Greg, I like the things you mentioned, but I think I'm hung up on the timing. Moses anointed the sanctuary with oil first, and then he anointed Aaron and his sons with blood and oil, and all of this BEFORE any work started in the sanctuary.

Jesus was first the Lamb of God, and then He was slain for the sins of mankind, and then He rose to serve as our high priest in the heavenly sanctuary. If the OT example of anointing the sanctuary first, the priest next, and finally the daily work began followed by the annual day of atonement - if any of this means anything at all, then all of it should matter completely. At least that's what makes sense to me right now.

Therefore, if the OT is the pattern Jesus first established, and then later demonstrated (and still is), why wouldn't we also conclude that Jesus anointed the heavenly sanctuary (the one He served under) with oil, not blood, sometime BEFORE His incarnation, or no later than BEFORE His substitutionary death on the cross?

If the OT model actually depicts the pattern Jesus is following, then He would have anointed all three apartments of the heavenly sanctuary with oil before giving His life and death for us on the altar in the outer court. Then His blood would have been used during His inaugural ceremony, along with oil, to anoint Him as our high priest. Which would then allow Jesus to perform the daily in the holy place until 1844, and finally the annual day of atonement until the close of time.

To suggest any other order or sequence of events seems to disregard the clear OT example, which was based on the ministry of Jesus. If we're going to insist on a different pattern for Jesus, then I believe we should show just cause for our choices. So far, we haven't properly addressed these concerns. Is there any way we can direct this study to that end?

On a side note, your musing about the opening of Jesus' side and how it might correspond to Adam and his help mate is indeed interesting. I don't know. The thought never occurred to me before. What about His other wounds? What are the parallels?

Mike:
A large portion of this is how you view the sanctuary. When Jesus was a child He came to the temple and did He anoint it with the presence of the Holy Spirit then? When He was baptized and anointed, and accepted by the Father did He soon go to the sanctuary and cleanse it? Now He removed various things but did He anoint it? I believe that His presence is the Shekinah presence and validated the sanctuary for its last rites. When Jesus left the sanctuary it in effect was closed for it was desolate, there was no longer a Shekinah presence in it.

In reference to the other wounds, I believe that his blood anointed His head, His hands and His feet. Just as in Leviticus 8:23.

The examples you gave refer to the earthly sanctuary. But when did Jesus anoint the heavenly sanctuary? Some people say He waited until AD 31.

According to the examples you gave Jesus anointed the earthly BEFORE He shed His blood on the cross, did He not also anoint the heavenly with oil BEFORE He shed His blood?

If Jesus anointed the earthly with the oil of His presence, then isn't possible that He also anointed the heavenly with the oil of His presence long before His incarnation?

I can see where Christ may have anointed the Heavenly Sanctuary with oil prior to 31 AD and with His blood in 31 AD.

I will need to review this again with this in mind.

Daryl, how many times must Jesus anoint the heavenly sanctuary before it is considered anointed? Also, please share with me, after you study this further, where it says blood was used to anoint the sanctuary before the priests began work on a daily basis?

Mike

What are your thoughts re this exerpt from ML Andeason's book called "The Sabbath?" Do you see any connection with this quote, and Rev.13:8?

"We can understand how God can bless human beings.

We can even understand how He can bless animals and give them their work to do in carrying out God’s purpose; but how can God bless a day, a division of time, neither animate nor inanimate, not alive nor dead, a thing without substance, a conception rather than a reality; time, which defies definition, though all mankind is aware of its existence and reality?

How can time be blessed so as to be a blessing to man?"

"The answer is that time does not have any virtue or power in itself to be a blessing or a help to others.

Time is as impersonal as space, and equally inconceivable.

One difference between the two is noticeable: space extends in all directions, while time might be compared to a one-way road, permitting traffic in one direction only.

Man has no power over time, to hasten or retard it. Whether he will or not, he is carried along with it, and despite all protests is one day older tomorrow than he is today. He cannot reverse the process, however much he may wish to do so. Time is superior to him, and he obeys its mandates."

"There are those who believe that God did not create time, but that in some way He found it already existing. But this cannot be. Time and space are not self-existent entities, operating apart from God and independent of Him.

If that were true, they would be equal with God, or even His superior; for that which is coeval with God or exists prior to God must at least be equal with Him; and that which is not created by God is self-existent and is God. The Christian believes that “without Him was not anything made that was made,” and that time and space are created by God as verily as anything else He has made. John 1:3."

"Though the two conceptions of time and space are beyond human comprehension, each is helpful in understanding the other. Our conception of space, for example, helps us to understand time better, and how it is possible for God to bless time." (The Sabbath, pp. 54, 55 - M. L. Andreasen)

There can be no concept of eternity without the concept of time. As Andreasen noted, if all things were created by Jesus Christ, then He created time. Speaking as Paul, “after the manner of men” for lack of better words, there was a period in history before time or eternity existed. Christ, being the author of time, must also be the author of eternity as we know it.

Therefore, Christ, the Son of God, was begotten before time and eternity existed since it was Christ who brought these into being. With this understanding we can see how Jesus “was with God from all eternity” and yet also the literal Son of God begotten before Bethlehem.

David,
That was really a good quote from Andreasen's book on the Sabbath. I have his book on the Sanctuary Service, but not this one. And, yes, I can see the connection to Rev.13:8. Isn't it awesome, when we realize how very little we know now, and how we will be studying all the things of God throughout all eternity?!! Now, won't THAT be a fabulous Sabbath School to attend?

[ January 22, 2002: Message edited by: Dora ]

God existed before time and space? Now there's a strange thought. Personally it's easier for me to wrap my mind around the idea that time and space has existed from eternity same as God. As such I'm not sure there is a clear connection between Rev 13:8 and the beginning of time and space. The text only mentions the foundation of the world as the starting point. And that there is some kind of link between Jesus' sacrifice and this point in time.

Or did I miss something?