.(John 15)


This is referring to the OT when Jesus called His disciples servants?

Quote:
M: Since there is no record of Jesus ever calling them servants, I am led to conclude that "Henceforth I call you not servants" is not an indication that He used to call them servants.

T: I can think of at least one other place of the top of my head.

M:Please don't post it until after I repeatedly beg you to.


Ok. I wonder if I can think of any more. I found 4 total, but I had to look. I'm curious, when you declared,

Quote:
Since there is no record of Jesus ever calling them servants, I am led to conclude that 'Henceforth I call you not servants' is not an indication that He used to call them servants.


on what basis did you do so? Just because you couldn't think of anything? Or did you look?

Another thing comes to mind. In our discussion regarding the meaning of Christ's death, you assert that Christ clearly explained the meaning of His death, although it's not recorded. Using your own logic here, then, since it's not recorded, He must not have taught it.

Here's the place that came to me off the top of my mind:

Quote:
12When he had finished washing their feet, he put on his clothes and returned to his place. "Do you understand what I have done for you?" he asked them. 13"You call me 'Teacher' and 'Lord,' and rightly so, for that is what I am. 14Now that I, your Lord and Teacher, have washed your feet, you also should wash one another's feet. 15I have set you an example that you should do as I have done for you. 16I tell you the truth, no servant is greater than his master, nor is a messenger greater than the one who sent him. 17Now that you know these things, you will be blessed if you do them.(John 13)


Quote:
The point is in the Greek there aren't two separate words for slave (involuntary service) and servant (voluntary service). So, how does the Greek language differentiate between the two?


By the context, the same way English differentiates the different meanings of words. For example, "run" has over a hundred meanings. How do you what it means? How do you know what "officer" means? A policeman? A commander in the military? Someone with an important position in a company?
Posted By: Mountain Man

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 03/11/09 08:08 PM

Originally Posted By: Tom
T: On the other hand, there's an implication of voluntary service which may be implied. If we understand "slave" to mean "involuntary service" then this is another matter. That wouldn't apply at all.

Wouldn't this apply to the disciples as well? I mean, wasn't their service and devotion to Jesus voluntary? If so, how, then, can we say they were servants before they were friends?

Quote:
M: Do you think they stopped being servants because Jesus called them friends?

T: This is besides the point. The point in John 15:15 is that Jesus calls us "not servants (or slaves), but friends" on the basis of having revealed things regarding God to us.

Please answer the question anyhow. Thank you.

Quote:
M: BTW, throughout the Gospels Jesus called many people friend, did it mean they knew everything He knew because He called them friends?

T: No, this is besides the point too. Jesus called these people "friend" because He loved them.

Does it mean He doesn't love them if He calls them servant?

Quote:
M: Are you a servant of the Lord?

T: Regarding myself, I wouldn't wish to make any claims, but let the Lord take care of that. I prefer to speak of Him.

Are you a friend of Jesus?

Quote:
T: Regarding the others, who referred to themselves as servants, this isn't something which should be done lightly. However, all of those you named proved their devotion to Christ, many being martyrs, all giving all they had for Christ, which is the spirit of servanthood, the same spirit God has, who has given all He has for us.

M: Do you think they referred to themselves as servants because they lacked enough information to consider themselves friends?

T: No.

There seems to be no rhyme or reason to it. What do you mean? What criteria do you use to determine whether someone is a servant or a friend?

Quote:
T: You keep jumping around, MM. We're jumping all over the place, dealing with different concepts. Let's make this simple. When Jesus said, "I no longer call you servants but friends ..." do you not think He was wishing to communicate something positive? If so, what was that positive thing He was wishing to communicate? Why do you think this was contingent upon His having told them all things He had heard from the Father?

M: First of all, Jesus Himself said He didn't tell them everything He knew. Secondly, they didn't understand what He was trying to tell them. Lastly, there is no indication their status changed from servant to friend. They went on referring to themselves as the servants of the Lord. Not once did they ever refer to themselves as the friend of Jesus. Thus, you seem to be making something of John 15:15 that the disciples and apostles of Jesus didn't.

T: MM, the point is very simple. Jesus said:

Quote:
5Henceforth I call you not servants; for the servant knoweth not what his lord doeth: but I have called you friends; for all things that I have heard of my Father I have made known unto you.(John 15:15)

He says:

1.Henceforth I call you not servants ...but I have called you friends.

and gives as the reason:

2. (servant)for the servant knoweth not what his lord doeth ... (friend)for all things that I have heard of my Father I have made known unto you.

There's no need to go on and on trying to parse "friend" and "servant" and if Jesus said "friend" here or "servant" there or ever called His disciples "servants" or any of that. It's a very simply point; 1 and 2 above.

What do you think this means? What don't we discuss this?

I cannot divorce John 15:15 from the rest of the Gospels and treat it in isolation or as if it exists in a vacuum. Clearly it does not. Obviously the difference has to do with Jesus' perspective. He is the one who decided to view them in a different light using different titles. In light of everything I've posted about it so far, I think it means Jesus felt as if He had conveyed enough of what He knew to His disciples to begin thinking of them in terms of friends.

But, this is not to say they were as informed as Jesus was or that they understood what Jesus told them. Jesus said, "Ye are my friends, if ye do whatsoever I command you." Immediately after calling them friends, Jesus referred to them as servants. "Remember the word that I said unto you, The servant is not greater than his lord." The fact they didn't understand everything Jesus knew is clear from the following passage:

Quote:
John
16:16 A little while, and ye shall not see me: and again, a little while, and ye shall see me, because I go to the Father.
16:17 Then said [some] of his disciples among themselves, What is this that he saith unto us, A little while, and ye shall not see me: and again, a little while, and ye shall see me: and, Because I go to the Father?
16:18 They said therefore, What is this that he saith, A little while? we cannot tell what he saith.
16:28 I came forth from the Father, and am come into the world: again, I leave the world, and go to the Father.
16:29 His disciples said unto him, Lo, now speakest thou plainly, and speakest no proverb.
16:30 Now are we sure that thou knowest all things, and needest not that any man should ask thee: by this we believe that thou camest forth from God.
16:31 Jesus answered them, Do ye now believe?
16:32 Behold, the hour cometh, yea, is now come, that ye shall be scattered, every man to his own, and shall leave me alone: and yet I am not alone, because the Father is with me.
16:33 These things I have spoken unto you, that in me ye might have peace. In the world ye shall have tribulation: but be of good cheer; I have overcome the world.

Shortly thereafter all of them abandoned Him, disowned Him, and one of them even denied Him thrice. Such ignorance and behavior is not indicative of the term or title "friend" according to your criteria.

Nevertheless, for reasons that made sense to Jesus, He viewed them as friends in spite of the fact He knew they didn't understand everything He told them and that they were going to betray Him in just a little while. Obviously Jesus was using a different criteria for friends than you are.
Posted By: Mountain Man

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 03/11/09 08:57 PM

Originally Posted By: Tom
So we read that Abraham's actions were predicated on reasoning and faith.

Why was it necessary for him to rely on reason and faith? Was it because God did not explain why He said, Go and sacrifice your son? Does God expect us to assume His commands are right and reasonable so that we can obey Him unslavishly?

Quote:
T: You speak of trust, but how do you know it's God you're trusting and not the enemy?

God will not command me to do something that contradicts His will and law. Abraham’s story with Isaac was unique.

Quote:
T: If God never asks us to belief something without presenting evidence, this must extend itself to obedience as obedience involves belief.

My point is once God earns our trust and respect He doesn’t have to explain why He commands us to do this or that. Obedience based on a precedence of trust and respect is unslavish. I served the USA as an airman in the Air Force. When a superior ranking officer ordered me to do something, I did not require of him the reasons why. My obedience was based on trust and respect and for the good of the team (squad, flight). My children rendered the same kind of obedience. Such obedience is intelligent and not at all slavish.

Quote:
M: Since there is no record of Jesus ever calling them servants, I am led to conclude that 'Henceforth I call you not servants' is not an indication that He used to call them servants.

T: On what basis did you do so? Just because you couldn't think of anything? Or did you look?

