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Re: Does the legal aspect of imputed righteousness make sense under the Christus Victor model? [Re: Tom] #103562
10/12/08 11:51 PM
10/12/08 11:51 PM
Tom  Offline
Active Member 2012
14500+ Member
Joined: Aug 2004
Posts: 14,795
Lawrence, Kansas
 Quote:
T:Here's one specific problem with the penal model. If you owe me a debt, and someone else pays it, and I accept that payment in your behalf, I cannot say that I have forgiven you your debt. I didn't forgive it; I insisted it be paid, and accepted payment for it.

R:The case is not that you owe me a debt and someone else pays it, but that you owe me a debt, and I myself pay it.


If you owe me a debt, and I pay the debt you owed me to myself, nothing has changed. For example, I have $10,000, and loan you $1,000. I now have $9,000. If I pay your debt of $1,000 to myself to pay off your debt, I still have $9,000. So the debt has not been paid, it's been forgiven.

Only if a third party is introduced is it possible for me to pay your debt. If you owe a third party $1,000, and I pay that $1,000 for you, then I have paid your debt, but your debt was not forgiven; it was paid. Also in this case it cannot be said that I forgave you, since you didn't owe me; you owed a third party. Neither did that third party forgive you, since the debt was paid. In this case your debt was paid, but nor forgiven.


Those who wait for the Bridegroom's coming are to say to the people, "Behold your God." The last rays of merciful light, the last message of mercy to be given to the world, is a revelation of His character of love.
Re: Does the legal aspect of imputed righteousness make sense under the Christus Victor model? [Re: Rosangela] #103563
10/13/08 12:20 AM
10/13/08 12:20 AM
Tom  Offline
Active Member 2012
14500+ Member
Joined: Aug 2004
Posts: 14,795
Lawrence, Kansas
 Quote:
Tom,

Since imputed righteousness has two aspects:
1) the sinner is declared righteous
2) the sinner is "made" righteous (by the way, I disagree with this terminology of Waggoner; I would say that the heart is renewed. In my opinion sinners will only be "made" righteous at the second coming)


Let's deal with this a bit. This is from "Christ And His Righteousness"

 Quote:
What do we learn from this? That they who know the righteousness of God are those in whose heart is His law, and therefore that the law of God is the righteousness of God.

This may be proved again, as follows: "All unrighteousness is sin." 1 John 5:17. "Whosoever committeth sin transgresseth also the law; for sin is the transgression of the law." 1 John 3:4. Sin is the transgression of the law, and it is also unrighteousness; therefore sin and unrighteousness are identical. But if unrighteousness is transgression of the law, righteousness must be obedience to the law. Or, to put the proposition into mathematical form:

Unrighteousness = sin. 1 John 5:17. Transgression of the law = sin. 1 John 3:4.

Therefore, according to the axiom that two things that are equal to the same thing are equal to each other, we have: Unrighteousness = transgression of the law

...which is a negative equation. The same thing, stated in positive terms, would be: Righteousness = obedience to the law.


So when Waggoner says a person is made righteous, he explains his meaning as "made obedient to the law," which is also, according to Waggoner, equivalent to having the law written in the heart.

From your assertion that you believe one is only "made righteous" at the coming of Christ that you see righteousness as an issue of the flesh. If righteousness were an issue of the heart, one could be made righteous during this life. Only if righteousness is an issue of the flesh would it have to wait. However, if righteousness were an issue of the flesh, then no one could be said to be righteous on this earth, yet the Scriptures speak of righteous people throughout. So you would have to assert that these people were called righteous without actually being righteous, which is, I suppose, precisely what you are asserting with your understanding of "imputed righteousness."

I assume you believe Ellen White agrees with you on this, but that Waggoner does not. This would again bring up to my mind the same question I've asked earlier, which is how is it possible that Ellen White could endorse Waggoner so extravagantly if he were off on such a basic point?

