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Re: Does the legal aspect of imputed righteousness make sense under the Christus Victor model? [Re: Tom] #107016
01/03/09 08:51 AM
01/03/09 08:51 AM
Tom  Offline
Active Member 2012
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Joined: Aug 2004
Posts: 14,795
Lawrence, Kansas
Quote:
What did Paul mean in Heb 6:4-6?


I think his thinking was similar to later in Hebrews where he speaks of how, "there remaineth no more sacrifice for sins, but a certain fearful looking for of judgment and fiery indignation." Do you agree?

Quote:
You wrote, “As to what makes the difference, certainly Jesus Christ taking our flesh, becoming one of us, must have something to do with it, don't you think?” Why didn’t Jesus do this for Lucifer? I mean, why didn’t He become like Lucifer in his rebellious state? Wouldn’t that have enabled Him to demonstrate to Lucifer how to overcome his rebellious thoughts and feelings?

Also, please explain why you think Jesus' death would not have served to help Lucifer in the way it serves to help us?


I think because of the reasons stated in DA 761, 762. Indeed, this is exactly what I think DA 761, 762 is explaining.


Those who wait for the Bridegroom's coming are to say to the people, "Behold your God." The last rays of merciful light, the last message of mercy to be given to the world, is a revelation of His character of love.
Re: Does the legal aspect of imputed righteousness make sense under the Christus Victor model? [Re: Tom] #107144
01/05/09 05:43 PM
01/05/09 05:43 PM
Mountain Man  Offline
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Originally Posted By: Tom
M: Somewhere you said Jesus could have sinned and repented before He attained unto a full knowledge of God.

T: No, I didn't say this.

Okay.

Quote:
M: Again, I have explained my position on this point. Here it is – It would have been a sin to continue pursuing his course after he was convinced it would be wrong and sinful to do so. He was not guilty of sinning before this time. “He had not at this time fully cast off his allegiance to God.”

T: MM, it says he was given a chance to "confess his sin." How can you hold to the idea that he didn't sin when he was given the chance to confess it?

Yes, as I said, Lucifer was convinced it would be wrong and sinful to continue pursuing his course after God made His last and final appeal. The matter was presented to him in such clear light that he was no longer in doubt as to the true nature and results of pursuing his course further. He saw the end to which it would land him and he was convinced beyond doubt it would be wrong and sinful to go there. He was given the opportunity to confess his convictions and abandon his course. He was very close to doing so, but at last he decided to see it through to the bitter end.

I realize you think this explanation and understanding of the matter is so far afield it is laughable, but it is at least one of many plausible ways of reading it. It is the outgrowth of other established facts and based on rock solid foundations, namely, that 1) no plan existed to save angels should they venture to sin and 2) God has never pardoned a sinner without also requiring the substitutionary death of Jesus. Nothing Ellen wrote elsewhere contradicts these two foundational facts.

Quote:
M: You have no way of proving God would have pardoned Lucifer after he was guilty of sinning.

T: 4SP 319 proves this. God offered to pardon Lucifer and restore him to his position if he confessed his sin.

You are assuming conclusions based on a theory you have been unable to substantiate. You think that 1) a plan existed to save angels who have sinned, 2) offering them pardon is equivalent to actually granting them pardon, and 3) God would have pardoned them without also requiring the substitutionary death of Jesus. You have no inspired support for assuming these conclusions. Nor do you have any right to state them as matters of fact, or to build new theories upon them.

Quote:
M: Yes, before Lucifer was guilty of sinning God would have pardoned his activities on condition of repentance and submission. But after the final appeal, the offer was no longer available. Again, the fact God has never pardoned sinners on condition of repentance and submission without also requiring the substitutionary death of Jesus is proof God would not have pardoned Lucifer without Jesus’ death after he was guilty of sinning.

T: You already that God would not have offered pardon without being willing to grant it. Lucifer would have been pardoned had he accepted the offer. So your assertion here is completely moot. This should be easy to see. That God didn't pardon Lucifer proves nothing since the salient action here was not an action on God's part but on Lucifer's. God did all he could to pardon Lucifer. It was purely because of what Lucifer did that he was not pardoned. So if you wish to assert anything on the basis of an action of someone, it would have to be on the basis of an action of Lucifer.

Again, your logic here is based on the three observations (named above) you assume are matters of fact. But they are not matters of fact for the simple reason no inspired passages exist to back them up. To build a new theory, or to draw any conclusion, based on the assumption they are true is bad logic, bad theology.

