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Re: Lesson #10 (4th Quarter 2011): The Two Covenants [Re: Colin] #138462
12/29/11 05:32 PM
12/29/11 05:32 PM
Rosangela  Offline
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Quote:
GC: The word "propensity" is synonymous with "inclination."
Colin: Synonymous???! Nope: propensity means habits built up from practice; inclination means basic sinfulness. Hereditary propensity (below) means the habits of one's ancesters. "In him...was not for one moment...an evil propensity": that means he never practised the sin burdening his adopted, sinful human nature.

Hereditary propensity means the habits of one's ancestors?
And how is one born with that?
Anyway, Ellen White is clear that Jesus was not born with inherent propensities of disobedience, like Adam's posterity:

"Because of sin his [Adam's] posterity was born with inherent propensities of disobedience. But Jesus Christ was the only begotten Son of God. ... not for one moment was there in Him an evil propensity." {5BC 1128.4}

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Re: Lesson #10 (4th Quarter 2011): The Two Covenants [Re: asygo] #138467
12/29/11 08:33 PM
12/29/11 08:33 PM
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Colin  Offline
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Originally Posted By: asygo
This thread is moving faster than I can keep up with. But I'll try to catch up.

Thanks for taking the time - it can be a tad time consuming. grin

Quote:
Originally Posted By: Colin
Originally Posted By: Green Cochoa
The word "propensity" is synonymous with "inclination."

Synonymous???! cool Nope: propensity means habits built up from practice; inclination means basic sinfulness. Hereditary propensity (below) means the habits of one's ancesters.

Propensity does not mean habits. Even in your own explanation, that wouldn't make sense. It is possible for one to gain inclinations from the habits of his ancestors. But how can he gain his ancestor's habits through heredity? Habits, by definition, are actions, and therefore cannot be passed on.

Now, let not the words of Scripture or of SOP be defined by a dictionary, but by the Word of God.

Remember this?
Originally Posted By: EGW
We need not retain one sinful propensity. (R&H Apr 24, 1900, par.6)

Not retain something that's an intrisic part of our sinful flesh? - but, we lose such parts of us only when Jesus returns, i.e. when translated/resurrected to glorified humanity. Therefore, since this statement is about character cleansing (see original!), sinful propensities are things we add to our character - so may choose to let go, not things we find in our sinful flesh.

I feel sorry for anyone thinking according to what you have heard and written about, below! shocked

Assurance in Jesus is indeed about who and what he is for us! grin That assurance is valuable only as we seek to do God's will: as we give more of our sinful traits to Jesus in exchange for his righteous traits of character, our assurance that he is keeps us cheerful, all the way.

No, no, no: Jesus did not "have" sinful flesh!!! cool Jesus "took" (Heb 2:14) sinful flesh: the difference is he didn't accept what we are born with when he took it as his own and was born with it. Burdened with selfishness in his adopted humanity, he leaned on his Father to choose God's will. Thus, he was not stained in his character by sin, nor did the corruption of a carnal mind and guilt rest on him for a moment: the mind of Christ is the Holy Spirit ruling the thoughts and motives, etc.

Sorting out the humanity of Christ our Saviour is quite crucial, so we can know just what exactly he saved us from and what it is we can get rid of with him in our lives. smile
Originally Posted By: Eph 4:8c, 13
He...gave gifts unto men..., until we all come, in the unity of the faith, and of the knowledge of the Son of God, unto a perfect (i.e. mature) man, unto the measure of hte stature of the fulness of Christ.

Quote:
True, Jesus never practiced sin. But His holiness runs much deeper than many people think. More than refraining from acts of sin, Jesus did not have the propensity, or inclination, to sin. IOW, not only did He abstain from sin in His thoughts, words, and actions, He did not have even the stain of sin in his passions and desires.

Why are so many people so adamant that Jesus was selfish inwardly? One reason is that they want to excuse their own inward selfishness. They might be able to keep their bodies from sinning, but they know that their thoughts and feelings are undeniably selfish. And since their assurance of salvation is grounded in replicating Christ's experience, they must bring Him down to their level of stunted holiness so that they can say, "Jesus was like us, so we must be OK."

But the fact is that Jesus was more holy than us. We who are selfish can only copy the Pattern, but we will never equal it. Our assurance is not in replicating His righteousness, but in accepting it as a gift. We cannot offer to God the filthy rags of our sinful humanity, so we must rely on Christ's sinlessness.