Secondly, the following quote comes to my mind:

 Quote:
Christ was obedient to every requirement of the law. He said of Himself, "I delight to do Thy will, O My God; yea, Thy law is within My heart." Ps. 40:8. When on earth, He said to His disciples, "I have kept My Father's commandments." John 15:10. By His perfect obedience He has made it possible for every human being to obey God's commandments. When we submit ourselves to Christ, the heart is united with His heart, the will is merged in His will, the mind becomes one with His mind, the thoughts are brought into captivity to Him; we live His life. This is what it means to be clothed with the garment of His righteousness. (COL 312)


This looks to me to be precisely the same as what I quoted to you from Waggoner. He even uses the same illustration:

 Quote:
And he showed me Joshua the high priest standing before the Angel of the Lord, and Satan standing at his right hand to resist him. And the Lord said unto Satan, The Lord rebuke thee, O Satan; even the Lord that hath chosen Jerusalem rebuke thee; is not this a brand plucked out of the fire? Now Joshua was clothed with filthy garments, and stood before the Angel. And he answered and spake unto those that stood before him, saying, Take away the filthy garments from him. And unto him he said, Behold I have caused thine iniquity to pass from thee, and I will clothe thee with change of raiment. And I said, Let them set a fair mitre upon his head. So they set a fair mitre upon his head, and clothed him with garments. And the Angel of the Lord stood by."

Notice in the above account that the taking away of the filthy garments is the same as causing the iniquity to pass from the person. And so we find that when Christ covers us with the robe of His own righteousness, He does not furnish a cloak for sin but takes the sin away. And this shows that the forgiveness of sins is something more than a mere form, something more than a mere entry in the books of record in heaven, to the effect that the sin has been cancelled. The forgiveness of sins is a reality; it is something tangible, something that vitally affects the individual. It actually clears him from guilt, and if he is cleared from guilt, is justified, made righteous, he has certainly undergone a radical change. He is, indeed, another person, for he obtained this righteousness for the remission of sins, in Christ. It was obtained only by putting on Christ. But "if any man be in Christ, he is a new creature." 2 Cor. 5:17. And so the full and free forgiveness of sins carries with it that wonderful and miraculous change known as the new birth, for a man cannot become a new creature except by a new birth. This is the same as having a new, or a clean, heart.

The new heart is a heart that loves righteousness and hates sin. It is a heart of willingness to be led into the paths of righteousness. It is such a heart as the Lord wished Israel to have when he said, "O that there were such a heart in them, that they would fear me, and keep all my commandments always, that it might be well with them, and with their children forever!" Deut. 5:29. In short, it is a heart free from the love of sin as well as from the guilt of sin. But what makes a man sincerely desire the forgiveness of his sins? It is simply his hatred of them and his desire for righteousness, which hatred and desire have been enkindled by the Holy Spirit.



 Quote:
I ask,

1) What relation is there between the sinner being declared perfectly righteous and the restoration of his relationship with God? I mean, since you say that God's forgiveness is similar to ours, and when we forgive someone there is no need for that person to be considered perfectly righteous in our eyes.


I didn't follow this at all, but perhaps the answer to your second question will cover this.

 Quote:
2) Does the sinner need this declaration of perfect righteousness to be saved? Is this a requirement for salvation? IOW, is it meritorious?


I wouldn't say it's meritorious, but it's necessary. It is by the power of God's word that he makes us righteous when we believe in Christ.

 Quote:
God "calleth those things which be not as though they were." Sometimes men do the same thing, but we soon lose confidence in them. When men speak of things that are not as though they were, there is only one proper name for it. It is a lie. But God calls those things that be not as though they were, and it is the truth. What makes the difference? Simply this: Man's word has no power to make a thing exist when it does not exist. He may say that it does, but that does not make it so. But when God names a thing, the very thing itself is in the word that names it. He speaks, and it is. (Waggoner on Romans)




By the way, I would appreciate it if, besides the quotes, you gave your answers in your own words in replying to my questions.