You have posted zero quotes to describe or explain what God did to motivate Lucifer to abandon his course. All we know about it is what we read in the SOP. The Bible is silent on the details. We know God pleaded with Lucifer on the basis of logic and reason; we know God held a general assembly to honor Jesus and to clear up any confusion as to His exalted status; and we know God offered to pardon and reinstate Lucifer on condition of repentance and submission.

But we also know logic and reason and offers of pardon served only to harden Lucifer’s heart, to confirm him in the course he was pursuing. There was nothing God could do to woo and win him back. He had no other recourse. He had played His best and last hand long before Lucifer embarked upon his perilous course. By the time Lucifer began entertaining new and strange thoughts and feelings about God it was too late in the game of life for God to do anything new to save him should he sin.

God’s only recourse was to remind Lucifer of His love for him. He could only point to the facts at hand as proof peace and happiness exist, and has existed from the beginning, because FMAs have willingly and lovingly chosen to live in harmony with the established order of things. There was nothing more God could do to demonstrate His love more fully. Lucifer had for many years lived in the full light of God’s love and majesty. This reality is the only thing God could offer Lucifer as incentive and encouragement to abandon his course. As you say, not even the death of Jesus could have improved upon what Lucifer already knew about God. It would have served no meaningful purpose.

Yes, God offered to pardon and reinstate Lucifer, but under the circumstances it was meaningless to Lucifer. He needed what God could not offer, namely, further proof that living in harmony with the established order is right, that to pursue any other course is wrong. The fact God could provide no better proof than what had already been provided led Lucifer to question if the established order really was right. Encouraging him to stay the course, to abandon his new course, without offering any new evidence, only served to harden his heart and to confirm him in his new course. What more could God do? He had already played His best hand.

The time came for God to offer the final appeal, and although it stirred a few strings in his heart, Lucifer was determined to brave the consequences. Since God could offer no new evidence to recommend His love and established order, Lucifer felt justified in pursuing his course to the end. He deceived himself into believing a new world order would empower FMAs to be all they can be, to afford them the opportunity to worship him without bringing down the frown of God. To this end he bent all his power and wisdom and influence.

Quote:
M: Would you say Lucifer was guilty of transgressing the law the instant he left God’s presence and began disseminating his new and strange thoughts and feelings about God?

T: No, I would say he was guilty of transgressing the law before this, starting from when the SOP quotes Ezekiel in regards to Lucifer's being perfect until iniquity was found in him (a couple of pages before what you're mentioning). Also Lucifer's heart was filled with envy and hatred of Christ before this. It is my believe that hatred of Christ is transgression of the law. Do you agree?

Can we understand what it was like to be a sinless angel in heaven? No, of course not. Therefore, we should not presume to understand what it means to be a sinless angel in heaven wrestling with such new and strange thoughts and feelings toward Jesus. Lucifer was confused. He was alarmed. He had not cast off his allegiance to God. He did not set out to replace God or the established order. He merely felt a few changes to the established order would set things right. His feelings toward Jesus did not become a sin until the moment He rejected God’s final appeal to abandon his course.

Quote:
M: Please answer this question in light of the following quote – “But no provision had been made to save those [angels] who should venture to transgress His law.”

T: I see no reason to. First of all, I completely disagree with your understanding of what God is wishing to communicate. Your idea is that God arbitrarily decided he would forgive men but not angels. I don't think that's the idea at all. That the angels could not be saved if they continued in rebellion had nothing at all to do with a provision that God had or not had made. That's not the point. The point is there was no way to save them; that's it. DA 761, 762 discusses why.

Secondly, I don't see the connection between this quote and when Lucifer started sinning. I don't see why you would want to tie when Lucifer started sinning to this quote, as opposed to, for example, the quotes dealing with his heart being filled with hatred for Christ.

Hopefully after reading what I wrote above (this post) you can see why I believe no plan existed to save angels should they venture to sin. The reasons are plain and simple to understand. They were at a point in their relationship with God that made it impossible for them to sin and then repent.

They were at the point you believe the redeemed in heaven will be at, a point where they know God so well that their first sin would be unpardonable, a point where should they sin they would be unable to repent. The reason why, as stated before, is the fact there is nothing more God could say or do to recommend His love more fully, nothing He could do that would serve to save them. Not because God wouldn’t save them but because He couldn’t save them. They would be unsaveable, irretrievable, unredeemable – damaged beyond repair.

“But no provision had been made to save those [angels] who should venture to transgress His law.” The fact God offered to pardon and reinstate Lucifer, in light of this inspired insight, is evidence he had not yet sinned. God does not waste time offering something He cannot deliver. Since it is clear no provision existed to save angels should they venture to sin it is obvious, therefore, that they had not yet sinned because God was offering to save them. And when they did finally commit a sin it is equally obvious God could not save them for the simple reason He stopped offering to save them. They were beyond hope. They had reached the point where they were no longer capable of repenting, a point they had reached long before Lucifer began rebelling.