Yes, I did a word search and nothing turned up. That is, where Jesus called servants. I did find where Jesus said they should serve one another as servants. “And whosoever will be chief among you, let him be your servant. . . But he that is greatest among you shall be your servant.” “If any man desire to be first, the same shall be last of all, and servant of all.”

Quote:
T: Another thing comes to mind. In our discussion regarding the meaning of Christ's death, you assert that Christ clearly explained the meaning of His death, although it's not recorded. Using your own logic here, then, since it's not recorded, He must not have taught it.

I suspect the very opposite of what you think I believe. I suspect Jesus did call them servants but it wasn’t recorded. His inferences were recorded but none of them reflect him calling them servants directly. Neither do such inferences indicate they stopped being servants.

Quote:
M: The point is in the Greek there aren't two separate words for slave (involuntary service) and servant (voluntary service). So, how does the Greek language differentiate between the two?

T: By the context, the same way English differentiates the different meanings of words.

Do you know of any biblical examples where the context makes it clear the Greek word is differentiating between slave (involuntary service) and servant (voluntary service)?
Posted By: Tom

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 03/12/09 07:46 PM

I started to post this, and lost it, sorry. I don't have time to go through it all, but I think the following covers the most important points, although you're certainly free to bring up any points again.

Quote:
I cannot divorce John 15:15 from the rest of the Gospels and treat it in isolation or as if it exists in a vacuum. Clearly it does not. Obviously the difference has to do with Jesus' perspective. He is the one who decided to view them in a different light using different titles. In light of everything I've posted about it so far, I think it means Jesus felt as if He had conveyed enough of what He knew to His disciples to begin thinking of them in terms of friends.


I think Jesus said He was calling them friends as opposed to servants because the servant does what he is told, without the knowledge of why being important. Jesus made this same point in the parable of the servants.

As opposed to simply doing something because one is told, Jesus is revealing them "all things I received from the Father," which is not simply verbal information (the SOP points out Christ wasn't simply communicating words to them is revealing all things, but what He was doing was included as well), so that they can do things because they have an understanding of what's going on. Calling them friends indicates a higher level of trust and taking others into one's confidence.

Quote:
Shortly thereafter all of them abandoned Him, disowned Him, and one of them even denied Him thrice. Such ignorance and behavior is not indicative of the term or title "friend" according to your criteria.


If you mean they didn't act as they should have, as friends, you're right. Their behavior wasn't indicative of that as a friend.

Quote:
Nevertheless, for reasons that made sense to Jesus, He viewed them as friends in spite of the fact He knew they didn't understand everything He told them and that they were going to betray Him in just a little while.


He called Judas "friend" as well. He did so because He loved him.

Quote:
Obviously Jesus was using a different criteria for friends than you are.


Your basing this comment on the basis of their behavior, it looks like. I think it's obvious you've made the wrong conclusion. You should have concluded they didn't behave as friends.
Posted By: Tom

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 03/12/09 07:55 PM

Quote:
Why was it necessary for him to rely on reason and faith?


It's impossible to please God without faith. God wants us to have faith. Faith is a good thing.

Quote:
Was it because God did not explain why He said, Go and sacrifice your son?


No.

Quote:
Does God expect us to assume His commands are right and reasonable so that we can obey Him unslavishly?


What are you asking here?

Quote:
T: You speak of trust, but how do you know it's God you're trusting and not the enemy?

M:God will not command me to do something that contradicts His will and law.


Which is exactly the point! This is precisely what I've been pointing out, and exactly what I've been saying, which just slightly different language (e.g. knowing God's character, the principles of His government).

If you know God's will and law, the foundation upon which you determine whether a command you receive is from God or not, then you're obey on the basis of understanding, and if you love the law, then from intelligent appreciation.

I'll think I'll stop here, since this has been my whole point.
Posted By: Mountain Man

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 03/14/09 06:56 PM

Originally Posted By: Tom
M: I cannot divorce John 15:15 from the rest of the Gospels and treat it in isolation or as if it exists in a vacuum. Clearly it does not. Obviously the difference has to do with Jesus' perspective. He is the one who decided to view them in a different light using different titles. In light of everything I've posted about it so far, I think it means Jesus felt as if He had conveyed enough of what He knew to His disciples to begin thinking of them in terms of friends.

T: I think Jesus said He was calling them friends as opposed to servants because the servant does what he is told, without the knowledge of why being important. Jesus made this same point in the parable of the servants.

As opposed to simply doing something because one is told, Jesus is revealing them "all things I received from the Father," which is not simply verbal information (the SOP points out Christ wasn't simply communicating words to them is revealing all things, but what He was doing was included as well), so that they can do things because they have an understanding of what's going on. Calling them friends indicates a higher level of trust and taking others into one's confidence.

Yeah, that's what I said.

Quote:
M: Shortly thereafter all of them abandoned Him, disowned Him, and one of them even denied Him thrice. Such ignorance and behavior is not indicative of the term or title "friend" according to your criteria.

T: If you mean they didn't act as they should have, as friends, you're right. Their behavior wasn't indicative of that as a friend.

That's why I said it has more to do with Jesus' perspective.

Quote:
M: Nevertheless, for reasons that made sense to Jesus, He viewed them as friends in spite of the fact He knew they didn't understand everything He told them and that they were going to betray Him in just a little while.

T: He called Judas "friend" as well. He did so because He loved him.

Again, it's Jesus perspective. Just because he called someone friend it did not mean they were as informed and knowledgeable as He was.

Quote:
M: Obviously Jesus was using a different criteria for friends than you are.

T: Your basing this comment on the basis of their behavior, it looks like. I think it's obvious you've made the wrong conclusion. You should have concluded they didn't behave as friends.

They never really behaved as friends until after the Pentecost.
Posted By: Mountain Man

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 03/14/09 07:02 PM

Originally Posted By: Tom
M: Why was it necessary for him to rely on reason and faith?

T: It's impossible to please God without faith. God wants us to have faith. Faith is a good thing.

M: Was it because God did not explain why He said, Go and sacrifice your son?

T: No.

M: Does God expect us to assume His commands are right and reasonable so that we can obey Him unslavishly?

T: What are you asking here?

Abraham obeyed God based on trust not based on the content of the command. God didn't provide him with reasons why, and yet his obedience was not considered slavish. That's the point.

Quote:
T: You speak of trust, but how do you know it's God you're trusting and not the enemy?

M: God will not command me to do something that contradicts His will and law.

T: Which is exactly the point! This is precisely what I've been pointing out, and exactly what I've been saying, which just slightly different language (e.g. knowing God's character, the principles of His government).

If you know God's will and law, the foundation upon which you determine whether a command you receive is from God or not, then you're obey on the basis of understanding, and if you love the law, then from intelligent appreciation.

I'll think I'll stop here, since this has been my whole point.

I'm glad you agree with me on this point. God does not have to explain the reasons why He expects us to obey when he commands us to - Go and sacrifice your son. Obeying Him simply because He said so is based on trust and is more than sufficient. And, such obedience is not slavish.
Posted By: Tom

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 03/14/09 07:34 PM

Quote:
Abraham obeyed God based on trust not based on the content of the command. God didn't provide him with reasons why, and yet his obedience was not considered slavish. That's the point.


I disagree. If the command had been for Abraham to have had sex with his son, he wouldn't have done that, right? If so, then Abraham's obedience did take into account the content of the command.

When I asked you how would you know if you were following God's voice or not in response to a command, you said you would take into account God's will and His law, an excellent answer. Wouldn't Abraham have done the same?

Quote:
T: You speak of trust, but how do you know it's God you're trusting and not the enemy?

M: God will not command me to do something that contradicts His will and law.

T: Which is exactly the point! This is precisely what I've been pointing out, and exactly what I've been saying, which just slightly different language (e.g. knowing God's character, the principles of His government).

If you know God's will and law, the foundation upon which you determine whether a command you receive is from God or not, then you're obey on the basis of understanding, and if you love the law, then from intelligent appreciation.

I'll think I'll stop here, since this has been my whole point.

M:I'm glad you agree with me on this point.