Those who wait for the Bridegroom's coming are to say to the people, "Behold your God." The last rays of merciful light, the last message of mercy to be given to the world, is a revelation of His character of love.
Re: Does the legal aspect of imputed righteousness make sense under the Christus Victor model? [Re: Tom] #103564
10/13/08 12:57 AM
10/13/08 12:57 AM
Rosangela  Offline OP
5500+ Member
Joined: Nov 2004
Posts: 6,154
Brazil
 Quote:
If you owe me a debt, and I pay the debt you owed me to myself, nothing has changed. For example, I have $10,000, and loan you $1,000. I now have $9,000. If I pay your debt of $1,000 to myself to pay off your debt, I still have $9,000. So the debt has not been paid, it's been forgiven.

No, the debt is both paid and forgiven. Under my perspective, a price is paid, because my patrimony was diminished (I had $10,000 and now I have only $9,000); I absorb the loss. Under your perspective, you are forgiven.

Re: Does the legal aspect of imputed righteousness make sense under the Christus Victor model? [Re: Rosangela] #103565
10/13/08 01:11 AM
10/13/08 01:11 AM
Tom  Offline
Active Member 2012
14500+ Member
Joined: Aug 2004
Posts: 14,795
Lawrence, Kansas
 Quote:
If you owe me a debt, and I pay the debt you owed me to myself, nothing has changed. For example, I have $10,000, and loan you $1,000. I now have $9,000. If I pay your debt of $1,000 to myself to pay off your debt, I still have $9,000. So the debt has not been paid, it's been forgiven.

No, the debt is both paid and forgiven. Under my perspective, a price is paid, because my patrimony was diminished (I had $10,000 and now I have only $9,000); I absorb the loss. Under your perspective, you are forgiven.


Where is the payment? You withdraw $1,000 from your account to pay yourself back $1,000? I understand the loss being absorbed, but not the payment being made. If a debt is paid, the account is restored to its state before the debt was incurred; that's what it means for a debt to be paid.


Those who wait for the Bridegroom's coming are to say to the people, "Behold your God." The last rays of merciful light, the last message of mercy to be given to the world, is a revelation of His character of love.
Re: Does the legal aspect of imputed righteousness make sense under the Christus Victor model? [Re: Tom] #103567
10/13/08 01:58 AM
10/13/08 01:58 AM
Rosangela  Offline OP
5500+ Member
Joined: Nov 2004
Posts: 6,154
Brazil
 Quote:
From your assertion that you believe one is only "made righteous" at the coming of Christ that you see righteousness as an issue of the flesh. If righteousness were an issue of the heart, one could be made righteous during this life. Only if righteousness is an issue of the flesh would it have to wait. However, if righteousness were an issue of the flesh, then no one could be said to be righteous on this earth, yet the Scriptures speak of righteous people throughout. So you would have to assert that these people were called righteous without actually being righteous, which is, I suppose, precisely what you are asserting with your understanding of "imputed righteousness."

No, to me the problem is not one of flesh or heart, but one of perfection or imperfection. I don't believe anyone can be absolutely righteous on this earth, or absolutely perfect. We are perfect in Christ, and that's why we are righteous in Christ.

"He [Christ] keeps His eye upon them [His children], and when they do their best, calling upon God for his help, be assured the service will be accepted, although imperfect. Jesus is perfect. Christ's righteousness is imputed unto them, and He will say, 'Take away the filthy garments from him and clothe him with change of raiment.' Jesus makes up for our unavoidable deficiencies." --Letter 17a, 1891. {3SM 196.1}

That's what I mean when I say that God's children are called righteous without actually being righteous. Waggoner says, "But if unrighteousness is transgression of the law, righteousness must be obedience to the law." Correct, but since none of us obey the law perfectly, this means we are called righteous without in fact being righteous.

 Quote:
 Quote:
1) What relation is there between the sinner being declared perfectly righteous and the restoration of his relationship with God? I mean, since you say that God's forgiveness is similar to ours, and when we forgive someone there is no need for that person to be considered perfectly righteous in our eyes.
I didn't follow this at all, but perhaps the answer to your second question will cover this.

