NOTE: this post was copied and pasted from the thread entitled - What is SOP supposed to do for us?
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Edward,
Thanx for responding to the points I shared. I very much agree with the point you made about the inherent conditionality of prophecy. Whether explicit or implied it seems to me that all prophecy is instinctively conditional. Although conditional it also seems to be true that they are nevertheless inevitable.
There also seems to be at least a couple underlying aspects of prophecy that is true across the board. And that is there seems to be principles built into any given prophecy that do not change or get modified regardless of the changing times and circumstances due to certain conditions that were not met or whatever. The common adage - History repeats itself - probably explains this aspect of prophecy.
However, there is another aspect of prophecy that seems to be time dated, that is, locked into a specific time and place. And that would be the particular details of the original or primary intent of the prophecy. Those details do not have the power to be fulfilled exactly the way they were first given, if the original circumstances are passed over for whatever reason, simply because they pertained to a specific time and people.
You wrote:
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No evidence is yet found that God modifies prophecy, just the opposite. God adds conditions and implied covenants into prophecy thus keeping the nature of the prophecy absolute, even though the obedience of the people was relative (here today and gone tomorrow).
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There is a difference in modifying prophecy after the fact and adding conditions before hand. Perhaps the word modify was a poor choice for it suggests that prophecy and it's truths are relative instead of absolute and built with conditions of reception and fulfilment the effects of which are also absolute.
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I agree that the underlying principle of a prophecy is unchanging, and will eventually be fulifilled in principle regardless of how many generations forfeit the fulfillment because they failed to meet the built in and sometimes unstated conditions.
But the same isn't always true of the specific details and particulars of the original prophecy. Several examples have already been shared in previous posts. Most noteable is the prophecy of the battle of Gog and Magog. See Eze 38 & 39. Wouldn't you agree that the details of this prophecy will never be fulfilled exactly the way they were pictured in Ezekiel? (please reply).
It is in this sense that I suggest God modifies prophecy to accommodate changes in time and circumstances. The overall story line or principle of the prophecy remains unchanged, however, changes in time and circumstances requires certain modifications to reflect the new situation.
Another good example involves the entire dynamics of the Restoration Promises and Prophecies. All those prophecies recorded in Isaiah, Jeremiah, Ezekiel and several other places will never be fulfilled exactly the way they are described in the Old Testament. Massive modifications regarding the specific details have been ordained by God due to the fact the nation of Israel failed to fulfill the conditions of fulfillment.
Just read some of the descriptions of the new earth as originally envisioned for post-babylonian Israel in the Old Testament. Take the last three verses of the book of Isaiah. Every sabbath the Jews would have enjoyed a nice walk in the country looking upon the dead bodies of their fallen enemies.
In the New Testament those prophecies have been seriously worked over by God. And to be honest, I'm not going to miss those things that have been edited and modified. Can you blame me? Although the OT prophecies will be fulfilled in principle, it is obvious they will not be fulfilled in every particular.
So, what is the SOP of prophecy supposed to do for us now and later? Well, I think we can all agree that the Spirit - the Holy Spirit - of prophecy reserves the right to modify prophecy to reflect changes in time and circumstances if and when people and places fail to met the conditions of fulfillment.
This is not to imply that God was taken by surprise when the conditions were not met. Not at all. God knows the end from the beginning. So then another good question to ask at this point is - Why did God prophesy one thing when He knew good and well it would turn out different in the final analysis?
Well, would it have turned out that way in the end if He hadn't prophesied it that way in the beginning? (please reply). Look at the story of Jonah for example. Would the Ninevites have repented in sackcloth and ashes if God hadn't sent Jonah with a message of impending doom?
Apparently nothing else was working. Does this imply God issued an idle threat or a kind of white lie? Not at all. Because although the particulars concerning time (the 40 days of probation) were not fulfilled - the principle of the prophecy was fulfilled some 200 years later when the Medes and Babylonians ransacked Nineveh. See Nahum and Zephaniah.
Anyhow, I would appreciate a direct response to the thoughts I shared here.
Mike
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I shortened those "-----" lines.
[This message has been edited by Daryl Fawcett (edited February 19, 2001).]