A rather odd comment. I've been arguing this point for 30 pages, and you finally agree with it. You could have done so 30 pages ago! Actually this thread spawned off another thread. You could have agreed on that thread.

Quote:
God does not have to explain the reasons why He expects us to obey when he commands us to - Go and sacrifice your son. Obeying Him simply because He said so is based on trust and is more than sufficient.


It's not sufficient. Using your own guidelines, it's necessary to know God's will and His law. His law is a transcript of His character, so knowing His law means knowing His character.

Again, consider the question of if Abraham had been commanded to have sex with his son. Would he have done that?

How about you? Certainly there are things you would refuse to do on the basis of their being immoral, even if you thought it was an angel or God telling you to do so. Indeed, wouldn't you reject the idea that it was an angel or God telling you to do something if it were something you knew to be contrary to His will or law?

Quote:
And, such obedience is not slavish.


You're sort of talking out of both sides of your mouth. An obedience which did not take anything into account, such as the content of the command, would be slavish. That's what "slavish obedience" means. It's simply "yes, sir" without any thought whatsoever of what one is doing, whether such a thing is immoral, what the consequences of such an action would, etc.

However, the obedience you're suggesting, based on an understanding of God's will and His law, is not slavish obedience.
Posted By: Mountain Man

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 03/15/09 08:28 PM

Originally Posted By: Tom
M: Abraham obeyed God based on trust not based on the content of the command. God didn't provide him with reasons why, and yet his obedience was not considered slavish. That's the point.

T: I disagree. If the command had been for Abraham to have had sex with his son, he wouldn't have done that, right? If so, then Abraham's obedience did take into account the content of the command.

Do you think God commanded Abraham to have sex with his son?

Quote:
T: When I asked you how would you know if you were following God's voice or not in response to a command, you said you would take into account God's will and His law, an excellent answer. Wouldn't Abraham have done the same?

The law says, Thou shalt not murder.

Quote:
T: You speak of trust, but how do you know it's God you're trusting and not the enemy?

M: God will not command me to do something that contradicts His will and law.

T: Which is exactly the point! This is precisely what I've been pointing out, and exactly what I've been saying, which just slightly different language (e.g. knowing God's character, the principles of His government).

If you know God's will and law, the foundation upon which you determine whether a command you receive is from God or not, then you're obey on the basis of understanding, and if you love the law, then from intelligent appreciation. I'll think I'll stop here, since this has been my whole point.

M: God does not have to explain the reasons why He expects us to obey when he commands us to - Go and sacrifice your son. Obeying Him simply because He said so is based on trust and is more than sufficient.

T: It's not sufficient. Using your own guidelines, it's necessary to know God's will and His law. His law is a transcript of His character, so knowing His law means knowing His character.

Most of the law simply says, Thou shalt not, it does not provide reasons why.

Quote:
T: Again, consider the question of if Abraham had been commanded to have sex with his son. Would he have done that?

Do you think God commanded Abraham to have sex with his son?

Quote:
T: How about you? Certainly there are things you would refuse to do on the basis of their being immoral, even if you thought it was an angel or God telling you to do so. Indeed, wouldn't you reject the idea that it was an angel or God telling you to do something if it were something you knew to be contrary to His will or law?

Like Abraham, I would obey God even if the command was - Go and sacrifice your son. Would you?

Quote:
M: And, such obedience is not slavish.

T: You're sort of talking out of both sides of your mouth. An obedience which did not take anything into account, such as the content of the command, would be slavish. That's what "slavish obedience" means. It's simply "yes, sir" without any thought whatsoever of what one is doing, whether such a thing is immoral, what the consequences of such an action would, etc.

Do you think taking God at His word is slavish? Would you go and sacrifice your son if God told you to? Or, would you require God to explain why?

Quote:
T: However, the obedience you're suggesting, based on an understanding of God's will and His law, is not slavish obedience.

I agree.
Posted By: Mountain Man

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 03/15/09 08:30 PM

Tom, do you agree with the following points?

Originally Posted By: Mountain Man
Originally Posted By: Tom
M: I cannot divorce John 15:15 from the rest of the Gospels and treat it in isolation or as if it exists in a vacuum. Clearly it does not. Obviously the difference has to do with Jesus' perspective. He is the one who decided to view them in a different light using different titles. In light of everything I've posted about it so far, I think it means Jesus felt as if He had conveyed enough of what He knew to His disciples to begin thinking of them in terms of friends.

T: I think Jesus said He was calling them friends as opposed to servants because the servant does what he is told, without the knowledge of why being important. Jesus made this same point in the parable of the servants.

As opposed to simply doing something because one is told, Jesus is revealing them "all things I received from the Father," which is not simply verbal information (the SOP points out Christ wasn't simply communicating words to them is revealing all things, but what He was doing was included as well), so that they can do things because they have an understanding of what's going on. Calling them friends indicates a higher level of trust and taking others into one's confidence.

Yeah, that's what I said.

Quote:
M: Shortly thereafter all of them abandoned Him, disowned Him, and one of them even denied Him thrice. Such ignorance and behavior is not indicative of the term or title "friend" according to your criteria.

T: If you mean they didn't act as they should have, as friends, you're right. Their behavior wasn't indicative of that as a friend.

That's why I said it has more to do with Jesus' perspective.

Quote:
M: Nevertheless, for reasons that made sense to Jesus, He viewed them as friends in spite of the fact He knew they didn't understand everything He told them and that they were going to betray Him in just a little while.

T: He called Judas "friend" as well. He did so because He loved him.

Again, it's Jesus perspective. Just because he called someone friend it did not mean they were as informed and knowledgeable as He was.

Quote:
M: Obviously Jesus was using a different criteria for friends than you are.

T: Your basing this comment on the basis of their behavior, it looks like. I think it's obvious you've made the wrong conclusion. You should have concluded they didn't behave as friends.

They never really behaved as friends until after the Pentecost.
Posted By: Tom

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 03/15/09 11:31 PM

It sounds like you're simply asking me if I agree with what I said, as you're saying the same thing, aren't you? If so, I agree. If you're saying something different, you'll have to point it out to me.
Posted By: Tom

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 03/15/09 11:38 PM

Quote:
M: Abraham obeyed God based on trust not based on the content of the command. God didn't provide him with reasons why, and yet his obedience was not considered slavish. That's the point.

T: I disagree. If the command had been for Abraham to have had sex with his son, he wouldn't have done that, right? If so, then Abraham's obedience did take into account the content of the command.

M:Do you think God commanded Abraham to have sex with his son?


????? This isn't an answer to my question. Try again please!

Quote:
T: When I asked you how would you know if you were following God's voice or not in response to a command, you said you would take into account God's will and His law, an excellent answer. Wouldn't Abraham have done the same?

M:The law says, Thou shalt not murder.


What's your point?

Quote:
M: God does not have to explain the reasons why He expects us to obey when he commands us to - Go and sacrifice your son. Obeying Him simply because He said so is based on trust and is more than sufficient.

T: It's not sufficient. Using your own guidelines, it's necessary to know God's will and His law. His law is a transcript of His character, so knowing His law means knowing His character.

R:Most of the law simply says, Thou shalt not, it does not provide reasons why.


You said you would know whether a voice commanding you to do something was of God or not by knowing His will and His law.

Quote:
T: Again, consider the question of if Abraham had been commanded to have sex with his son. Would he have done that?

M:Do you think God commanded Abraham to have sex with his son?


Please answer my question.

Quote:
T: How about you? Certainly there are things you would refuse to do on the basis of their being immoral, even if you thought it was an angel or God telling you to do so. Indeed, wouldn't you reject the idea that it was an angel or God telling you to do something if it were something you knew to be contrary to His will or law?

M:Like Abraham, I would obey God even if the command was - Go and sacrifice your son. Would you?


I don't think you would. You said before that Abraham's circumstances were unique. Doesn't that mean you think God wouldn't make the same request again? Or are you unsure? You wouldn't reject a command that you kill your son as not being from God?

Quote:
T: You're sort of talking out of both sides of your mouth. An obedience which did not take anything into account, such as the content of the command, would be slavish. That's what "slavish obedience" means. It's simply "yes, sir" without any thought whatsoever of what one is doing, whether such a thing is immoral, what the consequences of such an action would, etc.