You say the objective of salvation is to restore our relationship with God. But the restoration of a relationship doesn't require perfection. However, Ellen White states that "the condition of eternal life is now ... just what it was in Paradise before the fall of our first parents--perfect obedience to the law of God, perfect righteousness." None of us obey perfectly, so we just inherit eternal life because of Christ's perfection, which covers our imperfection. I sincerely don't see how aspects like these (God requiring perfection and Christ's perfection being considered as if it was ours) can make sense under your model of the atonement. It just makes sense in a legal context.

 Quote:
 Quote:
2) Does the sinner need this declaration of perfect righteousness to be saved? Is this a requirement for salvation? IOW, is it meritorious?
I wouldn't say it's meritorious, but it's necessary. It is by the power of God's word that he makes us righteous when we believe in Christ.

Ellen White doesn't describe this declaration as being addressed to the sinner (and thus making the sinner righteous). She describes this declaration as being addressed to the universe.

"The great work that is wrought for the sinner who is spotted and stained by evil is the work of justification. By Him who speaketh truth he is declared righteous. The Lord imputes unto the believer the righteousness of Christ and pronounces him righteous before the universe. He transfers his sins to Jesus, the sinner's representative, substitute, and surety. Upon Christ He lays the iniquity of every soul that believeth. 'He hath made him to be sin for us, who knew no sin; that we might be made the righteousness of God in him' (2 Cor. 5:21)." {1SM 392.2}

Re: Does the legal aspect of imputed righteousness make sense under the Christus Victor model? [Re: Tom] #103568
10/13/08 02:17 AM
10/13/08 02:17 AM
Rosangela  Offline OP
5500+ Member
Joined: Nov 2004
Posts: 6,154
Brazil
 Quote:
Where is the payment? You withdraw $1,000 from your account to pay yourself back $1,000? I understand the loss being absorbed, but not the payment being made. If a debt is paid, the account is restored to its state before the debt was incurred; that's what it means for a debt to be paid.

When the debt is forgiven a price is paid - a price equivalent to the debt; and, as far as the debtor is concerned, forgiveness means to him that his debt is paid, because he no longer owes it. You are making a distinction that doesn't in fact exist.

Re: Does the legal aspect of imputed righteousness make sense under the Christus Victor model? [Re: Rosangela] #103569
10/13/08 02:56 AM
10/13/08 02:56 AM
Tom  Offline
Active Member 2012
14500+ Member
Joined: Aug 2004
Posts: 14,795
Lawrence, Kansas
 Quote:
When the debt is forgiven a price is paid - a price equivalent to the debt; and, as far as the debtor is concerned, forgiveness means to him that his debt is paid, because he no longer owes it.


If you owe me $1,000, and I forgive your debt, I don't say I paid myself $1,000. Certainly I wouldn't make the argument that justice would not allow me to forgive your debt unless I paid myself $1,000.

If you owe someone else $1,000, then I can pay your debt for you, but in this case no debt was forgiven.

You're trying to have your cake and eat it too!

 Quote:
You are making a distinction that doesn't in fact exist.


But there is a distinction. Forgiving a debt is not the same thing as paying one for someone else.


Those who wait for the Bridegroom's coming are to say to the people, "Behold your God." The last rays of merciful light, the last message of mercy to be given to the world, is a revelation of His character of love.
Re: Does the legal aspect of imputed righteousness make sense under the Christus Victor model? [Re: Tom] #103570
10/13/08 03:59 AM
10/13/08 03:59 AM
Tom  Offline
Active Member 2012
14500+ Member
Joined: Aug 2004
Posts: 14,795
Lawrence, Kansas
 Quote:
That's what I mean when I say that God's children are called righteous without actually being righteous. Waggoner says, "But if unrighteousness is transgression of the law, righteousness must be obedience to the law." Correct, but since none of us obey the law perfectly, this means we are called righteous without in fact being righteous.


