The historical gramatical method is used. But what is the historical gramatical method? Readers of S.K.Pippim please defer and let others dig and we will all discuss it.

Someone asked that since Christ is a High Priest "Forever" did forever begin in 1844 ?

It is a valid question that asks what does the Bible mean when it says forever? When Jesus removes His High Priest garments and puts on the robes of King of Kings how does this affect our understanding the Biblical use of the term "forever", "for Ever", "eternal" ?

If I the long winded can keep off the keyboard and let others dig and reply there ought to be a lively discussion. Since He "ever " liveth to make intercession, is part of the present work He went to do in the Most Holy Place I hope things get Biblically animated in a good and kind way.

Hebrews 7:25 Wherefore he is able also to save them to the uttermost that come unto God by him, seeing he ever liveth to make intercession for them.

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Edward F. Sutton

You are right. This is a really good question that I have often faced in Bible studies with people from other denominations.

One of the easiest places for me to start with this one is Jude 7:

"Even as Sodom and Gomorrah...are set forth for an example, suffering the vengeance of eternal fire."

These two cities are an example of "everlasting fire." Are these two cities still burning today? (only if you're Jonathan Edwards!).

1 Thes. 1:9 calls it "everlasting destruction from the presence of the Lord."

Meaning that it's results last forever; but do not continue forever.

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"The joy of the Lord will be your strength." (Neh.8:10).

Your brother in Christ

David T. Battler

[This message has been edited by DavidTBattler (edited July 22, 2000).]

In Jonah 2:6, "for ever" means "three days and nights." (See also Jonah 1:17). In Deuteronomy 23:3, this means "10 generations." So "forever" doesn't necessarily mean that something has been going on ever since the beginning of time or that it will continue on till the end of it.

In the case of man, this means "as long as he lives" or "till death." (See Psalm 48:14;
1 Samuel 1:22,28; Exodus 21:6

Sometimes I do wonder though, that if God knew we would in our modern day not really have the same idea of what "forever" meant- why then didn't He have those guys in the Bible use a different word then forever? I guess so we'd have something to talk about in here

Claudia

wow, I think I need to think about this some more, I had to go back and re-read what Ed said about the High priest...

hmmmmmmmmmm,,, thats an interesting topic..

Does this mean for eternity? No!

There will be no slavery in the new earth.

It meant as long as he lived, he would be a slave.

Gerry B.

Once these are posted we will move to context.

After that we will request those with access to full text Bible languages, post these & explain them, then we pull up SOP on each verse or give references.

We could not only have fun digging in the books & picking each other's brains; but also building our own repitouir of Bible studies.

Anybody know how to spell repitouir?)

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Edward F. Sutton

The term "for ever," as used in the Bible, just means a period of time, limited or unlimited. ... ... ... ... ... ... ... ... ... ... ... ... ... ... ... ... ... ... ... ... although, now that I think about it, that would be awful if "eternal" Life meant the same thing...
	quote: Claudia Burrow

Don't worry Claudia, the same thought occured to me once. God answered me this way. Sodom was destroyed. The results are eternal.
	quote: Dan Wilson

As I understand it, in the original language the words that have been translated to our English word "forever" does not indicate a specific length of time. It could be used in the context of a limited scope of time, or used in the context of eternity.

The duration would be defined, not in the use of the word itself, but in the context in which the word was used. As I understand it, this was also found to be the case in the secular writings of those days; though I don't remember where it was I had read that.

Even though the duration of time is not defined in the use of the word itself, my understanding is that the word infers that there is no break, relief or suspension from the event being described, until that event has concluded.

For example, there were no relief from the fires that destroyed Sodom. The fires did not stop and then start up again later. It was a constant fire that burned constantly while the city was being destroyed. There was no relief, not even for a moment.

Furthermore, the results of the fire (i.e. the destruction of the city) is eternal.

Likewise, the fires of hell will give no relief until the destruction is complete. And then the results (i.e. the destruction) will be everlasting.

Apart from Christ, there is no life.

Thus we have the choice: Eternal Life, or Eternal Death.

I too would like to see this discussion continue, especially with those who may have resources which provides information on the meanings of words used in the original text.

-Dennis Borg

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Examine me, O LORD, and prove me: try my reins and my heart. Ps.26:2
It is better to trust in the LORD than to put confidence in men.Ps.118:8