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Re: Does the Bible envision converted Christians committing sins of ignorance? [Re: Mountain Man] #121571
11/14/09 03:23 PM
11/14/09 03:23 PM
Tom  Offline
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Posts: 14,795
Lawrence, Kansas
Quote:
M: First of all, I do not think discussing the timing of putting on incorruption as it relates to "righteousness and true holiness" is off topic. Thank you for bringing it up. I agree with Tom, though, that "righteousness and true holiness" cease requiring the atoning blood of Jesus before they put on incorruption.

T: To clarify something here, I didn't say the righteous cease requiring the atoning blood of Jesus. I spoke only of Christ's work of intercession. The atoning blood of Jesus covers more than simply Christ's work of intercession.

M:Do you agree with me that the "righteousness and true holiness" experienced after probation closes does not require the atoning blood of Jesus?


No, I disagree. However, I believe that Christ will have removed His priestly robes, so He will not be continuing the intercessory work He was doing in the MHP.

Quote:
T:God offered to pardon Lucifer's sin. Therefore, assuming Lucifer's sin was not one of ignorance . . . God can pardon willful sin without atonement.

M:Do you agree that offering to pardon sin is not the same thing as actually pardoning sin? And, do you agree God did not actually pardon Lucifer?


Since God's word is good, and we can trust He will do what He says, there is no meaningful difference.


Those who wait for the Bridegroom's coming are to say to the people, "Behold your God." The last rays of merciful light, the last message of mercy to be given to the world, is a revelation of His character of love.
Re: Does the Bible envision converted Christians committing sins of ignorance? [Re: Mountain Man] #121572
11/14/09 03:26 PM
11/14/09 03:26 PM
Tom  Offline
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Lawrence, Kansas
Originally Posted By: MM
I mean to say Ellen's "inbred sin" is equivalent to her "hereditary tendencies to wrong" and that it isn't the same thing as sinners choosing to sin. Do you agree?


I disagree. If you look at the definition I provided, it looks to me like it's referring to sins committed, and not referring to one's heredity. You'll see the definition speaks of a thing being "as if" it were hereditary. The point is not the the sin was inbred through genetic manipulation, but people have become so attached to their sins, they become such a part of them, it is as if they were. This seems to be in harmony with the context of the EGW quotes, it looks to me.


Those who wait for the Bridegroom's coming are to say to the people, "Behold your God." The last rays of merciful light, the last message of mercy to be given to the world, is a revelation of His character of love.
Re: Does the Bible envision converted Christians committing sins of ignorance? [Re: Mountain Man] #121574
11/14/09 03:50 PM
11/14/09 03:50 PM
Tom  Offline
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Originally Posted By: GreenCochoa
The entire sacrificial system was built upon this concept. Sins of ignorance could be atoned for. Sins of knowledge cannot be (look at Lucifer's case--already discussed in another thread). When Jesus requested of His Father to forgive our sins of ignorance, He was fulfilling in every detail the type represented in the sacrifices. As the Anti-type, He requested forgiveness for us because we had sinned in ignorance.

T:God offered to pardon Lucifer's sin. Therefore, assuming Lucifer's sin was not one of ignorance (which looks to be what you're saying), God can pardon willful sin without atonement. But sins of ignorance require atonement. This appears to be what's being suggested (I'm not saying I agree or disagree with anything here, by the way; just trying to make I've got the details right, according to your point of view).

GC:Tom,

You seem to be uncertain about some of the things I have said, as if you do not understand them. (I'm not sure if you were arguing or just asking questions.)


I don't understand the confusion. I explained:

Quote:
I'm not saying I agree or disagree with anything here, by the way; just trying to make I've got the details right, according to your point of view.


I don't see how one could take this as an argument.

Quote:
Let me try to explain more fully.


Thanks!

Quote:
Lucifer did, at first, experience sin ignorantly--that is, he was ignorant of sin, not of God. God first talked with Lucifer, showed him plainly the direction he was headed, and revealed the truth about the sinfulness of Lucifer's thought and talk. God offered to pardon him at that point in time--at the same time giving Lucifer a fuller revelation of God. However, Lucifer was too proud to admit that he had been wrong. When he chose to continue in his course--this time full knowing that what he did was wrong, and already having a perfect knowledge of God and His character--this became an unatoneable sin. It is possible that God could have forgiven this sin, had Lucifer been truly repentant. However, no atoning sacrifice of Christ would have served to reveal anything of God's character with which Lucifer was not already acquainted. Atonement would not be required in this case--and in fact, could not be applied.


To summarize up to here:

1.Lucifer did commit sins of ignorance.
2.Lucifer also committed sins which were not of ignorance, this latter class being unatoneable.
3.The first class of sins, God would have pardoned Lucifer for, had he repented, as these were not unatoneable.

Quote:
Lucifer/Satan was not sinning ignorantly. He was not deceived. He knew full well what he was doing, but chose to do it anyway.

We are fundamentally unlike Lucifer, in that we have been and are still deceived into sin. Every sin we do can be attributed to our ignorance.


I've not heard this point of view before. However, I don't necessarily disagree with it. I'm wanting to see it fleshed out more. It's certainly an interesting concept. The concept looks to be that even though we *think* we know what we're doing, we really don't, at least, not as Lucifer/Satan did in the full light of heaven and God's knowledge. The following seems to support your idea, if not in all its particulars, at least in spirit:

Quote:
But even as a sinner, man was in a different position from that of Satan. Lucifer in heaven had sinned in the light of God's glory. To him as to no other created being was given a revelation of God's love.