We are called righteous without in fact being righteous? This isn't truth.

 Quote:
Little children, let no man deceive you: he that doeth righteousness is righteous, even as he is righteous. (1 John 3:7)


 Quote:
3 Now by this we know that we know Him, if we keep His commandments. 4 He who says, “I know Him,” and does not keep His commandments, is a liar, and the truth is not in him. 5 But whoever keeps His word, truly the love of God is perfected in him. By this we know that we are in Him. 6 He who says he abides in Him ought himself also to walk just as He walked. (1 John 2:3-6)


A righteous person is one who practices righteousness. Or, conversely, a person who is obedient to the law is righteous. A person who is disobedient is not righteous, but unrighteous.

 Quote:
Blessed are those who do His commandments, that they may have the right to the tree of life, and may enter through the gates into the city. (Rev. 22:4)


From the SOP

 Quote:
Christ was obedient to every requirement of the law. He said of Himself, "I delight to do Thy will, O My God; yea, Thy law is within My heart." Ps. 40:8. When on earth, He said to His disciples, "I have kept My Father's commandments." John 15:10. By His perfect obedience He has made it possible for every human being to obey God's commandments. When we submit ourselves to Christ, the heart is united with His heart, the will is merged in His will, the mind becomes one with His mind, the thoughts are brought into captivity to Him; we live His life. This is what it means to be clothed with the garment of His righteousness. Then as the Lord looks upon us He sees, not the fig-leaf garment, not the nakedness and deformity of sin, but His own robe of righteousness, which is perfect obedience to the law of Jehovah. (COL 312)


What does it mean to be clothed with the garments of Christ's righteousness? It means "the heart is united with His heart, the will is merged in His will, the mind becomes one with His mind, the thoughts are brought into captivity to Him; we live His life."

Now if a person is clothed with the garment of Christ righteousness -- which means his heart is united with Christ's heart, his will merged with Christ's will, his mind one with Christ's mind, and living His life -- isn't such a person in fact righteous?

Out of curiosity, what you're claiming sounds like Ford's theology. Are you familiar with Ford's theology? If so, do you agree with it?

 Quote:
You say the objective of salvation is to restore our relationship with God. But the restoration of a relationship doesn't require perfection. However, Ellen White states that "the condition of eternal life is now ... just what it was in Paradise before the fall of our first parents--perfect obedience to the law of God, perfect righteousness." None of us obey perfectly, so we just inherit eternal life because of Christ's perfection, which covers our imperfection. I sincerely don't see how aspects like these (God requiring perfection and Christ's perfection being considered as if it was ours) can make sense under your model of the atonement. It just makes sense in a legal context.


I don't see a problem here. I think the quote from COL 312 that I just quoted makes perfect sense from my standpoint. I don't see how it makes any sense from yours. I also think the COL 312 quote addresses the concern you are raising here. The perfection that God requires becomes ours when we are clothed in Christ's righteousness, a righteousness which causes our hearts and mind to be merged with His, and results in our living His life.

 Quote:
The conditions of eternal life, under grace, are just what they were in Eden--perfect righteousness, harmony with God, perfect conformity to the principles of His law. The standard of character presented in the Old Testament is the same that is presented in the New Testament. This standard is not one to which we cannot attain. In every command or injunction that God gives there is a promise, the most positive, underlying the command. God has made provision that we may become like unto Him, and He will accomplish this for all who do not interpose a perverse will and thus frustrate His grace. (MB 76; emphasis mine)


The standard is perfect conformity to the principles of His law, a standard which is not one we cannot attain, and, more than that, one which we will attain, unless we interpose a perverse will and thus frustrate His grace.

 Quote:
Ellen White doesn't describe this declaration as being addressed to the sinner (and thus making the sinner righteous). She describes this declaration as being addressed to the universe.

