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Re: The Power of Words -- Why Definitions Matter [Re: APL] #179973
03/26/16 06:12 AM
03/26/16 06:12 AM
Green Cochoa  Offline OP
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Originally Posted By: APL
I am instructed to say to our people, Let us follow Christ. We may safely discard all ideas that are not included in His teachings. {BCL 99.4}

All that man needs to know or can know of God has been revealed in the life and character of His Son. {8T 286.1}

Christ is the definition of truth.

Very well, then, shall we seek to define which teachings are Christ's? To acknowledge that this is an important definition may be within the scope of this thread. However, to seek to filter the huge body of material that might be relevant to such a discussion is beyond the scope of this thread. Please start a new thread on this if you wish. To illustrate the potential need of clarification on this definition, consider the following three questions:

Did Christ teach people not to eat fish and meat?
Do we then need to teach people differently than He did?
Why did Ellen White teach people to give up the meat diet?

NOTE: These questions are not intended to be discussed here, they are only included to illustrate the need of defining what Christ taught that Mrs. White would be referring to in her statement. Consider, too, that it may be ironic, depending on one's definitions, that Ellen White is needed to teach that only Christ's teachings should apply to us.

Blessings,

Green Cochoa.


We can receive of heaven's light only as we are willing to be emptied of self. We can discern the character of God, and accept Christ by faith, only as we consent to the bringing into captivity of every thought to the obedience of Christ. And to all who do this, the Holy Spirit is given without measure. In Christ "dwelleth all the fulness of the Godhead bodily. And ye are complete in Him." [Colossians 2:9, 10.] {GW 57.1} -- Ellen White.
Re: The Power of Words -- Why Definitions Matter [Re: Green Cochoa] #179975
03/26/16 01:36 PM
03/26/16 01:36 PM
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Elle  Offline
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Tx Green for listing all the texts in the table with the info for ratsach. That will be a good reference point for us.

I went thru your table to group similar texts so we can further tackle looking into that word more deeply. This is what I came up with and what I'm recommending. If anyone have any other suggestion, let us know.

1.From Ex 20:13 & Deut 5:17 : Basic law that we seek to understand by looking into other texts.

2. From Num 35 to Jos 21:38 is all about the cities of refuge for those that murdered ratsach or being mistakened as a ratsach murderer -- both being pursued and finding refuge in those cities so they can be trial.

3. Jud 20:4 (with Hos 4:2; 6:4; Is :21; Jer 7:9}: -- the story of an Levite from Ephraim who went to BehtlehemJudah(19:16) to persuade his concubine to go back with him and on the way back stops to lodge in Gibeah a Benjamite city. There the Benjamites wants to kill the man(20:5), but he toss his concubine and they murder her instead. I have studied this in the pass a few times. I would be good to re-study it while pondering on the word ratsach.

But the crime of this story is connected to the crimes to the House of Israel(Hos 4:2; 6:4; 9:9; 10:9) and the crimes of the House of Judah-Jerusalem(Is :21; Jer 7:9).

4. The poor and the needy (Job 24:14, Ps 94:6) : My quick speculative impression is the crimes the Priests has committed against the poor & needy (Job 24:14, Ps 94:6)is similar in nature to the crimes the people of Gibeah did towards that concubine. I could be wrong, but I would study the poor & needy ratsach type of crime after completing looking at #3.

5. Naboth Killed for his vineyard(1Kg 21:19): Naboth could connect to category #4 but I have a hunch this story would bring a deeper meaning to the word.

6. ??? the sloth who thinks he will be murdered Prov 22:13? I have no clue. But we might understand it when we did #3-#5.

7. ??? Elisha in 2Kg 6:32. I didn't look at the context.



Since we have already discussed briefly the texts found in #2 which is the laws how to handle a person guilty (or perceived as guilty) of breaking the 6th commandment(#1 texts); I would recommend we come back to this once we finish looking at the texts found in #3 to #7.

So I would recommend we start looking at the story found in Judge 20:4 (#3) and proceeds to look at the 4 other texts that makes a connection to the crime committed in Gilbeah.