Quote:
EGW: Before he was sentenced to banishment from Heaven, his course was with convincing clearness shown to be wrong, and he was granted an opportunity to confess his sin, and submit to God's authority as just and righteous. (4P 319)

T: Your response? "The SOP quote you are referring to employs the word “sin” in a different sense."

Yes, that was my initial response, and it was wrong. The correct understanding of this passage is explained in great detail above (this post).

Re: Does the legal aspect of imputed righteousness make sense under the Christus Victor model? [Re: Mountain Man] #107149
01/05/09 07:08 PM
01/05/09 07:08 PM
Mountain Man  Offline
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Originally Posted By: Tom
M: What did Paul mean in Heb 6:4-6?

T: I think his thinking was similar to later in Hebrews where he speaks of how, "there remaineth no more sacrifice for sins, but a certain fearful looking for of judgment and fiery indignation." Do you agree?

Yes, I believe both passages are describing the same kind of person, the same kind of condition. But I suspect we see it differently. Here are the passages:

Hebrews
6:4 For [it is] impossible for those who were once enlightened, and have tasted of the heavenly gift, and were made partakers of the Holy Ghost,
6:5 And have tasted the good word of God, and the powers of the world to come,
6:6 If they shall fall away, to renew them again unto repentance; seeing they crucify to themselves the Son of God afresh, and put [him] to an open shame.
10:26 For if we sin wilfully after that we have received the knowledge of the truth, there remaineth no more sacrifice for sins,
10:27 But a certain fearful looking for of judgment and fiery indignation, which shall devour the adversaries.

I believe these passages describe the condition I spelled out in my last post (above in this thread). Here it is again: They were at a point in their relationship with God that made it impossible for them to sin and then repent. They were at the point you believe the redeemed in heaven will be at, a point where they know God so well that their first sin would be unpardonable, a point where should they sin they would be unable to repent. The reason why, as stated before, is the fact there is nothing more God could say or do to recommend His love more fully, nothing He could do that would serve to save them. Not because God wouldn’t save them but because He couldn’t save them. They would be unsaveable, irretrievable, unredeemable – damaged beyond repair.

Oh, by the way, I forgot to address an issue in my last post that I thought you would bring up in response to this description. So, I'll speak to it here. In the past you have explained that the reason redeemed saints in heaven and the new earth will not sin is because they will not choose to sin. You do not believe it's because of the reasons I gave above, namely, that they have reached a point of no return, that there would be nothing God could do to motivate them to repent and obey Him, as in the case of Lucifer.

Quote:
M: You wrote, “As to what makes the difference, certainly Jesus Christ taking our flesh, becoming one of us, must have something to do with it, don't you think?” Why didn’t Jesus do this for Lucifer? I mean, why didn’t He become like Lucifer in his rebellious state? Wouldn’t that have enabled Him to demonstrate to Lucifer how to overcome his rebellious thoughts and feelings? Also, please explain why you think Jesus' death would not have served to help Lucifer in the way it serves to help us?

T: I think because of the reasons stated in DA 761, 762. Indeed, this is exactly what I think DA 761, 762 is explaining.

I was afraid you were going to refer to this passage and then insist it clearly answers my questions. The problem, though, is that it doesn’t address my questions. Here’s the quote:

But even as a sinner, man was in a different position from that of Satan. Lucifer in heaven had sinned in the light of God's glory. To him as to no other created being was given a revelation of God's love. Understanding the character of God, knowing His goodness, Satan chose to follow his own selfish, independent will. This choice was final. There was no more that God could do to save him. But man was deceived; his mind was darkened by Satan's sophistry. The height and depth of the love of God he did not know. For him there was hope in a knowledge of God's love. By beholding His character he might be drawn back to God. {DA 761.5}

As anyone can see, Ellen is not addressing my questions. She simply says, “There was no more that God could do to save him.” She doesn’t say what God did to try and dissuade Lucifer from following his course. Nor does she explain why God didn’t bother commissioning Jesus to die. So, as you can see, this quote does not address my questions. Do you know of one that does?

Re: Does the legal aspect of imputed righteousness make sense under the Christus Victor model? [Re: Mountain Man] #107152
01/05/09 08:40 PM
01/05/09 08:40 PM
Tom  Offline
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14500+ Member
Joined: Aug 2004
Posts: 14,795
Lawrence, Kansas
Quote:
T: MM, it says he was given a chance to "confess his sin." How can you hold to the idea that he didn't sin when he was given the chance to confess it?