One last thought: Sister White does say that we cannot copy the pattern..., but she wasn't refering to Christ's human character of righteousness. smile She was refering to his humiliation of giving up his throne of glory in heaven to come down to our level of sinfulness as a creature on this planet. Definitely not that we can't mirror his example, for Jesus by grace and his own deeds has opened the way for us to do just that. Thus A T Jones' commentary on the book of Hebrews is entitled "The Consecrated Way to Christian Perfection".

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Re: Lesson #10 (4th Quarter 2011): The Two Covenants [Re: Colin] #138473
12/29/11 09:39 PM
12/29/11 09:39 PM
asygo  Offline OP
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Only have time for a quickie...

Originally Posted By: Colin
Now, let not the words of Scripture or of SOP be defined by a dictionary, but by the Word of God.

Where in inspiration can we find that we can be born with our ancestors' bad habits as part of our heredity?


By God's grace,
Arnold

There is no excuse for any one in taking the position that there is no more truth to be revealed, and that all our expositions of Scripture are without an error. The fact that certain doctrines have been held as truth for many years by our people, is not a proof that our ideas are infallible. Age will not make error into truth, and truth can afford to be fair. No true doctrine will lose anything by close investigation. RH 12/20/1892
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Re: Lesson #10 (4th Quarter 2011): The Two Covenants [Re: Colin] #138474
12/29/11 09:43 PM
12/29/11 09:43 PM
Green Cochoa  Offline
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Originally Posted By: Colin
Originally Posted By: Green Cochoa
The word "propensity" is synonymous with "inclination."

Synonymous???! cool Nope: propensity means habits built up from practice; inclination means basic sinfulness. Hereditary propensity (below) means the habits of one's ancesters. "In him...was not for one moment...an evil propensity": that means he never practised the sin burdening his adopted, sinful human nature.

We know this from what else she wrote, and the Bible in totality teaches.
...

Propensities result from inclinations that are acted upon rather than rejected. Therefore, righteousness by faith is truly pragmatic: shall we choose to be like Jesus in our thoughts and deeds, or shall we struggle by ourselves - and fail to be good all by ourselves, or think we cannot mirror/reflect Jesus perfectly, day by day in more and more ways, in this life as grace cannot enable that in us even though we believe? "The faith of Jesus" is a correct translation for Gal 2:20 and Rev 14:12, since that is the very spiritual tool by which we can follow Jesus to the uttermost, whithersoever he leads us.


It is crucial that a proper understanding of the words be reached before developing one's theology upon them!

pro·pen·si·ty
n. pl. pro·pen·si·ties
An innate inclination; a tendency. See Synonyms at predilection.

[From propense, inclined, from Latin prpnsus, past participle of prpendre, to be inclined; see propend.]


We are often born with the inclinations of our ancestors. For example, alcoholism tends to run in families. No, the baby is not an alcoholic, but he or she is frequently born with the inclination toward alcoholism, and one drink may be all that is necessary to catapult the individual into the habit, from which it is very difficult to escape owing to the hereditary weakness.

That is an example of an "inherited" sort of weakness. But there are also "cultivated" ones which are more ambiguously "inherited." For example, if parents are very prideful, it is common to see the children inherit the same tendency--but this may be on account of its having been modeled for them.

Blessings,

Green Cochoa.

Last edited by Green Cochoa; 12/29/11 09:49 PM. Reason: Changing colors

We can receive of heaven's light only as we are willing to be emptied of self. We can discern the character of God, and accept Christ by faith, only as we consent to the bringing into captivity of every thought to the obedience of Christ. And to all who do this, the Holy Spirit is given without measure. In Christ "dwelleth all the fulness of the Godhead bodily. And ye are complete in Him." [Colossians 2:9, 10.] {GW 57.1} -- Ellen White.
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Re: Lesson #10 (4th Quarter 2011): The Two Covenants [Re: Green Cochoa] #138496
12/31/11 02:58 AM
12/31/11 02:58 AM
Mountain Man  Offline
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Originally Posted By: asygo
True, Jesus never practiced sin. But His holiness runs much deeper than many people think. More than refraining from acts of sin, Jesus did not have the propensity, or inclination, to sin. IOW, not only did He abstain from sin in His thoughts, words, and actions, He did not have even the stain of sin in his passions and desires. Why are so many people so adamant that Jesus was selfish inwardly? One reason is that they want to excuse their own inward selfishness. They might be able to keep their bodies from sinning, but they know that their thoughts and feelings are undeniably selfish. And since their assurance of salvation is grounded in replicating Christ's experience, they must bring Him down to their level of stunted holiness so that they can say, "Jesus was like us, so we must be OK."

Does it say anywhere that the unholy clamorings of sinful flesh cause corruption? Do we incur guilt and condemnation because the desires of our flesh are unholy?