"The great work that is wrought for the sinner who is spotted and stained by evil is the work of justification. By Him who speaketh truth he is declared righteous. The Lord imputes unto the believer the righteousness of Christ and pronounces him righteous before the universe. He transfers his sins to Jesus, the sinner's representative, substitute, and surety. Upon Christ He lays the iniquity of every soul that believeth. 'He hath made him to be sin for us, who knew no sin; that we might be made the righteousness of God in him' (2 Cor. 5:21)." {1SM 392.2}


The theology you are suggesting that Ellen White held is simply not possible! It's impossible that one who had a Ford-like theology could endorse someone who held such a dramatically different understanding of righteousness by faith as Waggoner did. I don't understand how you don't see this.

Because she endorsed him does not mean she had to agree with every i that Waggoner dotted, or every t that he crossed, but it does mean there was more than a general agreement. It simply isn't possible that EGW had a "legal fiction" outlook on righteousness by faith, while Waggoner had more of a Wesleyan outlook on it, and have Ellen White endorse him as she did.

For example:

 Quote:
The Lord in His great mercy sent a most precious message to His people through Elders Waggoner and Jones. This message was to bring more prominently before the world the uplifted Saviour, the sacrifice for the sins of the whole world. It presented justification through faith in the Surety; it invited the people to receive the righteousness of Christ, which is made manifest in obedience to all the commandments of God. (TM 91)


Waggoner spoke of faith in Christ making us righteous, or obedient to the law. She endorses his teachings of righteousness by faith, and then repeats his concept in her own words "made manifest in obedience to all the commandments of God." Going back to your earlier assertion that we are called righteous without actually being righteous, isn't it the case that one who manifests obedience to all the commandments of God is righteous?

Here's another well known quote:

 Quote:
God's ideal for His children is higher than the highest human thought can reach. "Be ye therefore perfect, even as your Father which is in heaven is perfect." This command is a promise. The plan of redemption contemplates our complete recovery from the power of Satan. Christ always separates the contrite soul from sin. He came to destroy the works of the devil, and He has made provision that the Holy Spirit shall be imparted to every repentant soul, to keep him from sinning. (DA 311)


This seems in perfect harmony with what Waggoner taught but not with what you are saying.

From Waggoner:

 Quote:
Stop and think what this means; let the full force of the announcement impress itself upon your consciousness. "Christ hath redeemed us from the curse of the law,"--from not continuing in all its righteous requirements. We need not sin any more. He has snapped asunder the cords of sin that bound us, so that we have but to accept His salvation in order to be free from every besetting sin. It is not necessary for us any longer to spend our lives in earnest longings for a better life, and in vain regrets for desires unrealized. Christ raises no false hopes, but He comes to the captives of sin, and cries to them, "Liberty! Your prison doors are open. Go forth." What more can be said? Christ has gained the complete victory over "this present evil world," over "the lust of the flesh, and the lust of the eyes, and the pride of life," and our faith in Him makes His victory ours. We have but to accept it. (The Glad Tidings)


One last EGW quote:

 Quote:
Christ took upon Himself humanity for us. He clothed His divinity, and divinity and humanity were combined. He showed that that law which Satan declared could not be kept, could be kept. Christ took humanity to stand here in our world, to show that Satan had lied. He took humanity upon Himself to demonstrate that with divinity and humanity combined, man could keep the law of Jehovah. Separate humanity from divinity, and you can try to work out your own righteousness from now till Christ comes, and it will be nothing but a failure.

By living faith, by earnest prayer to God, and depending upon Jesus' merits, we are clothed with His righteousness, and we are saved. "Oh, yes," some say, "we are saved in doing nothing. In fact, I am saved. I need not keep the law of God. I am saved by the righteousness of Jesus Christ." Christ came to our world to bring all men back to allegiance to God. To take the position that you can break God's law, for Christ has done it all, is a position of death, for you are as verily a transgressor as anyone.