M:Yes, as I said, Lucifer was convinced it would be wrong and sinful to continue pursuing his course after God made His last and final appeal. The matter was presented to him in such clear light that he was no longer in doubt as to the true nature and results of pursuing his course further. He saw the end to which it would land him and he was convinced beyond doubt it would be wrong and sinful to go there. He was given the opportunity to confess his convictions and abandon his course.


No, MM. He was given the opportunity to confess his "sin." Not "convictions" but "sin." Before this God offered Lucifer pardon "again and again." The SOP, quoting Ezekiel, said that "iniquity" had been found in him before his final decision.

Quote:
He was very close to doing so, but at last he decided to see it through to the bitter end.

I realize you think this explanation and understanding of the matter is so far afield it is laughable, but it is at least one of many plausible ways of reading it.


I really don't understand your thinking here. How can there be many plausible ways of reading that before being banished from heaven Lucifer was given the opportunity to confess his sin? Or that God long bore with Lucifer, again and again offering him pardon?

Quote:
It is the outgrowth of other established facts and based on rock solid foundations, namely, that 1) no plan existed to save angels should they venture to sin and 2) God has never pardoned a sinner without also requiring the substitutionary death of Jesus. Nothing Ellen wrote elsewhere contradicts these two foundational facts.


It seems to me that you have a totally arbitrary framework of things which is not based on reason or general principles but on a forced interpretation without regard to context and on a totally irrelevant point.

Here's an approach based on reason and general principles.

1.Rebellion ruins our relationship with God, necessitating a reconciliation.
2.Repentance brings out the reconciliation because the one rebelling stops rebelling, and the One being rebelled against receives the wayward one back, as He was always willing to do.
3.God is always willing to receive a sincerely repentant rebel back to the fold.
4.God does what He can to lead rebels back to repentance.

These principles explain everything that happened to Lucifer and to man. Man did not understand God's goodness and character, so these things needed to be revealed to him, so God gave His Son t do so. Lucifer understood these things, so God did not work with Lucifer in the same way he did for man, but He would have done had such actions had a chance of success, because He loved Lucifer as much as Adam or Eve. That no provision was made for angels should they venture to sin means simply that if the angels should continue in rebellion, there is no way they could be saved. The context makes this clear. She wasn't making an argument that Lucifer hadn't sinned. To use this sentence to argue that Lucifer didn't sin when Ellen White flat out says he did (in addition to describing what he did, such as hating Christ, and in addition to saying that God offered to pardon him, and in addition to referring to "iniquity" being found in him) is not a reasonable argument. It's rejecting clear primary evidence based on direct statements in favor of a forced reading taking out of context.

Regarding the second point, that God never pardoned anyone, this is totally moot, as has been explained to you several times. God offered Lucifer pardon. Had Lucifer accepted the pardon, He would have been pardoned. You've already admitted that the offer of pardon by God meant He would have granted it had it been accepted. So this is a totally moot point. I don't know why you keep bringing it up. All it "proves" is that Lucifer did not accept the offer God extended him, an offer extended without reference to Christ's death.

Quote:
M: You have no way of proving God would have pardoned Lucifer after he was guilty of sinning.

T: 4SP 319 proves this. God offered to pardon Lucifer and restore him to his position if he confessed his sin.

M:You are assuming conclusions based on a theory you have been unable to substantiate.


It's not a theory. It's just quoting what she said.

Quote:
Before he was sentenced to banishment from Heaven, his course was with convincing clearness shown to be wrong, and he was granted an opportunity to confess his sin, and submit to God's authority as just and righteous. (4P 319)

God in His great mercy bore long with Lucifer. He was not immediately degraded from his exalted station when he first indulged the spirit of discontent, nor even when he began to present his false claims before the loyal angels. Long was he retained in heaven. Again and again he was offered pardon on condition of repentance and submission. (GC 495)


Quote:
Though he had left his position as covering cherub, yet if he had been willing to return to God, acknowledging the Creator's wisdom, and satisfied to fill the place appointed him in God's great plan, he would have been reinstated in his office.(PP 39)


God offered Lucifer pardon. He gave him the opportunity to confess his sin. Had he done so, Lucifer would have been reinstated to his former position.

Quote:
You have posted zero quotes to describe or explain what God did to motivate Lucifer to abandon his course.


Why should I have? You didn't ask me to, did you. I didn't need to do so to establish any points I was making.