Blessings
Re: The Power of Words -- Why Definitions Matter [Re: Elle] #179976
03/26/16 02:32 PM
03/26/16 02:32 PM
asygo  Offline
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Originally Posted By: Elle
Originally Posted By: asygo
Consider this parable.
Jill: Ow!
Mommy: Jack, don't hit your sister.
Jack: OK.
...
Jill: Ow!
Mommy: Jack, I told you not to hit your sister.
Jack: I didn't.......

That's a cute parable -- until Jack started to use the hammer. Did you write that?

Yes, I just made that up. It is meant to show how one can disobey in heart while obeying with the body.

Originally Posted By: Elle
Originally Posted By: Asygo
It may be that God used a particular word at a particular time. But we can't conclusively say that He only meant one thing. Neither can we say that the word always means the same thing every time He used it. If we are looking for that kind of precision, the 10C would have needed a mountain of stone to write.


That's a good way to water down the power of the Word; if that's your objective. But from what I've known you from this forum, you don't strike me as such an individual. I believe you seek to behold the Lord's power.

Jesus is the Word. We know He spoke creation into existence with Words. There's power in His words and language. To say such statement does show that you haven't tasted the Hebrew language.

I appreciate the value of studying the Bible in its original form, but I don't agree that the words themselves have inherent power. Their true power is their ability to help us understand Jesus, the Word.

Just review this thread. Can't we find a better use of time than to argue whether or not Cain broke the law by killing Abel? Is it reasonable to imagine that Simeon and Levi had no hatred for the man who defiled their sister, but were merely seeking a legalistic way to disobey Jacob? Or that it was some form of misguided righteous hatred? As one with extensive experience in disobedience, I can tell you that the passions of the carnal heart and mind are sufficient to lead one to sin.

Jesus warned us of the danger of focusing on the words while rejecting the Word. Let's not entertain the idea that His words are some kind of magical incantation with inherent power. The power is in the Word, not the words. If it were not so, there would have been no need to expound beyond the Ten Words on stone.

The article you posted postulates that Hebrew is the language God used at creation, but cited no biblical proof. It gives examples of words with related meanings to show that Hebrew is special, but anyone who has studied for standardized tests knows that Latin-based languages do the same thing (e.g. transgress, progress, regress, etc). If Hebrew is the only way, God could have figured out a way to use it for the NT also.


By God's grace,
Arnold

There is no excuse for any one in taking the position that there is no more truth to be revealed, and that all our expositions of Scripture are without an error. The fact that certain doctrines have been held as truth for many years by our people, is not a proof that our ideas are infallible. Age will not make error into truth, and truth can afford to be fair. No true doctrine will lose anything by close investigation. RH 12/20/1892
Re: The Power of Words -- Why Definitions Matter [Re: Green Cochoa] #179977
03/26/16 02:51 PM
03/26/16 02:51 PM
Green Cochoa  Offline OP
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Well said, Arnold, thank you. While the word definitions are important, they are not the sum. Without the Word, via the working of His Holy Spirit, the words themselves have no intrinsic value.

Blessings,

Green Cochoa.


We can receive of heaven's light only as we are willing to be emptied of self. We can discern the character of God, and accept Christ by faith, only as we consent to the bringing into captivity of every thought to the obedience of Christ. And to all who do this, the Holy Spirit is given without measure. In Christ "dwelleth all the fulness of the Godhead bodily. And ye are complete in Him." [Colossians 2:9, 10.] {GW 57.1} -- Ellen White.
Re: The Power of Words -- Why Definitions Matter [Re: Green Cochoa] #179979
03/26/16 03:12 PM
03/26/16 03:12 PM
APL  Offline
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Originally Posted By: Green Cochoa
Well said, Arnold, thank you. While the word definitions are important, they are not the sum. Without the Word, via the working of His Holy Spirit, the words themselves have no intrinsic value.

Blessings,

Green Cochoa.
And what a terrible mis-tranlation of the 10C in the KJV, the version you love, you hate how it portrays the Law. You focus on the words, we should focus on The Word. You think that all the killing in the OT is really what God wanted. You think that killing was necessary in order to gain Cainan, yet we know from this was not God's plan and was not necessary if they had believed God. There is power in The Word, not the words.