Then what is it? It is to hear and to see that with the righteousness of Christ which you hold by faith, righteousness supplied by His efforts and His divine power, you can keep the commandments of God. (FW 71)


There are so many of these, but I'll stop here. The idea she presented was not the Evangelical "legal fiction" idea where one is declared righteous but actually unrighteous, but the same idea Waggoner taught, which is that by faith in Christ we are, in fact, righteous, meaning that by faith in Christ we "keep the commandments of God."


Those who wait for the Bridegroom's coming are to say to the people, "Behold your God." The last rays of merciful light, the last message of mercy to be given to the world, is a revelation of His character of love.
Re: Does the legal aspect of imputed righteousness make sense under the Christus Victor model? [Re: Tom] #103571
10/13/08 06:34 AM
10/13/08 06:34 AM
asygo  Offline
SDA
Active Member 2023

5500+ Member
Joined: Feb 2006
Posts: 5,583
California, USA
 Originally Posted By: Tom
 Quote:
(Book)The cosmic "murderer" who has "from the beginning" been behind every spiritual, physiological and physical ailment humans have ever experienced has at long last been "driven out" (Jn 8:44; 12:31). (The Nature of The Atonement, p. 143-145; emphasis original)

A:That's a good angle, that eradication of Satan eradicates the root. But interestingly, I will touch on this in my sermon, but will deviate from it, sort of. I think I'll post my outline in advance for critique and possible modification.

By "eradication of Satan" you mean the unveiling that EGW speaks about here:

 Quote:
"And I heard a loud voice saying in heaven, Now is come salvation, and strength, and the kingdom of our God, and the power of His Christ: for the accuser of our brethren is cast down, which accused them before our God day and night." Rev. 12:10.

Satan saw that his disguise was torn away.(DA 761)

Or did you have something else in mind?

That's pretty much it.

I'm going to talk about how that's not all that's needed. Crushing the serpent's head is one thing, but his seeds still remain. Their disguise must be torn away also, and there's only one way to do it.


By God's grace,
Arnold

There is no excuse for any one in taking the position that there is no more truth to be revealed, and that all our expositions of Scripture are without an error. The fact that certain doctrines have been held as truth for many years by our people, is not a proof that our ideas are infallible. Age will not make error into truth, and truth can afford to be fair. No true doctrine will lose anything by close investigation. RH 12/20/1892
Re: Does the legal aspect of imputed righteousness make sense under the Christus Victor model? [Re: Tom] #103572
10/13/08 06:46 AM
10/13/08 06:46 AM
asygo  Offline
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Active Member 2023

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Joined: Feb 2006
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California, USA
 Originally Posted By: Tom
 Quote:
T:Here's one specific problem with the penal model. If I owe you a debt, and someone else pays it, and I accept that payment in your behalf, I cannot say that I have forgiven you your debt. I didn't forgive it; I insisted it be paid, and accepted payment for it.

So if God accepted payment for our debt, God cannot be said to have forgiven it.

A:Perhaps. But just as correct aspects of a model does not mean that it is completely correct, incorrect aspects of a model does not mean that it is completely incorrect.

No, this is too fundamental a matter to just brush off. If the model is so flawed that we cannot correctly say that God has forgiven us, we need a new model!

Well, you cannot say that God has forgiven, so you need a new model. R and I have no problem with forgiveness and paying off debt at the same time, so we're fine with it. ;\)

Anyway, if a model cannot say that God has paid the debt, then it is incomplete. But I generally don't throw out incomplete models to replace with another incomplete model. I prefer to take whatever works from each model, and just put it all together. And if there's something else that is not covered by the current models, I have no qualms making a new model. Perhaps that's what the kaleidoscope model is.


By God's grace,
Arnold

There is no excuse for any one in taking the position that there is no more truth to be revealed, and that all our expositions of Scripture are without an error. The fact that certain doctrines have been held as truth for many years by our people, is not a proof that our ideas are infallible. Age will not make error into truth, and truth can afford to be fair. No true doctrine will lose anything by close investigation. RH 12/20/1892
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