Quote:
Yes, God offered to pardon and reinstate Lucifer, but under the circumstances it was meaningless to Lucifer. He needed what God could not offer, namely, further proof that living in harmony with the established order is right, that to pursue any other course is wrong. The fact God could provide no better proof than what had already been provided led Lucifer to question if the established order really was right.


This sounds like your seconding Lucifer's arguments; it looks like you view God to be at fault here. You seem to be saying that had God offered further proof, then Lucifer would have been willing to admit he was wrong and return. This whole line of thought is wrong for a number of reasons.

First of all, you're totally ignoring the really important issues. Lucifer hated Christ! This was a fundamental problem, a fundamental sin, that had to be dealt with.

Secondly, Lucifer desired to exalt himself. Everything he was doing was for that purpose.

Quote:
Lucifer might have remained in favor with God, beloved and honored by all the angelic host, exercising his noble powers to bless others and to glorify his Maker. But, says the prophet, "Thine heart was lifted up because of thy beauty, thou hast corrupted thy wisdom by reason of thy brightness." Verse 17. Little by little, Lucifer came to indulge a desire for self-exaltation. "Thou hast set thine heart as the heart of God." "Thou hast said, . . . I will exalt my throne above the stars of God: I will sit also upon the mount of the congregation....I will ascend above the heights of the clouds; I will be like the Most High." Verse 6; Isaiah 14:13, 14. Instead of seeking to make God supreme in the affections and allegiance of His creatures, it was Lucifer's endeavor to win their service and homage to himself. And coveting the honor which the infinite Father had bestowed upon His Son, this prince of angels aspired to power which it was the prerogative of Christ alone to wield. (GC 494)


This is sin, MM. It's not just strange feelings, but it is sin.

Third, the fact of the matter is that the proof God provided was sufficient. Lucifer was convinced he was wrong. But even though he was so convinced, he still chose to continue on the path of rebellion and self-exaltation. This assertion is completely off base:

Quote:
The fact God could provide no better proof than what had already been provided led Lucifer to question if the established order really was right.


It flies in the face of the fact that Lucifer was convinced he was wrong.

Quote:
Lucifer was convinced that he was in the wrong, that the divine claims were just, and that he ought to acknowledge them as such before all heaven. Had he done this, he might have saved himself and many angels. He had not at this time fully cast off his allegiance to God. Though he had forsaken his position as covering cherub, yet if he had been willing to return to God, acknowledging the Creator's wisdom, and satisfied to fill the place appointed him in God's great plan, he would have been reinstated in his office. (GC 496)


This is describing the same thing as 4SP 319, where she says Lucifer was giving the opportunity to confess his sin. Lucifer had sinned (obviously, since he was given the opportunity to confess it), but he had not gone to far, as he had not at this time fully cast off his allegiance to God.

Quote:
Since God could offer no new evidence to recommend His love and established order, Lucifer felt justified in pursuing his course to the end.


This is not a correct way of looking at things here. Lucifer was convinced he was wrong! There was no need for new evidence; the evidence already given had done the job. Lucifer was convinced.

Quote:
Can we understand what it was like to be a sinless angel in heaven? No, of course not. Therefore, we should not presume to understand what it means to be a sinless angel in heaven wrestling with such new and strange thoughts and feelings toward Jesus. Lucifer was confused. He was alarmed. He had not cast off his allegiance to God. He did not set out to replace God or the established order. He merely felt a few changes to the established order would set things right. His feelings toward Jesus did not become a sin until the moment He rejected God’s final appeal to abandon his course.


In our discussions, you seem to put Lucifer's actions in as positive a light as possible and God's in as negative a light as possible. You write, he "merely" felt a few changes to the established order would set things right.

What about his hatred of Christ, his desire for self-exaltation, his endeavor to win homage for himself which belonged only to God?

Quote:
They were at the point you believe the redeemed in heaven will be at, a point where they know God so well that their first sin would be unpardonable, a point where should they sin they would be unable to repent.


This is your theory, not mine.

Anyway, your whole idea seems to be that once Lucifer sinned, he could not be pardoned, but this clearly cannot be the case since God offered to pardon him, and restore him to his position if he confessed his "sin."


Those who wait for the Bridegroom's coming are to say to the people, "Behold your God." The last rays of merciful light, the last message of mercy to be given to the world, is a revelation of His character of love.
Re: Does the legal aspect of imputed righteousness make sense under the Christus Victor model? [Re: Tom] #107155
01/05/09 09:19 PM
01/05/09 09:19 PM
Tom  Offline
Active Member 2012
14500+ Member
Joined: Aug 2004
Posts: 14,795
Lawrence, Kansas
Quote:
T: I think his thinking was similar to later in Hebrews where he speaks of how, "there remaineth no more sacrifice for sins, but a certain fearful looking for of judgment and fiery indignation." Do you agree?