M:Do you think taking God at His word is slavish? Would you go and sacrifice your son if God told you to? Or, would you require God to explain why?


MM, you're stuck. You said that you would know whether a voice was of God or not on the basis of knowing His will and law. That's intelligent obedience. This is what I've been saying. You are taking into account the content of the command in making your decision.
Posted By: Mountain Man

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 03/16/09 10:28 PM

Originally Posted By: Tom
It sounds like you're simply asking me if I agree with what I said, as you're saying the same thing, aren't you? If so, I agree. If you're saying something different, you'll have to point it out to me.

What about these two comments?

Originally Posted By: MM
M: Nevertheless, for reasons that made sense to Jesus, He viewed them as friends in spite of the fact He knew they didn't understand everything He told them and that they were going to betray Him in just a little while.

T: He called Judas "friend" as well. He did so because He loved him.

Again, it's Jesus perspective. Just because he called someone friend it did not mean they were as informed and knowledgeable as He was.

Quote:
M: Obviously Jesus was using a different criteria for friends than you are.

T: Your basing this comment on the basis of their behavior, it looks like. I think it's obvious you've made the wrong conclusion. You should have concluded they didn't behave as friends.

They never really behaved as friends until after the Pentecost.
Posted By: Mountain Man

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 03/20/09 06:35 PM

The answer to the title question is - Yes!
Posted By: Tom

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 03/20/09 08:33 PM

Quote:
Again, it's Jesus perspective. Just because he called someone friend it did not mean they were as informed and knowledgeable as He was.


Of course not. This was never suggested, as this is obviously unreasonable. However, in John 15:15, Jesus explained that He was calling His disciples friends on the basis of revealing them what He received from His Father (which is more than simply knowledge or information, as the SOP points out).

The answer title is, not as God desires.
Posted By: Mountain Man

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 03/26/09 07:49 PM

Tom, Jesus did not call His disciples friends on the eve of His crucifixion because they understood "all things that I have heard of my Father I have made known unto you." The truth is they didn't understand what He told them. Jesus tossed the word "friend" around indiscriminately. He even called His enemies "friend".

Again, Abraham obeyed God unquestioningly. He took God at His word without questioning why or withholding obedience until sufficient reasons were given. There is nothing slavish about such obedience. Listen:

Quote:
Abraham's test was the most severe that could come to a human being. Had he failed under it, he would never have been registered as the father of the faithful. Had he deviated from God's command, the world would have lost an inspiring example of unquestioning faith and obedience. {1BC 1094.4}

Abraham's unquestioning obedience was one of the most striking instances of faith and reliance upon God to be found in the Sacred Record. . . . Just such faith and confidence as Abraham had the messengers of God need today. {AG 133.6} We cannot overestimate the value of simple faith and unquestioning obedience. It is by following in the path of obedience in simple faith that the character obtains perfection. {LHU 139.6} When we are in right relation to God, we shall recognize Christ's authority to direct us and His claim to our unquestioning obedience. {2MCP 782.4}

"By faith Abraham, when he was called to go out into a place which he should after receive for an inheritance, obeyed; and he went out, not knowing whither he went." Hebrews 11:8. Abraham's unquestioning obedience is one of the most striking evidences of faith to be found in all the Bible. To him, faith was "the substance of things hoped for, the evidence of things not seen." Verse 1. Relying upon the divine promise, without the least outward assurance of its fulfillment, he abandoned home and kindred and native land, and went forth, he knew not whither, to follow where God should lead. "By faith he became a sojourner in the land of promise, as in a land not his own, dwelling in tents, with Isaac and Jacob, the heirs with him of the same promise." Hebrews 11:9, R.V. {PP 126.2}

But Abraham didn't always obey unquestioningly. Listen:

Quote:
In a vision of the night the divine Voice was again heard. "Fear not, Abram," were the words of the Prince of princes; "I am thy shield, and thy exceeding great reward." But his mind was so oppressed by forebodings that he could not now grasp the promise with unquestioning confidence as heretofore. He prayed for some tangible evidence that it would be fulfilled. And how was the covenant promise to be realized, while the gift of a son was withheld? "What wilt thou give me," he said, "seeing I go childless?" "And, lo, one born in my house is mine heir." He proposed to make his trusty servant Eliezer his son by adoption, and the inheritor of his possessions. But he was assured that a child of his own was to be his heir. Then he was led outside his tent, and told to look up to the unnumbered stars glittering in the heavens; and as he did so, the words were spoken, "So shall thy seed be." "Abraham believed God, and it was counted unto him for righteousness." Romans 4:3. {PP 136.3}
Posted By: Tom

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 03/28/09 04:30 AM

MM, what Jesus said is very simple.

Quote:
15: Henceforth I call you not servants; for the servant knoweth not what his lord doeth: but I have called you friends; for all things that I have heard of my Father I have made known unto you.(John 15)


I don't understand the difficulty you're having with this. There's no need to parse the word "friend," or wonder if it's better to be a friend than to be a servant, or whether one continues to be a servant after being a friend, or any of these things. These are not necessary considerations to understand what Jesus said, which is very simple.

1.Now I am call you friends, as opposed to servants, as I have been doing up until now.
2.Why? Because a servant does not know what the one whom he is serving does. (This should be understood as encompassing motives, reasons and principles; not simply the act itself).
3.But all things I've heard from my Father I've made known to you.

Ellen White makes clear that Jesus Christ did not make them know to them simply by telling them, but that He revealed in His life what He had received from His Father.

Ok, that's it. It should be really easy to see that being called a friend has to do with understanding, and being called a servant has to do with not understanding.
Posted By: Claudia Thompson

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 03/28/09 10:02 PM

God asked Peter to eat unclean meat and he said "No". Peter didnt obey AND he didnt understand, because the Bible said he doubted within himself what God meant. And he was still God's friend, I think. Peter knew that God had previously commanded not to eat unclean foods... so Peter was trying to be obedient and loyal by saying No LOL!

So I dont think that because sometimes we question something ... it necessarily means we arent God's friend or even that we dont have faith. I think God understands.

Acts 10:
10: And he became very hungry, and would have eaten: but while they made ready, he fell into a trance,
11: And saw heaven opened, and a certain vessel descending unto him, as it had been a great sheet knit at the four corners, and let down to the earth:
12: Wherein were all manner of fourfooted beasts of the earth, and wild beasts, and creeping things, and fowls of the air.
13: And there came a voice to him, Rise, Peter; kill, and eat.
14: But Peter said, Not so, Lord; for I have never eaten any thing that is common or unclean.
15: And the voice spake unto him again the second time, What God hath cleansed, that call not thou common.
16: This was done thrice: and the vessel was received up again into heaven.
17: Now while Peter doubted in himself what this vision which he had seen should mean, behold, the men which were sent from Cornelius had made enquiry for Simon's house, and stood before the gate,
Posted By: teresaq

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 03/29/09 12:55 AM

maybe we are discussing the spirit of questioning more than actual questioning?

i mean, some cavil at everything-one spirit.

others want to know the reasoning-another spirit.

that may not have been the best way to say it, but i hope all got the point.
Posted By: Mountain Man

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 03/29/09 03:05 AM

Originally Posted By: Tom
It should be really easy to see that being called a friend has to do with understanding, and being called a servant has to do with not understanding.

But Jesus' disciples didn't understand. They were totally clueless. They abandoned Him. One denied Him thrice.

The point is - It is possible to obey Jesus before understanding His reasons for giving the command. Such obedience is not slavish.