Oh, that men might open their minds to know God as he is revealed in his Son! {ST, January 20, 1890}
Re: The Power of Words -- Why Definitions Matter [Re: APL] #179980
03/26/16 03:17 PM
03/26/16 03:17 PM
Green Cochoa  Offline OP
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5500+ Member
Joined: Apr 2008
Posts: 7,003
The Orient
APL,

What the Word commands is necessary.

Blessings,

Green Cochoa.


We can receive of heaven's light only as we are willing to be emptied of self. We can discern the character of God, and accept Christ by faith, only as we consent to the bringing into captivity of every thought to the obedience of Christ. And to all who do this, the Holy Spirit is given without measure. In Christ "dwelleth all the fulness of the Godhead bodily. And ye are complete in Him." [Colossians 2:9, 10.] {GW 57.1} -- Ellen White.
Re: The Power of Words -- Why Definitions Matter [Re: asygo] #179982
03/26/16 09:21 PM
03/26/16 09:21 PM
E
Elle  Offline
Active Member 2019
Died February 12, 2019

2500+ Member
Joined: Dec 2008
Posts: 2,536
Canada
Did you just use more than 100 words? wink
Quote:
Asygo: It may be that God used a particular word at a particular time. But we can't conclusively say that He only meant one thing. Neither can we say that the word always means the same thing every time He used it. If we are looking for that kind of precision, the 10C would have needed a mountain of stone to write.

Elle : That's a good way to water down the power of the Word; if that's your objective. But from what I've known you from this forum, you don't strike me as such an individual. I believe you seek to behold the Lord's power.

Jesus is the Word. We know He spoke creation into existence with Words. There's power in His words and language. To say such statement does show that you haven't tasted the Hebrew language.

Asygo : I appreciate the value of studying the Bible in its original form, but I don't agree that the words themselves have inherent power.

I agree with you.

Originally Posted By: Asygo
Their true power is their ability to help us understand Jesus, the Word.

There is some truth in there. Then yet, not even that much power can be given in the word for we know that no one can even understand Jesus (or receive any spiritual truth) unless the Lord open up his mind.

That was basically the problem with Israel. They had received the law on "stone" smile (instead on their hearts) and were 40 years in the desert seeing first hand the Lord's leading in the pillar of smoke and fire and receiving all the Lord's corrections ... and Moses still said the following : AV Dt 29:4 "Yet the LORD hath not given you an heart to perceive, and eyes to see, and ears to hear, unto this day." (see also Is 6:10; Jer 5:21) Until the Lord opens the mind, words are only words despite they can be pure truth.

The power from the Word comes only when that "Word becomes flesh" in us. But that requires an ability to hear-obey(shama) His words FIRST which requires the Lord to open up that spiritual ears to be able to hear. We may hear and read the law given on "stone" or on paper a million times and still yet have not really heard it or understood it. Without those spiritual ears opened, our understanding is limited to an "intellectual" understanding of some words -- like the Jews received for millennias by which never gave them any power whatsoever. The only gain they got is a superiority complex. smile

Originally Posted By: Asygo
Just review this thread. Can't we find a better use of time than to argue whether or not Cain broke the law by killing Abel? Is it reasonable to imagine that Simeon and Levi had no hatred for the man who defiled their sister, but were merely seeking a legalistic way to disobey Jacob? Or that it was some form of misguided righteous hatred? As one with extensive experience in disobedience, I can tell you that the passions of the carnal heart and mind are sufficient to lead one to sin.

sure

Originally Posted By: Asygo
Jesus warned us of the danger of focusing on the words while rejecting the Word. Let's not entertain the idea that His words are some kind of magical incantation with inherent power. The power is in the Word, not the words. If it were not so, there would have been no need to expound beyond the Ten Words on stone.

I agree up to the underlined-bolded section. I don't really know what you mean by it. Could you rephrase it for me?

Originally Posted By: Asygo
The article you posted postulates that Hebrew is the language God used at creation, but cited no biblical proof.

I agree that there's no proof that Hebrew was the language used at creation; but the Lord still used words to create things into existence. I'm sorry but I believe there is power in His Word -- the power only comes when the Lord speaks them versus us reading the same.