M:Yes, I believe both passages are describing the same kind of person, the same kind of condition.


Ok, let's consider again

Quote:
I have no smooth message to bear to those who have been for so long as false guideposts, pointing the wrong way. If you reject Christ's delegated messengers, you reject Christ. Neglect this great salvation kept before you for years, despise this glorious offer of justification through the blood of Christ and sanctification through the cleansing power of the Holy Spirit, and there remaineth no more sacrifice for sins, but a certain fearful looking for of judgment and fiery indignation. I entreat you now to humble yourselves, and cease your stubborn resistance of light and evidence. Say unto the Lord, Mine iniquities have separated between me and my God. O Lord, pardon my transgressions. Blot out my sins from the book of Thy remembrance. Praise His holy name, there is forgiveness with Him, and you can be converted, transformed. (1888 Mat. 1342)


You can see that the description here agrees with what I described; a period of persistent resistance. This passage quotes from the Hebrew passage I mentioned, which you agreed was similar in Paul's thinking to the Heb. 6 passage you asked about.

Quote:
She doesn’t say what God did to try and dissuade Lucifer from following his course. Nor does she explain why God didn’t bother commissioning Jesus to die. So, as you can see, this quote does not address my questions. Do you know of one that does?


The DA 761,762 passage does address this, at least the second one, about why Christ didn't die for Christ. It says:

Quote:
To him as to no other created being was given a revelation of God's love. Understanding the character of God, knowing His goodness, Satan chose to follow his own selfish, independent will. This choice was final. There was no more that God could do to save him.


By the way, it would be better if you could state things in a neutral way, as opposed to pejorative. For example, you said:

Quote:
Nor does she explain why God didn’t bother commissioning Jesus to die.


"Didn't bother commissioning" is pejorative. Unless you specifically wish to discuss whether or not God didn't send Jesus Christ for Lucifer because He couldn't be bothered with this, if you stated things neutrally (for example, "Nor does she explain why God didn't commission Jesus to die.") that would avoid the need to point out that the issue was not that God couldn't be bothered with this, but that doing so would not have availed.

At any rate, that it would not have availed is explained in DA 761, 762, where she explains that Lucifer had received a full revelation of God's goodness and character, but man had not, which explains why Christ was given to man but not for Lucifer.

Regarding things that Lucifer did try, the passages which speak of Lucifer's fall deal with this, such as the one in PP and GC, although she basically says that God tried many different things over a long time, but doesn't say specifically what they were.


Those who wait for the Bridegroom's coming are to say to the people, "Behold your God." The last rays of merciful light, the last message of mercy to be given to the world, is a revelation of His character of love.
Re: Does the legal aspect of imputed righteousness make sense under the Christus Victor model? [Re: Tom] #107238
01/07/09 01:37 AM
01/07/09 01:37 AM
Mountain Man  Offline
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Originally Posted By: Tom
T: You've already admitted that the offer of pardon by God meant He would have granted it had it been accepted.

You left out the context of my statement. I apply this point to men and angels in two different ways. The offer of pardon made to angels did not involve sin or the death of Jesus, whereas the offer made to men involves sin and the death of Jesus. I realize you thoroughly disagree with me on this point, and we’ll just have to leave it at that.

Originally Posted By: Tom
M: Yes, God offered to pardon and reinstate Lucifer, but under the circumstances it was meaningless to Lucifer. He needed what God could not offer, namely, further proof that living in harmony with the established order is right, that to pursue any other course is wrong. The fact God could provide no better proof than what had already been provided led Lucifer to question if the established order really was right.

T: You seem to be saying that had God offered further proof, then Lucifer would have been willing to admit he was wrong and return.

Look again. I’m saying no such thing. God wasn’t holding back. He had long ago, before Lucifer began to rebel, given him all there was to give. There was nothing left to give. Everything was on the table. It was not enough, however, to prevent Lucifer from rebelling, and it was not enough to win him back. The problem, of course, was with him - not with God.

Again, long before he rebelled, Lucifer was "enlightened", he had "tasted of the heavenly gift", he was "made a partaker of the Holy Ghost", he had "tasted the good word of God, and the powers of the world to come". But in the end it failed to impress him. There was nothing more God could do to win him back.

All during his rebellion in heaven God reminded Lucifer of what he already knew. There was nothing new God could say or do. He would have if He could have. But there was nothing more to give. All the while He was offering to pardon Lucifer God, who knows the end from the beginning, knew he would never comply with the conditions.