Again, Abraham obeyed God unquestioningly. He took God at His word without questioning why or withholding obedience until sufficient reasons were given. There is nothing slavish about such obedience. Listen:

Quote:
Abraham's test was the most severe that could come to a human being. Had he failed under it, he would never have been registered as the father of the faithful. Had he deviated from God's command, the world would have lost an inspiring example of unquestioning faith and obedience. {1BC 1094.4}

Abraham's unquestioning obedience was one of the most striking instances of faith and reliance upon God to be found in the Sacred Record. . . . Just such faith and confidence as Abraham had the messengers of God need today. {AG 133.6} We cannot overestimate the value of simple faith and unquestioning obedience. It is by following in the path of obedience in simple faith that the character obtains perfection. {LHU 139.6} When we are in right relation to God, we shall recognize Christ's authority to direct us and His claim to our unquestioning obedience. {2MCP 782.4}

"By faith Abraham, when he was called to go out into a place which he should after receive for an inheritance, obeyed; and he went out, not knowing whither he went." Hebrews 11:8. Abraham's unquestioning obedience is one of the most striking evidences of faith to be found in all the Bible. To him, faith was "the substance of things hoped for, the evidence of things not seen." Verse 1. Relying upon the divine promise, without the least outward assurance of its fulfillment, he abandoned home and kindred and native land, and went forth, he knew not whither, to follow where God should lead. "By faith he became a sojourner in the land of promise, as in a land not his own, dwelling in tents, with Isaac and Jacob, the heirs with him of the same promise." Hebrews 11:9, R.V. {PP 126.2}

You seem to be saying such unquestioning obedience is slavish. Is that what you're saying? BTW, Abraham didn't always obey unquestioningly. Sometimes he asked questions. Listen:

Quote:
In a vision of the night the divine Voice was again heard. "Fear not, Abram," were the words of the Prince of princes; "I am thy shield, and thy exceeding great reward." But his mind was so oppressed by forebodings that he could not now grasp the promise with unquestioning confidence as heretofore. He prayed for some tangible evidence that it would be fulfilled. And how was the covenant promise to be realized, while the gift of a son was withheld? "What wilt thou give me," he said, "seeing I go childless?" "And, lo, one born in my house is mine heir." He proposed to make his trusty servant Eliezer his son by adoption, and the inheritor of his possessions. But he was assured that a child of his own was to be his heir. Then he was led outside his tent, and told to look up to the unnumbered stars glittering in the heavens; and as he did so, the words were spoken, "So shall thy seed be." "Abraham believed God, and it was counted unto him for righteousness." Romans 4:3. {PP 136.3}
Posted By: Tom

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 03/29/09 08:39 AM

Quote:
So I dont think that because sometimes we question something ... it necessarily means we arent God's friend or even that we dont have faith. I think God understands.


God seems to appreciate honest questions very much. This seems very evident in the way Jesus dealt with those who asked questions.
Posted By: Tom

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 03/29/09 08:41 AM

MM, I don't know what to say other than repeat what I said. What Jesus said is very simple.

Quote:

15: Henceforth I call you not servants; for the servant knoweth not what his lord doeth: but I have called you friends; for all things that I have heard of my Father I have made known unto you.(John 15)


I don't understand the difficulty you're having with this. There's no need to parse the word "friend," or wonder if it's better to be a friend than to be a servant, or whether one continues to be a servant after being a friend, or any of these things. These are not necessary considerations to understand what Jesus said, which is very simple.

1.Now I am call you friends, as opposed to servants, as I have been doing up until now.
2.Why? Because a servant does not know what the one whom he is serving does. (This should be understood as encompassing motives, reasons and principles; not simply the act itself).
3.But all things I've heard from my Father I've made known to you.

Ellen White makes clear that Jesus Christ did not make them know to them simply by telling them, but that He revealed in His life what He had received from His Father.

Ok, that's it. It should be really easy to see that being called a friend has to do with understanding, and being called a servant has to do with not understanding.

This seems very clear from the text. I don't see how else one could interpret this.
Posted By: Tom

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 03/29/09 08:43 AM

Quote:
The point is - It is possible to obey Jesus before understanding His reasons for giving the command. Such obedience is not slavish.


MM, I asked you how you would know if you heard a voice commanding you to do something if it was of God or not. You said by knowing Him and knowing His law. This was my whole point. I don't know why we're still discussing this.
Posted By: Mountain Man

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 03/30/09 06:45 PM

Abraham is an example of someone who obeyed God "unquestioningly" and it was not considered slavish. Do you agree?

PS - See quotes posted above.
Posted By: Tom

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 03/30/09 07:45 PM

I believe that God wants us to obey Him intelligently, and that His commands are presume that we will obey on the basis of a well reasoned faith. The Boreans were more noble because they searched the Scriptures to see if the things Paul was saying were true.

I asked you what you would do if you heard a voice, how you would know if it were God or not. You said by considering if the command were in agreement with God's law and will. This is what I had been saying.

So that pretty much settles the issue, doesn't it?
Posted By: Mountain Man

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 03/31/09 12:43 AM

Not the issue regarding the example of Abraham. He obeyed God without questioning why. Do you think his obedience in those cases was slavish?
Posted By: Tom

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 03/31/09 02:31 AM

You already asked this. I already commented regarding this. You can see the comments earlier in the thread.
Posted By: Mountain Man

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 04/01/09 03:33 AM

I went back I couldn't find where you talked about Abraham's "unquestioning" obedience. Do you know which post it is? Also, I found this interesting comment:

God informed Satan, that to His Son alone He would reveal His secret purposes, and He required all the family in heaven, even Satan, to yield Him implicit, unquestioned obedience; but that he (Satan) had proved himself unworthy of a place in heaven. Then Satan exultingly pointed to his sympathizers, comprising nearly one half of all the angels, and exclaimed, "These are with me! Will you expel these also, and make such a void in heaven?" He then declared that he was prepared to resist the authority of Christ and to defend his place in heaven by force of might, strength against strength. {SR 18.1}
Posted By: Tom

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 04/01/09 03:48 AM

Post #109651 speaks of Abraham.

Btw, "unquestioned obedience" is not the same thing as what we're talking about. "Unquestioned obedience" has to do with not having a rebellious spirit. We're talking about having an intelligent appreciation of God's character and understanding the principles of His government.

Regarding Abraham, you said of yourself, when I asked how you would know if a voice you heard was from God, that you would consider whether what you were told agreed with what you know of God's law and character, which was an excellent response. Now, wouldn't Abraham have done the same thing? Doesn't taking into account God's law and character characterize an obedience which involves knowledge and reason?
Posted By: Mountain Man

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 04/01/09 11:09 PM

Tom, I disagree that "unquestioned obedience" in the quotes I posted above imply not having a rebellious spirit. The context makes it clear to me that it means obeying God without questioning why. For example, if God told me to sell everything and give it to the poor, I would obey Him without question. I might be tempted to get in line where the poor benefit from my donation, but hopefully I would obey Him without first demanding an explanation.
Posted By: Tom

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 04/02/09 04:35 AM

Questions, in the right spirit, are a good thing!

Quote:
The Lord does not want us to have a blind credulity, and call that the faith that sanctifies. (2SM 56)


Quote:
Those who desire to doubt will have plenty of room. God does not propose to remove all occasion for unbelief. He gives evidence, which must be carefully investigated with a humble mind and teachable spirit. All should decide from the weight of evidence." Review and Herald, Sept. 16, 1873


Quote:
Test everything. Hold on to the good.(1 Thessalonians 5:21.)


Quote:
He [Christ] maintained his disguise till he had interpreted the Scriptures, and had led them to an intelligent faith in his life, his character, his mission to earth, and his death and resurrection. He wished the truth to take firm root in their minds, not because it was supported by his personal testimony, but because the typical law, and the prophets of the Old Testament, agreeing with the facts of his life and death, presented unquestionable evidence of that truth." Spirit of Prophecy, vol. 3, p. 214


Quote:
The last great delusion is soon to open before us. Antichrist is to perform his marvelous works in our sight. So closely will the counterfeit resemble the true that it will be impossible to distinguish between them except by the Holy Scriptures. By their testimony every statement and every miracle must be tested.(GC 593)


Quote:
Impressions alone are not a safe guide to duty. The enemy often persuades men to believe that it is God who is guiding them, when in reality they are following only human impulse. (Acts of the Apostles 279)


Quote:
Let God’s people act so that the world will see that Seventh-day Adventists are an intelligent, thinking people, whose faith is based on a surer foundation than the bedlam of confusion. The people are hungry for the bread of life. Do not offer them a stone." (Manuscript 101, 1901)


Quote:
The Lord positively demands of every Christian an intelligent knowledge of the Scriptures." Review and Herald, March 8, 1887



Here are a number of statements which explain that God does not want a blind credulity, but intelligent, reasoning followers who have an understanding of the truth.
Posted By: Tom

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 04/02/09 04:41 AM

The previous post I quoted a number of statements, but I'd like to take a different tack here. What do you think God is like, that He would want people to do what He says without understanding why? What do you think that says about Him?