Despite we do not know the original language of Creation; we do know the Lord did use the Hebrew language and concept to convey the law, the OT and the NT (in Aramaic which is a Hebrew dialect) to us.

Originally Posted By: Asygo
It gives examples of words with related meanings to show that Hebrew is special, but anyone who has studied for standardized tests knows that Latin-based languages do the same thing (e.g. transgress, progress, regress, etc).


I will disagree here. It is not the same at all as your example of the latin-based languages. I do agree that there are some derivatives of sources words at time in other languages as with your example. But this is not the same "essence" the article writer was trying to convey in that link.

The Hebrew words derives its meaning from the essence of the letters that forms the word. Each letter is a word of its own. And the combination of these letter-words make up the Hebrew words. No other language have that basic structure that I'm aware of.

I was trying to save myself some typing and explaining by pointing to this link. The article didn't really explained this very clearly. Sorry about that.

I have given some example of this further down and other differences found in the Hebrew language compare to other languages.

Originally Posted By: Asygo
If Hebrew is the only way, God could have figured out a way to use it for the NT also.

He did do a transfer of this OT-Hebrew with all the writer's in the NT being fluent in Aramaic. They were all Jews (well all Benjamites with the exception of Judas) who were familiar with the Laws, traditions, and customs. Most weren't men of the law in the exception of Paul. However, they weren't ignorant of it because much of the law is embedded in the traditions and customs and their economic system.

This fundamental understanding is what Christianity lost after the first apostles, disciples, and early Church fathers had past away. This Hebrew background-understanding was gone and replaced by a Greek or Latin background & philosophy that is embedded in their own words.

The writers of the NT did have a good understanding of the Law by which it is conveyed in all their writings. Despite all we have left is copies of a translated Greek source text -- the text has still the Hebrew concept and understanding of the law that transpires God's character and the plan of salvation in it.

The problem is all of us today, after 1700+ years being incalculated by the teachings of men, none of us have barely any understanding of the law. The translations have watered down the gospel message with today's Babylonian words that have different meanings than those defined in Scripture or behind the Hebrew words.

Here's some example :

1. Redemption : We use this words all the time, yet our definition-concept is not the same than what is defined in Lev 25. What we have as concept is a reduced superficial version of the word. This leads that we miss a good understanding of what the Lord really means when we read texts using that word.

2. Destroy: Another word that is widely employed that means something to us -- annihilated, done away, terminated, etc... -- that is totally different from the essence of abad in Hebrew which means -- "to wander away... lose oneself" -- causative form, "destroy". There's a big difference here in the definition.

The definition of ABaD derives from the 3 capitalized Hebrew character that constitute the word :

A -- Aleph means : ox,strengh
B -- Beth means : house, family
D -- Daleth means : door,opening.

A house or family is a place of refuge and strength. Also a place of safety from the bad weather, of unfriendly people, or wild animals. We become lost when we go through that door leaving the strength and safety of the house.

All Hebrew words derives its meanings from the letters that constitute the word. That's the "essence" of the word the article was talking about. Switching the letters around or adding another Hebrew letter gave slightly another meaning.

This is what I did to try to get the meaning of Khawlaf h2498 from Gen 35:2 in the discussion "Giving up Jewelry. Strong's definition and the biblical context usage wasn't clear to me what the word meant. So resorting to extract the meaning from the Hebrew characters is another means that we can use. It's not always easy to employ that method, but sometimes the meaning pops up at you whereas other times it's not so obvious since our Hebrew background is shallow.

3. hear & obey : These two English words means one word in Hebrew Shama. It is not that shama means either hear or obey, it means both of these words together. You cannot obey without hearing or vice versa. This type of concept I have found repeated in many words in Hebrew; so I haven't yet determined if this applies to all words.

So we do an error when we say that abad means either lost or destroy. No abad primarily means "to wander away" or "to lose oneself", and yes when you are not in the security of the household, yes you do suffer some destruction; but it doesn't necessarily means its a terminal destruction like our English language implies. Not the same concept behind it at all.