Why did God bother offering to pardon Lucifer even though He knew he would never accept it? For the same reason Jesus offered Judas a way out even though He knew he would pursue his perilous course unto the bitter end. Why? God is love. Simple as that. He cannot help behaving in a loving way. Men and angels "will be left without excuse. God has given sufficient evidence upon which to base faith if he wish to believe." {3SG 94.3}

The cases of Judas and Lucifer are very similar. In both cases, Jesus knew neither one of them would be saved from ruin, and yet it didn't prevent Him from investing all the energy and effort necessary to save them from ruin. In so doing they were left without excuse. No stone was left unturned to save then from ruin. But they would have none of it. Listen:

Quote:
Jesus knew that Judas was defective in character, but notwithstanding this, He accepted him as one of the disciples, and gave him the same opportunities and privileges that He gave to the others whom He had chosen. Judas was left without excuse in the evil course he afterward pursued. {TM 46.2}

While Jesus was preparing the disciples for their ordination, one who had not been summoned urged his presence among them. It was Judas Iscariot, a man who professed to be a follower of Christ. . . They were surprised that Jesus received him so coolly. . . If He had repulsed Judas, they would, in their own minds, have questioned the wisdom of their Master. . . The Saviour read the heart of Judas; He knew the depths of iniquity to which, unless delivered by the grace of God, Judas would sink. . . Judas had the same opportunities as had the other disciples. He listened to the same precious lessons. But the practice of the truth, which Christ required, was at variance with the desires and purposes of Judas, and he would not yield his ideas in order to receive wisdom from Heaven. . . He presented before him the highest incentives for right doing; and in rejecting the light of Heaven, Judas would be without excuse. {DA 2943-295}

Christ knew, when He permitted Judas to connect with Him as one of the twelve, that Judas was possessed of the demon of selfishness. He knew that this professed disciple would betray Him, and yet He did not separate him from the other disciples, and send him away. He was preparing the minds of these men for His death and ascension, and He foresaw that should He dismiss Judas, Satan would use him to spread reports that would be difficult to meet and explain. {5BC 1102.2}

The leaders of the Jewish nation were watching and searching for something that they could use to make of no effect the words of Christ. The Saviour knew that Judas, if dismissed, could so misconstrue and mystify His statements that the Jews would accept a false version of His words, using this version to bring terrible harm to the disciples, and to leave on the minds of Christ's enemies the impression that the Jews were justified in taking the attitude that they did toward Jesus and His disciples. {5BC 1102.3}

Christ did not, therefore, send Judas from His presence, but kept him by His side, where He could counteract the influence that he might exert against His work (RH May 12, 1903). {5BC 1102.4}

Re: Does the legal aspect of imputed righteousness make sense under the Christus Victor model? [Re: Mountain Man] #107250
01/07/09 06:19 AM
01/07/09 06:19 AM
Tom  Offline
Active Member 2012
14500+ Member
Joined: Aug 2004
Posts: 14,795
Lawrence, Kansas
Quote:
You left out the context of my statement. I apply this point to men and angels in two different ways. The offer of pardon made to angels did not involve sin or the death of Jesus, whereas the offer made to men involves sin and the death of Jesus. I realize you thoroughly disagree with me on this point, and we’ll just have to leave it at that.


Why are you saying "angels" instead of Lucifer? What offer of pardon to angels do you have in mind?

Quote:
M: Yes, God offered to pardon and reinstate Lucifer, but under the circumstances it was meaningless to Lucifer. He needed what God could not offer, namely, further proof that living in harmony with the established order is right, that to pursue any other course is wrong. The fact God could provide no better proof than what had already been provided led Lucifer to question if the established order really was right.

T: You seem to be saying that had God offered further proof, then Lucifer would have been willing to admit he was wrong and return.

M:Look again. I’m saying no such thing. God wasn’t holding back. He had long ago, before Lucifer began to rebel, given him all there was to give. There was nothing left to give. Everything was on the table. It was not enough, however, to prevent Lucifer from rebelling, and it was not enough to win him back. The problem, of course, was with him - not with God.

Again, long before he rebelled, Lucifer was "enlightened", he had "tasted of the heavenly gift", he was "made a partaker of the Holy Ghost", he had "tasted the good word of God, and the powers of the world to come". But in the end it failed to impress him. There was nothing more God could do to win him back.

All during his rebellion in heaven God reminded Lucifer of what he already knew. There was nothing new God could say or do. He would have if He could have. But there was nothing more to give. All the while He was offering to pardon Lucifer God, who knows the end from the beginning, knew he would never comply with the conditions.