My concept of God is that He wants us to follow His commands out of an intelligent appreciation of His character and the principles by which He runs His government. He wants us to question, with the right spirit, why He does things. This is demonstrated by Jesus' comment:

Quote:
No longer do I call you servants, for a servant does not know what his master is doing; but I have called you friends, for all things that I heard from My Father I have made known to you.(John 15:15)


God runs His government on the basis of love. Love, in order to be rendered, but be done so on the basis of character appreciation, not blind submission to authority. The authority by which God runs His kingdom is moral authority, which is based not on position but on character.

Boy, I liked that last sentence. I'll repeat it, and emphasize it.

The authority by which God runs His kingdom is moral authority, which is based not on position but on character.
Posted By: Mountain Man

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 04/08/09 05:24 PM

Yes, there are times when God wants us to understand the reasons why He commands us to do something. The question is - Does He want us to withhold obedience until He explains the reasons why? I don't think so. What do you think?
Posted By: Tom

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 04/09/09 01:02 AM

Quote:
Yes, there are times when God wants us to understand the reasons why He commands us to do something. The question is - Does He want us to withhold obedience until He explains the reasons why? I don't think so. What do you think?


When I asked you how you would know if it were God who was saying you should do something, you answered by knowing His character and His law, which I accepted as an excellent response, and agreeing with the point I was making, at which point I thought we were through.

To answer your question here, I would answer on the basis of what you said earlier, which is that He doesn't want us to withhold obedience, but to obey on the basis of intelligent appreciation of His character and understanding of His law.
Posted By: Mountain Man

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 04/10/09 04:14 AM

Tom, do you see a difference between obeying on the "basis of intelligent appreciation of His character and understanding of His law" versus obeying "even though we do not understand the reasons why"?

For example:

1. God is holy, just, and good.
2. His law is holy, just, and good.

Therefore, I can obey the command to sacrifice my son without understanding the reasons why.
Posted By: Tom

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 04/10/09 05:43 AM

So you're saying if you heard a voice commanding you to kill your son, you would do so, reasoning:

1. God is holy, just, and good.
2. His law is holy, just, and good.

Therefore, I can obey the command to sacrifice my son without understanding the reasons why.
Posted By: Mountain Man

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 04/10/09 08:51 PM

Yes, of course. Wouldn't you? As in the case of Abraham, however, I would anticipate God calling it off at the last second.

PS - I have no doubt God will never command me to sacrifice my son. Do you feel the same way?
Posted By: Mountain Man

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 04/10/09 08:51 PM

Tom, do you see a difference between obeying on the "basis of intelligent appreciation of His character and understanding of His law" versus obeying "even though we do not understand the reasons why"?
Posted By: Tom

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 04/10/09 09:42 PM

Quote:
T:So you're saying if you heard a voice commanding you to kill your son, you would do so, reasoning:

1. God is holy, just, and good.
2. His law is holy, just, and good.

Therefore, I can obey the command to sacrifice my son without understanding the reasons why.

M:Yes, of course. Wouldn't you?


No. I think this is scary. Very scary. Is there anything you wouldn't do?

Quote:
As in the case of Abraham, however, I would anticipate God calling it off at the last second.


And if that didn't happen?

Quote:
PS - I have no doubt God will never command me to sacrifice my son. Do you feel the same way?


The same way as you? No.

Quote:
Tom, do you see a difference between obeying on the "basis of intelligent appreciation of His character and understanding of His law" versus obeying "even though we do not understand the reasons why"?


When you say "even though we do not understand the reasons why"? do you mean all the reasons, or any of the reasons?
Posted By: asygo

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 04/11/09 08:31 AM

One of the first lessons a child needs to learn is the lesson of obedience. Before he is old enough to reason, he may be taught to obey. {CG 82.4}
Posted By: Tom

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 04/11/09 08:35 AM

A dog can learn to obey without being able to reason as well. This doesn't mean we shouldn't reason too.

God has given us reasoning abilities, and it is God's desire that we use these abilities.

Quote:
All whom God has blessed with reasoning powers are to become intellectual Christians. They are not requested to believe without evidence;(RH 3/18/87)
Posted By: asygo

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 04/11/09 10:06 AM

Quote:
God desires man to exercise his reasoning powers; and the study of the Bible will strengthen and elevate the mind as no other study can. Yet we are to beware of deifying reason, which is subject to the weakness and infirmity of humanity. If we would not have the Scriptures clouded to our understanding, so that the plainest truths shall not be comprehended, we must have the simplicity and faith of a little child, ready to learn, and beseeching the aid of the Holy Spirit. A sense of the power and wisdom of God, and of our inability to comprehend His greatness, should inspire us with humility, and we should open His word, as we would enter His presence, with holy awe. When we come to the Bible, reason must acknowledge an authority superior to itself, and heart and intellect must bow to the great I AM. {SC 109.3}

Using reason to evaluate evidence is one thing. But using reason to filter God's commands is quite another. God wants us to use reason, but I don't think He intended to lose His job.
Posted By: Mountain Man

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 04/11/09 05:53 PM

Originally Posted By: Tom
T:So you're saying if you heard a voice commanding you to kill your son, you would do so, reasoning:

1. God is holy, just, and good.
2. His law is holy, just, and good.

Therefore, I can obey the command to sacrifice my son without understanding the reasons why.

M: Yes, of course. Wouldn't you?

T: No. I think this is scary. Very scary. Is there anything you wouldn't do?

Do you think there is anything God wouldn't command me to do? Also, do you think it was scary for Abraham? Or, do you think it was a beautiful thing that he obeyed God without questioning why?

Quote:
M: As in the case of Abraham, however, I would anticipate God calling it off at the last second.

T: And if that didn't happen?

Can you think of a situation in which God wouldn't call it off?

Quote:
M: I have no doubt God will never command me to sacrifice my son. Do you feel the same way?

T: The same way as you? No.

Please explain the differences between what I believe about it and what you do.

Quote:
M: Tom, do you see a difference between obeying on the "basis of intelligent appreciation of His character and understanding of His law" versus obeying "even though we do not understand the reasons why"?

T: When you say "even though we do not understand the reasons why"? do you mean all the reasons, or any of the reasons?

Use Abraham as an example. How many reasons did God give him when He commanded him to sacrifice his son? And, did Abraham understand those reasons?

Also, what was the basis of Abraham's obedience? Was it based on perfect understanding of the reasons why God commanded him to sacrifice his son? Or, was it based solely on the fact he trusted God and believed things would make sense eventually? And, did believing that God could resurrect his son if need be count as a reason why he should obey God?
Posted By: Tom

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 04/11/09 08:45 PM

Quote:
Using reason to evaluate evidence is one thing. But using reason to filter God's commands is quite another.


This is a red herring. No one is saying anything about "filtering God's commands."

Let's make an apples to apples comparison. If God does not ask us to believe without giving evidence, the only way it could be true that God wants us to obey Him without evaluating evidence would be if obedience has nothing to do with believing. Is this what you're wishing to assert? If not, then reason does come into play.

Quote:
God wants us to use reason, but I don't think He intended to lose His job.


So if we reason, God can't do His job? This seems to me to be the opposite of what God wishes to communicate to us. For example, to present ourselves a living sacrifice is our reasonable service, which is to say, as we use our reason to evaluate the evidence, we are constrained to give ourselves to God, presenting ourselves as a living sacrifice. To present ourselves a living sacrifice is to love God with all our heart and soul and mind and strength, which is obedience to the first and greatest commandment.
Posted By: Tom

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 04/11/09 08:59 PM

Quote:
T: No. I think this is scary. Very scary. Is there anything you wouldn't do?

