The Bible says that Jesus came in the fullness of time. What does that mean? Is it just an arbitrary time that God decided? Or was there some reason why Christ came when He did? Would His coming have been as effective had it been earlier? If not, why not?

Wasn't the timing of Christ's 1st Advent according to the 70 Week Prophecy of Daniel 9:24-27 quoted below?



This prophecy gives the timing from the beginning of His earthly ministry to His Crucifixion.

From the above quote, I would say that "the fullness of time" is referring to the beginning of His earthly ministry.

It could be referring to the timing of His birth in Bethlehem.

Great questions, Tom. God directed things until the world was ripe for the first advent of Christ. Apparently it took time.

DA 32
So in heaven's council the hour for the coming of Christ had been determined. When the great clock of time pointed to that hour, Jesus was born in Bethlehem. {DA 32.1}

"When the fullness of the time was come, God sent forth His Son." Providence had directed the movements of nations, and the tide of human impulse and influence, until the world was ripe for the coming of the Deliverer. The nations were united under one government. One language was widely spoken, and was everywhere recognized as the language of literature. From all lands the Jews of the dispersion gathered to Jerusalem to the annual feasts. As these returned to the places of their sojourn, they could spread throughout the world the tidings of the Messiah's coming. {DA 32.2}

At this time the systems of heathenism were losing their hold upon the people. Men were weary of pageant and fable. They longed for a religion that could satisfy the heart. While the light of truth seemed to have departed from among men, there were souls who were looking for light, and who were filled with perplexity and sorrow. They were thirsting for a knowledge of the living God, for some assurance of a life beyond the grave. {DA 32.3}

Daryl, I was getting at the why. That is, why did Jesus come when He came? Was it just arbitrary? (to fulfill a prophecy) Or was there a reason God chose this specific time? MM's answer is getting at what my questions were asking.

MM, I think those are excellent points. Here's another question, related to the original one. We see that God did not immediately send Christ, but only after several millenia. First God with and through Israel. Why?

Tom, this is something that has troubled me over the years. Why God didn't allow Jesus to die immediately after Adam and Eve sinned is a mystery to me. The only thing that makes sense is that the onlooking universe needed time to observe Jesus and Satan handling the great controversy in the hearts and minds of humans.

For whatever reason Enoch's example was not sufficient to end the GC by allowing Jesus to die then. For whatever reason Noah's example was not enough, and Abraham's, and Joseph's, and Moses', and Samuel's, and David's, etc - none of these people or eras or dispensations adequately demonstrated the principles of the GC in a way that would have allowed Jesus to end the GC on the Cross. Even Jesus' own life and death didn't allow God to end the GC right then and there.

I don't get it! In the meantime, however, I am enjoying walking in the Spirit and mind of the new man, fellowshipping with Jesus now, waiting until He comes again. It doesn't matter to me, too much, if He doesn't return in my lifetime.

Well it's a good thing to ponder. A point which I've heard, which makes a great deal of sense to me, is that one question God wished to answer is what would happen is a people were to "worship" God with the intention of avoiding bad consequences they perceive would happen to them if they didn't. In other words, a "worship" inspired by fear.

We know that at first the angels were confused as to the principles of God's government. They cried out for vengeance. They wanted God to destroy His enemies whenever they dared to defy Him.

The Jews demonstrated what happens when one "worships" God from a wrong motive, for example, the motive of fear.

Consider the following from your favorite passage from the Desire of Ages:



This passage points out the danger of misunderstanding God. Had God allowed Satan to reap the result of his sin, he would have died, but the reason for his death would not have been clear. It would have appeared that it was due to something God was doing to Satan as opposed to what it really was, the result of his sin. This misunderstanding of God would have created an evil seed of doubt, and the sin problem would not have been cured. Indeed, things would have become worse.

So the reason, or a reason, that Christ did not come immediately upon Adam's sin was that there were lessons that needed to learn, which agrees with what you said. Had He come too soon, the problem of sin would not have been cured. The purpose for Christ's coming was to do away with sin, so the timing had to be right, so the purpose for which He came could be accomplished.

He came at a time so that His life and death would answer all of the questions that needed answers for time and eternity.

If the issue were simply legal, then He could have come and died right away.

And, if the issues were simply relational Jesus would have died right away. So, since both the legal and relational issues would have been best dealt with by Jesus dying right away – why didn’t He?

My favorite quote, however, addresses Lucifer's sin problem - not ours. In light of the following quote, why did God wait 4,000 years to do the one and only thing He could to motivate us to love and trust Him, to repent and cease sinning?

DA 761, 762
But even as a sinner, man was in a different position from that of Satan. Lucifer in heaven had sinned in the light of God's glory. To him as to no other created being was given a revelation of God's love. Understanding the character of God, knowing His goodness, Satan chose to follow his own selfish, independent will. This choice was final. There was no more that God could do to save him. But man was deceived; his mind was darkened by Satan's sophistry. The height and depth of the love of God he did not know. For him there was hope in a knowledge of God's love. By beholding His character he might be drawn back to God. {DA 761.5}

And, if the issues were simply relational Jesus would have died right away.

The relational issues involved not just humanity but the rest of the universe as well.

So, since both the legal and relational issues would have been best dealt with by Jesus dying right away – why didn’t He?

My goodness, MM, I just wrote about this! You must have read it, since you quoted from it.

My favorite quote, however, addresses Lucifer's sin problem - not ours.

It addresses both.

In light of the following quote, why did God wait 4,000 years to do the one and only thing He could to motivate us to love and trust Him, to repent and cease sinning?

Read my previous post, please. It's difficult for me to understand how you can ask a question, and I answer the question, and then you re-ask the same exact question as if I hadn't responded.

I hope we are all carefully reading and digesting one another's posts.

Communication is always a challenge, in the best of circumstances. It's especially so when one is limited to writing.

Tom