There's no evidence of this. That is, there is no evidence that God knew or expected that Lucifer would not accept the pardon he was offered.

Quote:
Why did God bother offering to pardon Lucifer even though He knew he would never accept it?


He didn't. This is FOTAP.

Quote:
For the same reason Jesus offered Judas a way out even though He knew he would pursue his perilous course unto the bitter end.


FOTAP too. And irrelevant. There's no reason to go into this.

Let's get back on track. Here's what you said:

Quote:
He needed what God could not offer, namely, further proof that living in harmony with the established order is right, that to pursue any other course is wrong.


You here are saying that Lucifer needed further proof that living in harmony with the established order is right. This assertion of yours is false. Lucifer didn't need further proof because he already was convinced he was in the wrong.

What I was objecting to was your assertion here insinuates that Lucifer would have been willing to admit he was wrong if he were given further proof.

Quote:
Why? God is love. Simple as that. He cannot help behaving in a loving way. Men and angels "will be left without excuse. God has given sufficient evidence upon which to base faith if he wish to believe." {3SG 94.3}

The cases of Judas and Lucifer are very similar. In both cases, Jesus knew neither one of them would be saved from ruin


There's no evidence of this. If God created Lucifer knowing he would sin, then God is responsible for Lucifer's sin. God could have simply chosen to create a different covering cherubim, like Gabriel. He was under no obligation to create a being He knew would sin.

But this is all a different matter. If you wish to discuss this, please start a new topic, or resurrect one of the one's we already discussed this matter on.

Quote:
, and yet it didn't prevent Him from investing all the energy and effort necessary to save them from ruin. In so doing they were left without excuse. No stone was left unturned to save then from ruin. But they would have none of it. Listen:


That God left no stone unturned to save them from ruin, but they would have none of it is what I've been saying.

Any, back to the point. The SOP says that God would have restored Lucifer to his position had he confessed his sin. In dozens of pages describing Lucifer's fall, not once did she mention the necessity of death in order to pardon. If it were necessary for someone to die in order for God to obtain the legal right to pardon, this would have been necessary in Lucifer's case, but there is no evidence that this is the case, not even a peep. Therefore your theory as to why Christ had to die for man is in question. It doesn't explain what happened in Lucifer's case.


Those who wait for the Bridegroom's coming are to say to the people, "Behold your God." The last rays of merciful light, the last message of mercy to be given to the world, is a revelation of His character of love.
Re: Does the legal aspect of imputed righteousness make sense under the Christus Victor model? [Re: Tom] #107251
01/07/09 06:23 AM
01/07/09 06:23 AM
Tom  Offline
Active Member 2012
14500+ Member
Joined: Aug 2004
Posts: 14,795
Lawrence, Kansas
MM, a question. You've been bringing up your idea of the nature of the future here quite a bit lately (that is, that the future is like a rerun, so God just sees what already happened). I'm curious. Do you see that it is because God sees the future in a certain way that Christ had to die in order for God to obtain the legal right to pardon? If so, then I was wrong to request that you not discuss this here but on a different thread. That is, if your position on this question (that the death of Christ was necessary to give God the legal right to pardon) depends upon your view of the future, then let's discuss that here. If it's not dependent upon that, let's discuss it elsewhere.


Those who wait for the Bridegroom's coming are to say to the people, "Behold your God." The last rays of merciful light, the last message of mercy to be given to the world, is a revelation of His character of love.
Re: Does the legal aspect of imputed righteousness make sense under the Christus Victor model? [Re: Tom] #107358
01/09/09 09:28 PM
01/09/09 09:28 PM
Mountain Man  Offline
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Active Member 2019

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Joined: Oct 2000
Posts: 22,256
Southwest USA
Tom, the reason I bring up God's foreknowledge in this context is to explain why He offered to pardon Lucifer even though He knew he would reject it. The exact same identical thing played out in the case of Judas.

Re: Does the legal aspect of imputed righteousness make sense under the Christus Victor model? [Re: Mountain Man] #107383
01/10/09 02:59 AM
01/10/09 02:59 AM
Tom  Offline
Active Member 2012
14500+ Member
Joined: Aug 2004
Posts: 14,795
Lawrence, Kansas
First of all, you know I believe this to be false. Second of all, this isn't the thread for this discussion, unless you see some connection which you haven't specified. From your response, it doesn't look like you do either, so please don't bring this up any more in this thread, but, if you wish to discuss this, you can open a thread about it.

Thanks.


Those who wait for the Bridegroom's coming are to say to the people, "Behold your God." The last rays of merciful light, the last message of mercy to be given to the world, is a revelation of His character of love.
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