What do you mean by "keep their bodies from sinning"? Is it possible to indulge the desires of the flesh without the "thoughts and feelings [being sinful and] undeniably selfish"?

What do you mean by "He did not have even the stain of sin in his passions and desires"? Is it possible to be tempted in every way newborn believers are if the flesh is pure and sinless, if its desires are wholly in harmony with the will of God?

What do you mean by "inward selfishness"? Ellen wrote, "The peace which passeth knowledge will cost us battles with the powers of darkness, struggles severe against selfishness and inward sins." {RH, August 2, 1881 par. 8} At what point in the Christian walk does Jesus set believers free from the burden of "selfishness and inward sins"?

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Re: Lesson #10 (4th Quarter 2011): The Two Covenants [Re: Colin] #138512
12/31/11 08:58 PM
12/31/11 08:58 PM
asygo  Offline OP
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Joined: Feb 2006
Posts: 5,583
California, USA
Originally Posted By: Colin
Originally Posted By: EGW
We need not retain one sinful propensity. (R&H Apr 24, 1900, par.6)

Not retain something that's an intrisic part of our sinful flesh? - but, we lose such parts of us only when Jesus returns, i.e. when translated/resurrected to glorified humanity. Therefore, since this statement is about character cleansing (see original!), sinful propensities are things we add to our character - so may choose to let go, not things we find in our sinful flesh.

This is the logic you are using:
Jesus cannot heal birth defects.
Jesus can heal sinful propensities.
Therefore, sinful propensities are not birth defects.


This is where you fail to see God's power. Is He able to fix something that is broken at birth? Has God shown the ability to heal birth defects? Yes, He has. Just because you are born with a problem does not mean He cannot solve it.

So, if we acknowledge that Jesus can heal all defects, including hereditary ones, then there is no need to violate the English language and stipulate that propensities are habits rather than tendencies.

Originally Posted By: Colin
No, no, no: Jesus did not "have" sinful flesh!!! cool Jesus "took" (Heb 2:14) sinful flesh: the difference is he didn't accept what we are born with when he took it as his own and was born with it.

Here's what I get from that: Jesus took our sinful flesh, but He didn't have it, nor did He accept it, though He was born with it. This is a meaning of "took" with which I am unfamiliar.

Now, if we are talking about Jesus "taking upon Himself" something, then that makes more sense. Something like He took upon Himself our sin, but He didn't have sin.

Originally Posted By: Colin
Burdened with selfishness in his adopted humanity, he leaned on his Father to choose God's will.

So, did Jesus have selfishness?

Originally Posted By: Colin
Sorting out the humanity of Christ our Saviour is quite crucial, so we can know just what exactly he saved us from and what it is we can get rid of with him in our lives. smile

Exactly. If you believe that Jesus had the same sinful propensities that sinners do, then you have no hope of ever eliminating them. But if you believe that Jesus did not have sinful propensities, then there is hope that you can crucify your sinful passions and desires.

Originally Posted By: Colin
Sister White does say that we cannot copy the pattern..., but she wasn't refering to Christ's human character of righteousness. smile She was refering to his humiliation of giving up his throne of glory in heaven to come down to our level of sinfulness as a creature on this planet.

Do you believe that sinners can equal Christ's character?


By God's grace,
Arnold

There is no excuse for any one in taking the position that there is no more truth to be revealed, and that all our expositions of Scripture are without an error. The fact that certain doctrines have been held as truth for many years by our people, is not a proof that our ideas are infallible. Age will not make error into truth, and truth can afford to be fair. No true doctrine will lose anything by close investigation. RH 12/20/1892
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Re: Lesson #10 (4th Quarter 2011): The Two Covenants [Re: Mountain Man] #138569
01/03/12 05:27 PM
01/03/12 05:27 PM
Mountain Man  Offline
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Originally Posted By: asygo
True, Jesus never practiced sin. But His holiness runs much deeper than many people think. More than refraining from acts of sin, Jesus did not have the propensity, or inclination, to sin. IOW, not only did He abstain from sin in His thoughts, words, and actions, He did not have even the stain of sin in his passions and desires. Why are so many people so adamant that Jesus was selfish inwardly? One reason is that they want to excuse their own inward selfishness. They might be able to keep their bodies from sinning, but they know that their thoughts and feelings are undeniably selfish. And since their assurance of salvation is grounded in replicating Christ's experience, they must bring Him down to their level of stunted holiness so that they can say, "Jesus was like us, so we must be OK."

Does it say anywhere that the unholy clamorings of sinful flesh cause corruption? Do we incur guilt and condemnation because the desires of our flesh are unholy?