M:Do you think there is anything God wouldn't command me to do? Also, do you think it was scary for Abraham? Or, do you think it was a beautiful thing that he obeyed God without questioning why?


Let's answer my question first please. You're saying that if God commanded you to kill your son, you would "of course" do it. Is there anything you wouldn't do?

Quote:
T: And if that didn't happen?

M:Can you think of a situation in which God wouldn't call it off?


Can you? This is a problem you need to resolve, MM. It doesn't apply to me, because I'm not willing to "of course" kill because I hear a voice I identify as God's voice telling me to do so.

What happens if you're wrong about the voice? That would be a situation where God wouldn't call it off. You'd be killing your son, or some other terrible thing, under the delusion that God told you to do so. People do this sort of thing all the time.

I asked you earlier in this thread how you would know if a voice telling you to do something was God's or not, and you responded very well, saying you would do so by knowing God's character and His law. You seem to be backing away from this now, being willing to "of course" kill your son, which is, "of course" both contrary to God's character and His law. Would you be willing to "of course" do other things that you perceive to be contrary to His character and His law? (I'm under the assumption that you perceive killing your son to be contrary to His character and law. Please remember my question was related to you and not Abraham, whose situation was different than yours is now. You affirmed you would be willing to "of course" kill your son if God so commanded.)

Quote:
M: I have no doubt God will never command me to sacrifice my son. Do you feel the same way?

T: The same way as you? No.

M:Please explain the differences between what I believe about it and what you do.


You don't seem to evaluate the feasibility of commands based on your conscience and knowledge of God's character. That is, it appears to me, you would do something contrary to your beliefs as to what is right if you believed God were telling you to do so.

Quote:
M: Tom, do you see a difference between obeying on the "basis of intelligent appreciation of His character and understanding of His law" versus obeying "even though we do not understand the reasons why"?

T: When you say "even though we do not understand the reasons why"? do you mean all the reasons, or any of the reasons?

M:Use Abraham as an example. How many reasons did God give him when He commanded him to sacrifice his son? And, did Abraham understand those reasons?

Also, what was the basis of Abraham's obedience? Was it based on perfect understanding of the reasons why God commanded him to sacrifice his son? Or, was it based solely on the fact he trusted God and believed things would make sense eventually? And, did believing that God could resurrect his son if need be count as a reason why he should obey God?


I asked you one question, and you ask me six back without answering the one I asked. Let's step back a moment. You asked me if I see a difference between obeying God on the basis of an intelligent appreciation of His character and obeying Him even though we don't understand the reasons why. I'm asking you if by "the reasons why" you mean "all of the reasons why" or "any of the reasons why." I don't see why Abraham needs to be discussed to answer this question.
Posted By: asygo

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 04/12/09 08:05 AM

Originally Posted By: Tom
Quote:
Using reason to evaluate evidence is one thing. But using reason to filter God's commands is quite another.

This is a red herring. No one is saying anything about "filtering God's commands."

Didn't you say that my father was justified in disregarding "Remember the Sabbath day to keep it holy" in Exodus because *he* can't see any good reason for it? It's not that he's not sure God commanded it. It's not that he thinks God commmanded another day to be kept holy. It's not that he believes it's a sin to do it. It's just that he sees no reason to do it.

It's not a red herring. It is the biggest problem I see with your position. Of course, it is entirely possible that this is not your position. If so, please feel free to clarify.

Originally Posted By: Tom
Let's make an apples to apples comparison. If God does not ask us to believe without giving evidence, the only way it could be true that God wants us to obey Him without evaluating evidence would be if obedience has nothing to do with believing. Is this what you're wishing to assert? If not, then reason does come into play.

Believing and obedience are closely tied. Our difference is in what to believe. My position is that it is sufficient to believe that God is wise and all-loving; that's enough for me to obey whatever He says. Your position, as I understand it, is that you will only obey if YOU believe there is a good reason for the command.

Originally Posted By: Tom
Quote:
God wants us to use reason, but I don't think He intended to lose His job.

So if we reason, God can't do His job? This seems to me to be the opposite of what God wishes to communicate to us.

We can reason while letting God keep His job. But if you require God to be subject to your reason, which is subject to the weakness and infirmity of humanity, you've got it upside down.
Quote:
God desires man to exercise his reasoning powers; and the study of the Bible will strengthen and elevate the mind as no other study can. Yet we are to beware of deifying reason, which is subject to the weakness and infirmity of humanity. If we would not have the Scriptures clouded to our understanding, so that the plainest truths shall not be comprehended, we must have the simplicity and faith of a little child, ready to learn, and beseeching the aid of the Holy Spirit. {SC 109.3}

Note that the "simplicity and faith of a little child" is honorable, not comparable to an animal's obedience.

I think I've said it in this thread before, that you and I would see things more closely if you study the child-training principles in the SOP. I've studied it, and tried it out in real life, and I can attest that allowing a child to trust his reason more than his parents' word is potentially fatal. The same holds true for our Heavenly Father and His children.
Posted By: Tom

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 04/12/09 07:43 PM

Quote:
A:Using reason to evaluate evidence is one thing. But using reason to filter God's commands is quite another.

T:This is a red herring. No one is saying anything about "filtering God's commands."

A:Didn't you say that my father was justified in disregarding "Remember the Sabbath day to keep it holy" in Exodus because *he* can't see any good reason for it? It's not that he's not sure God commanded it. It's not that he thinks God commmanded another day to be kept holy. It's not that he believes it's a sin to do it. It's just that he sees no reason to do it.

It's not a red herring. It is the biggest problem I see with your position. Of course, it is entirely possible that this is not your position. If so, please feel free to clarify.


I didn't say anything about filtering God's commands. You're somehow equating not believing there is a reason to do something with filtering God's commands. Please explain your reasoning here.

Quote:
Believing and obedience are closely tied. Our difference is in what to believe. My position is that it is sufficient to believe that God is wise and all-loving; that's enough for me to obey whatever He says.


I don't think this is sufficient. What if God commands you to do something you think is wrong? (I mean morally wrong). Would you do it? Do you think God would do such a thing?

Quote:
Your position, as I understand it, is that you will only obey if YOU believe there is a good reason for the command.


I'm arguing against the idea that God wants us to obey Him with no idea as to why. I'm not sure we're talking about the same thing. I'm not saying we should set ourselves up as a judge over God, which sounds like what you're suggesting I'm saying.

Quote:
We can reason while letting God keep His job. But if you require God to be subject to your reason, which is subject to the weakness and infirmity of humanity, you've got it upside down.


Of course. It sounds like you may be understanding me to be saying something I'm not.

Again, what I'm saying is I don't believe God wants us to obey Him without having any idea as to why we are doing what He says. I'm speaking of moral issues here.
Posted By: asygo

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 04/14/09 07:01 AM

Originally Posted By: Tom
I didn't say anything about filtering God's commands. You're somehow equating not believing there is a reason to do something with filtering God's commands. Please explain your reasoning here.

God says something (e.g. "keep the Sabbath holy") and you refuse to obey because you don't see a good reason for it. That, in my book, is a clear example of filtering God's commands by human reason.

Originally Posted By: Tom
What if God commands you to do something you think is wrong? (I mean morally wrong). Would you do it? Do you think God would do such a thing?

This is just what I'm talking about.

"God commands you to do something." If that is a known fact, "Would I do it?" is not even a question the true disciple asks. Of course he would do it. The only question at that point is how to do it.

What if he thought it was morally wrong? He has two options: 1) He can admit that God has higher moral standards and he should learn from God rather than presume to sit in judgment on the morality of God's commands.

2) He should find himself a god who measures up to his own standards of morality.

If he chooses option 2, he'll find one that looks eerily similar to himself. And he'll start thinking that he's doing pretty good, since he's reflecting his god pretty well.

The only safe option is the simple option: If God says it, do it. If something doesn't make sense, you will not gain any light or wisdom by withholding obedience, which only results in more darkness.
Posted By: Tom

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 04/14/09 05:47 PM

Quote:
T:I didn't say anything about filtering God's commands. You're somehow equating not believing there is a reason to do something with filtering God's commands. Please explain your reasoning here.

