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Why is "Holy Spirit" Used in Some Verses & "Holy Ghost" in Other Verses?
#32207
07/08/05 08:56 PM
07/08/05 08:56 PM
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Why is Holy Spirit used in some verses and Holy Ghost in other verses?
Are they not the one and the same?
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Re: Why is "Holy Spirit" Used in Some Verses & "Holy Ghost" in Other Verses?
#32208
07/08/05 09:01 PM
07/08/05 09:01 PM
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Dedicated Member
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Joined: Feb 2004
Posts: 1,009
Ohio
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I would think that it was the authors preference. Kind of like some use God, others use Lord, still others say Lord God, or even Father.
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Re: Why is "Holy Spirit" Used in Some Verses & "Holy Ghost" in Other Verses?
#32209
07/08/05 09:58 PM
07/08/05 09:58 PM
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Active Member 2011
3500+ Member
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Joined: May 2002
Posts: 3,965
Sweden
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The first check showed that the term "holy Ghost" is only used in the KJV line of bible translations, the other ones writes "holy Spirit" consistently. Looking at what the differences between the two terms in the KJV21 is, the first observation is that "holy Ghost" is only used in the NT while "holy Spirit" is used in both OT and NT. My theory is that the translators made a difference between when they think the text refers to just a holy spirit and when they think the text refers to the third person of the trinity/Godhead, using Holy Ghost only at those times.
/Thomas
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Re: Why is "Holy Spirit" Used in Some Verses & "Holy Ghost" in Other Verses?
#32210
07/09/05 11:07 PM
07/09/05 11:07 PM
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The term "Holy Spirit" is also found in the KJV's New Testement. Luke 11:13, If ye then, being evil, know how to give good gifts unto your children: how much more shall your heavenly Father give the Holy Spirit to them that ask him?I think to find the answer why sometimes it's Ghost and sometimes Spirit, you'd have to ask the translators of the KJV. From Strong's, I see that the same Greek word is used for "spirit" and "ghost" so the Greek makes no distinction. I know of a couple of KJV only types who would make something of it though. Jeff
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Re: Why is "Holy Spirit" Used in Some Verses & "Holy Ghost" in Other Verses?
#32211
07/09/05 11:17 PM
07/09/05 11:17 PM
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Active Member 2011
3500+ Member
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Joined: May 2002
Posts: 3,965
Sweden
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Well, we could have asked the translators if they hadnt died some 400 years ago. What did the KJV only people come up with for explanation?
/Thomas
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Here is the link to this week's Sabbath School Lesson Study and Discussion Material: Click Here
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