What do you mean by "keep their bodies from sinning"? Is it possible to indulge the desires of the flesh without the "thoughts and feelings [being sinful and] undeniably selfish"?

What do you mean by "He did not have even the stain of sin in his passions and desires"? Is it possible to be tempted in every way newborn believers are if the flesh is pure and sinless, if its desires are wholly in harmony with the will of God?

What do you mean by "inward selfishness"? Ellen wrote, "The peace which passeth knowledge will cost us battles with the powers of darkness, struggles severe against selfishness and inward sins." {RH, August 2, 1881 par. 8} At what point in the Christian walk does Jesus set believers free from the burden of "selfishness and inward sins"?

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Re: Lesson #10 (4th Quarter 2011): The Two Covenants [Re: Mountain Man] #138602
01/05/12 06:24 PM
01/05/12 06:24 PM
asygo  Offline OP
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I'll have to do this a little at a time.

Originally Posted By: Mountain Man
Does it say anywhere that the unholy clamorings of sinful flesh cause corruption?

Not exactly. It would seem obvious that unholy = corrupt.

However, there is a text that says our righteousnesses are filthy. So, if even our righteousnesses are filthy, certainly our unholiness would also be filthy.

Originally Posted By: Mountain Man
Do we incur guilt and condemnation because the desires of our flesh are unholy?

The carnal mind is enmity to God. Do guilt and condemnation come with enmity to God? If so, then yes, unholiness brings guilt and condemnation.

I'm finding this part of the discussion counter-intuitive. Are we really discussing whether or not unholiness is a bad thing? I would think that to be obvious. But if we lose sight of how holy God is, then we start to think unholiness isn't so bad after all.


By God's grace,
Arnold

There is no excuse for any one in taking the position that there is no more truth to be revealed, and that all our expositions of Scripture are without an error. The fact that certain doctrines have been held as truth for many years by our people, is not a proof that our ideas are infallible. Age will not make error into truth, and truth can afford to be fair. No true doctrine will lose anything by close investigation. RH 12/20/1892
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Re: Lesson #10 (4th Quarter 2011): The Two Covenants [Re: asygo] #138610
01/06/12 04:59 PM
01/06/12 04:59 PM
Mountain Man  Offline
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Satan is unholy. He tempts us to sin. Do either cause guilt or condemnation? No, of course not. So, why do you think the fact our sinful flesh nature tempts us to sin causes guilt and condemnation? As you know, sinful flesh nature cannot sin, it can only tempt us to sin. Ellen wrote:

Quote:
The lower passions have their seat in the body and work through it. The words "flesh" or "fleshly" or "carnal lusts" embrace the lower, corrupt nature; the flesh of itself cannot act contrary to the will of God. We are commanded to crucify the flesh, with the affections and lusts. How shall we do it? Shall we inflict pain on the body? No; but put to death the temptation to sin. The corrupt thought is to be expelled. Every thought is to be brought into captivity to Jesus Christ. All animal propensities are to be subjected to the higher powers of the soul. The love of God must reign supreme; Christ must occupy an undivided throne. Our bodies are to be regarded as His purchased possession. The members of the body are to become the instruments of righteousness. {AH 127.2}

Our sinful flesh tempts us with corrupt thoughts and affections. So long as we put these temptations to death we do not incur guilt or condemnation. All temptations begin as unholy thoughts and feelings. It is not a sin to be tempted. Ellen wrote:

Quote:
There are thoughts and feelings suggested and aroused by Satan that annoy even the best of men; but if they are not cherished, if they are repulsed as hateful, the soul is not contaminated with guilt, and no other is defiled by their influence. (RH 3-27-1888)

An impure thought tolerated, an unholy desire cherished, and the soul is contaminated, its integrity compromised. . . If we would not commit sin, we must shun its very beginnings. Every emotion and desire must be held in subjection to reason and conscience. Every unholy thought must be instantly repelled. {5T 177.1}

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Re: Lesson #10 (4th Quarter 2011): The Two Covenants [Re: Mountain Man] #138612
01/06/12 05:46 PM
01/06/12 05:46 PM
asygo  Offline OP
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Originally Posted By: Mountain Man
Satan is unholy. He tempts us to sin. Do either cause guilt or condemnation? No, of course not.

Don't you think that Satan is guilty and condemned for being an unholy tempter, whether or not you fall for his tricks?


By God's grace,
Arnold

There is no excuse for any one in taking the position that there is no more truth to be revealed, and that all our expositions of Scripture are without an error. The fact that certain doctrines have been held as truth for many years by our people, is not a proof that our ideas are infallible. Age will not make error into truth, and truth can afford to be fair. No true doctrine will lose anything by close investigation. RH 12/20/1892
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