A:God says something (e.g. "keep the Sabbath holy") and you refuse to obey because you don't see a good reason for it.


I'm discussing the following: "you refused to obey because you don't see any reason to do so." For example, you think the Sabbath has been changed to Sunday, or this was something only the Jews needed to do and doesn't apply to you.

Quote:
That, in my book, is a clear example of filtering God's commands by human reason.


I don't think so. I think this falls in the following category:

Quote:
Said the angel, "If light comes, and that light is set aside, or rejected, then comes condemnation and the frown of God; but before the light comes there is no sin, for there is no light for them to reject." I saw that it was in the minds of some that the Lord had shown that the Sabbath commenced at six o'clock, when I had only seen that it commenced at "even," and it was inferred that even was at six. (Spiritual Gifts Volume 4b, p.3)


They thought the Sabbath was from 6pm to 6pm. There was no sin involved as long as they didn't have light on the Sabbath being from sunset to sunset.

Whether we are "filtering" a commandment of God depends on light. I'm going under the assumption that your father, for example, was not under the conviction that he should keep the Sabbath, that he didn't understand this to be an obligation. Now if he is resisting light, that's another matter.

Quote:
T:What if God commands you to do something you think is wrong? (I mean morally wrong). Would you do it? Do you think God would do such a thing?

A:This is just what I'm talking about.


Good! Me too.

Quote:
"God commands you to do something." If that is a known fact, "Would I do it?" is not even a question the true disciple asks. Of course he would do it. The only question at that point is how to do it.


It's not a known fact. We discern God's voice by faith. Satan can impersonate God. We need to determine who is speaking to us. Is it really God?

Quote:
What if he thought it was morally wrong? He has two options: 1) He can admit that God has higher moral standards and he should learn from God rather than presume to sit in judgment on the morality of God's commands.

2) He should find himself a god who measures up to his own standards of morality.

If he chooses option 2, he'll find one that looks eerily similar to himself. And he'll start thinking that he's doing pretty good, since he's reflecting his god pretty well.

The only safe option is the simple option: If God says it, do it. If something doesn't make sense, you will not gain any light or wisdom by withholding obedience, which only results in more darkness.


Ok, it sounds like you're answering both of questions yes. That is, first of all, "Would God ask you to do something you think is morally wrong?" Your answer is yes. The second question is, "Would you do something you thought was morally wrong if God asked you to?" and again your answer is yes.

Have I understood you correctly?
Posted By: Mountain Man

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 04/16/09 06:29 PM

Originally Posted By: Tom
Quote:
T: No. I think this is scary. Very scary. Is there anything you wouldn't do?

M:Do you think there is anything God wouldn't command me to do? Also, do you think it was scary for Abraham? Or, do you think it was a beautiful thing that he obeyed God without questioning why?

Let's answer my question first please. You're saying that if God commanded you to kill your son, you would "of course" do it. Is there anything you wouldn't do?

Yes, there is plenty I wouldn't do. For example, I wouldn't kill my son.

Quote:
T: And if that didn't happen?

M: Can you think of a situation in which God wouldn't call it off?

T: Can you? This is a problem you need to resolve, MM. It doesn't apply to me, because I'm not willing to "of course" kill because I hear a voice I identify as God's voice telling me to do so.

What happens if you're wrong about the voice? That would be a situation where God wouldn't call it off. You'd be killing your son, or some other terrible thing, under the delusion that God told you to do so. People do this sort of thing all the time.

I asked you earlier in this thread how you would know if a voice telling you to do something was God's or not, and you responded very well, saying you would do so by knowing God's character and His law. You seem to be backing away from this now, being willing to "of course" kill your son, which is, "of course" both contrary to God's character and His law. Would you be willing to "of course" do other things that you perceive to be contrary to His character and His law? (I'm under the assumption that you perceive killing your son to be contrary to His character and law. Please remember my question was related to you and not Abraham, whose situation was different than yours is now. You affirmed you would be willing to "of course" kill your son if God so commanded.)

I know God wouldn't tell me to kill my son. But i believe He did indeed command Abraham to kill his son. Do you agree?

Quote:
M: I have no doubt God will never command me to sacrifice my son. Do you feel the same way?

T: The same way as you? No.

M:Please explain the differences between what I believe about it and what you do.

T: You don't seem to evaluate the feasibility of commands based on your conscience and knowledge of God's character. That is, it appears to me, you would do something contrary to your beliefs as to what is right if you believed God were telling you to do so.

Yes, I would do whatever God commanded me to do. I know the voice of God. I get the impression you would not have set out to sacrifice your son if you had been in Abraham's place and position. Is that right?

Quote:
M: Tom, do you see a difference between obeying on the "basis of intelligent appreciation of His character and understanding of His law" versus obeying "even though we do not understand the reasons why"?

T: When you say "even though we do not understand the reasons why"? do you mean all the reasons, or any of the reasons?

M:Use Abraham as an example. How many reasons did God give him when He commanded him to sacrifice his son? And, did Abraham understand those reasons?

Also, what was the basis of Abraham's obedience? Was it based on perfect understanding of the reasons why God commanded him to sacrifice his son? Or, was it based solely on the fact he trusted God and believed things would make sense eventually? And, did believing that God could resurrect his son if need be count as a reason why he should obey God?

T: I asked you one question, and you ask me six back without answering the one I asked. Let's step back a moment. You asked me if I see a difference between obeying God on the basis of an intelligent appreciation of His character and obeying Him even though we don't understand the reasons why. I'm asking you if by "the reasons why" you mean "all of the reasons why" or "any of the reasons why." I don't see why Abraham needs to be discussed to answer this question.

My question relates to Abraham's case. Were there "any" reasons given? If so, did he base his decision to obey on any or all of them?
Posted By: Tom

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 04/17/09 08:45 PM

MM, first you said this:

Quote:
T:So you're saying if you heard a voice commanding you to kill your son, you would do so, reasoning:

1. God is holy, just, and good.
2. His law is holy, just, and good.

Therefore, I can obey the command to sacrifice my son without understanding the reasons why.

M: Yes, of course. Wouldn't you?



Now you're saying this:

Quote:
Let's answer my question first please. You're saying that if God commanded you to kill your son, you would "of course" do it. Is there anything you wouldn't do?

M:Yes, there is plenty I wouldn't do. For example, I wouldn't kill my son.


You're saying two different things here. That makes it difficult to respond.


Quote:
Yes, I would do whatever God commanded me to do.


Now we're back to the first thing again. You're bouncing around like a ping pong ball.

Quote:
I know the voice of God.


Are you sure? You don't think Satan could fool you? He's fooled many others.

Before when I asked you this question you said you would obey the voice depending on whether it agreed with God's character and His law, which I think is the correct response. However here you appear to be backing off from what you said previously. If you're not, please explain how your thoughts fit together. Some of the time I'm hearing you would do anything, and other times I'm hearing you wouldn't.

Quote:
I get the impression you would not have set out to sacrifice your son if you had been in Abraham's place and position. Is that right?


Do you mean if I were in Abraham's position knowing what I know? Or knowing what Abraham knew? If you mean knowing what I know now, then aren't we back to your original response that you would "of course" sacrifice your son if you heard a voice commanding you to do so?

Quote:
T: I asked you one question, and you ask me six back without answering the one I asked. Let's step back a moment. You asked me if I see a difference between obeying God on the basis of an intelligent appreciation of His character and obeying Him even though we don't understand the reasons why. I'm asking you if by "the reasons why" you mean "all of the reasons why" or "any of the reasons why." I don't see why Abraham needs to be discussed to answer this question.

M:My question relates to Abraham's case. Were there "any" reasons given? If so, did he base his decision to obey on any or all of them?


If you're asking if Abraham understood the reasons for sacrificing his son, the answer is yes. Abraham set out to obey God knowing why he was doing what he was going to do.
Posted By: Daryl

Re: Is it possible to obey God before understanding His reasons for giving the command? - 06/22/13 01:33 PM

Here is another related thread that Arnold (asygo) created, which I decided to bump.
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