So when Jesus said "The Son of man came to save the lost". His usage of "destroy" (=apollumi in Greek) is totally Hebrew and He's also saying that He came to save those that have been destroyed by being away from the security of the household.


Blessings
Re: The Power of Words -- Why Definitions Matter [Re: Green Cochoa] #180023
03/31/16 03:31 PM
03/31/16 03:31 PM
K
kland  Offline
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Originally Posted By: Green Cochoa
Originally Posted By: kland
Since green is being arrogant and freely admits he won't give a definition, hows this from Numbers 35?

Nu 35:30 Whoso killeth <nakah> any person, the murderer <ratsach> shall be put to death by the mouth of witnesses: but one witness shall not testify against any person to cause him to die.


If you got a definition from me, kland, why should you accept it? Don't you want it from the Bible? Then you can use your Bible to find it right? It is not within my power to stop you from reading your Bible, and I wouldn't want to. On the contrary, I would encourage you to keep studying it and finding these definitions there.

The verse you give does not provide a definition, although it does provide a distinction between two Hebrew words that is very useful for this discussion. Thank you.

Green why do you do this?

You state the Bible gives a definition.
I asked you to show it.
And then you now think I want your definition?

Whaaaa!?

And then again, the verse I give shows no distinction. It says those who kill any person are murderers. Why do you misconstrue the text? Show how you think it makes a distinction.

Re: The Power of Words -- Why Definitions Matter [Re: Green Cochoa] #180024
03/31/16 03:34 PM
03/31/16 03:34 PM
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kland  Offline
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Green says Numbers 35 is clear.
Numbers 35:30 says who kills a person is a murderer.
Green says God kills people.

Therefore, Green says God is a murderer.

Re: The Power of Words -- Why Definitions Matter [Re: kland] #180025
03/31/16 03:57 PM
03/31/16 03:57 PM
Green Cochoa  Offline OP
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Originally Posted By: kland
Originally Posted By: Green Cochoa
Originally Posted By: kland
Since green is being arrogant and freely admits he won't give a definition, hows this from Numbers 35?

Nu 35:30 Whoso killeth <nakah> any person, the murderer <ratsach> shall be put to death by the mouth of witnesses: but one witness shall not testify against any person to cause him to die.


If you got a definition from me, kland, why should you accept it? Don't you want it from the Bible? Then you can use your Bible to find it right? It is not within my power to stop you from reading your Bible, and I wouldn't want to. On the contrary, I would encourage you to keep studying it and finding these definitions there.

The verse you give does not provide a definition, although it does provide a distinction between two Hebrew words that is very useful for this discussion. Thank you.

Green why do you do this?

You state the Bible gives a definition.
I asked you to show it.
And then you now think I want your definition?

Whaaaa!?

And then again, the verse I give shows no distinction. It says those who kill any person are murderers. Why do you misconstrue the text? Show how you think it makes a distinction.




kland,

Consider the passage you quoted above again, and allow me to emphasize a different portion of it.

Nu 35:30 Whoso killeth <nakah> any person, the murderer <ratsach> shall be put to death by the mouth of witnesses: but one witness shall not testify against any person to cause him to die.

You see, actually, a "murderer" gets that classification after being witnessed against by at least two persons. One witness was not sufficient to define that killer as a "murderer." How could that be? While this verse does not actually define "murder" in terms of what the witnesses would have to say (obviously even the killer himself/herself would have already made it painfully clear by having fled to the city of refuge that he/she had killed someone, so the witnesses are not merely saying "he killed her"). God has given His criteria for what distinguishes between a "murderer" and merely a "killer." Those criteria have already been referenced, in nice readable tables, in the thread I cross-linked for this definitions study, so it cannot reasonably be claimed that I have not provided them.

Blessings,

Green Cochoa.


We can receive of heaven's light only as we are willing to be emptied of self. We can discern the character of God, and accept Christ by faith, only as we consent to the bringing into captivity of every thought to the obedience of Christ. And to all who do this, the Holy Spirit is given without measure. In Christ "dwelleth all the fulness of the Godhead bodily. And ye are complete in Him." [Colossians 2:9, 10.] {GW 57.1} -- Ellen White.
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