Understanding the character of God, knowing His goodness, Satan chose to follow his own selfish, independent will. This choice was final. There was no more that God could do to save him. But man was deceived; his mind was darkened by Satan's sophistry. The height and depth of the love of God he did not know. For him there was hope in a knowledge of God's love. By beholding His character he might be drawn back to God. (DA 761-762)


I see you quoted the same passage! It looks like we may see this similarly.

Quote:
Ignorance, however, saves no one.


I agree, which is why Lucifer needed to repent and be pardoned.

Quote:
It is not an excuse for sin. Jesus said "Ye shall know the truth, and the truth shall set you free." Ignorance is bondage. Only a knowledge of the truth can free us from sin--and it will.


I agree with this as well.

Quote:
If/when we know the full impact of our sins, in contrast to God's beautiful image, we will no longer desire to sin.


I agree with this, for those who love God.

Quote:
We will not choose to sin. Satan knows this, and this is why he fights to keep us ignorant.


I agree with this as well. He tries to keep us ignorant of the truth, to hold us in bondage.


Those who wait for the Bridegroom's coming are to say to the people, "Behold your God." The last rays of merciful light, the last message of mercy to be given to the world, is a revelation of His character of love.
Re: Does the Bible envision converted Christians committing sins of ignorance? [Re: Mountain Man] #121575
11/14/09 03:59 PM
11/14/09 03:59 PM
Rosangela  Offline
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Posts: 6,154
Brazil
Quote:
R: "‘And you shall love the LORD your God with all your heart, with all your soul, with all your mind, and with all your strength.’ This is the first commandment." Are we able to do that? Are we able to love God as He deserves to be loved? If not, aren't we transgressing the commandment, or failing to keep it? This, technically, would be a form of "sinning." Besides, doesn't the fact that it needs the blood of Christ confirm that it's a form of sinning? And if it needs Christ's blood and mediation now, won't it need it at the time of trouble? This would be the nature of God's "problem." Either this deficiency will cease to exist or God will have to take care of it without Christ's mediation.

M: Just to be clear, are you saying “righteousness and true holiness” is “a form of sinning”? Ellen wrote: “The Lord requires perfection from His redeemed family. He expects from us the perfection which Christ revealed in His humanity. (CG 477) Are you saying when believers experience “the perfection which Christ revealed in His humanity” it is “a form of sinning?

I'm saying that in our righteousness there is a taint of sin, that we fulfill the law imperfectly. Doesn't the law require perfect righteousness? Well, our righteousness is imperfect, deficient, and it can only be considered perfect in Christ, owing to His imputed merits.

Quote:
R: Well, it's not the same thing as sinners choosing to sin, but "sin" is "sin." She still refers to this (sinful tendencies) as "inward sin" and "indwelling sin."

M: If, as you say, it is a sin, do you think it can, in and of itself, bar the gates of heaven? If not, why not?

If it doesn't bar the gates of heaven to us it's because of Christ's sacrifice.

Quote:
If it’s a reference to “inbred sin” do you think it will be consumed before the time of trouble, before they put on incorruption?

If the reference is to this, it seems sinful tendencies will be eliminated from the character before Christians put on incorruption.

Re: Does the Bible envision converted Christians committing sins of ignorance? [Re: Mountain Man] #121624
11/15/09 09:22 PM
11/15/09 09:22 PM
Mountain Man  Offline OP
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Posts: 22,256
Southwest USA
Originally Posted By: Rosangela
M: Just to be clear, are you saying “righteousness and true holiness” is “a form of sinning”? Ellen wrote: “The Lord requires perfection from His redeemed family. He expects from us the perfection which Christ revealed in His humanity. (CG 477) Are you saying when believers experience “the perfection which Christ revealed in His humanity” it is “a form of sinning?

She also wrote: "The Saviour took upon Himself the infirmities of humanity and lived a sinless life, that men might have no fear that because of the weakness of human nature they could not overcome. Christ came to make us “partakers of the divine nature,” and His life declares that humanity, combined with divinity, does not commit sin. (MH 180) Are you saying humanity and divinity combined results in “a form of sinning”?

R: I'm saying that in our righteousness there is a taint of sin, that we fulfill the law imperfectly. Doesn't the law require perfect righteousness? Well, our righteousness is imperfect, deficient, and it can only be considered perfect in Christ, owing to His imputed merits.

The law requires a righteous life from beginning to end. It does not condemn the righteous results of “humanity combined with divinity”. Ellen wrote:

“The law requires righteousness,--a righteous life, a perfect character; and this man has not to give. He cannot meet the claims of God's holy law. But Christ, coming to the earth as man, lived a holy life, and developed a perfect character. These He offers as a free gift to all who will receive them. His life stands for the life of men. Thus they have remission of sins that are past, through the forbearance of God. More than this, Christ imbues men with the attributes of God. He builds up the human character after the similitude of the divine character, a goodly fabric of spiritual strength and beauty. Thus the very righteousness of the law is fulfilled in the believer in Christ. God can "be just, and the justifier of him which believeth in Jesus." Rom. 3:26. {DA 762.2}

Again, are you saying “the very righteousness of the law [that] is fulfilled in the believer in Christ” is “a form of sinning”, that it is “tainted with sin”, that it “imperfectly fulfills the law”?

Quote:
R: Well, it's not the same thing as sinners choosing to sin, but "sin" is "sin." She still refers to this (sinful tendencies) as "inward sin" and "indwelling sin."

M: If, as you say, it is a sin, do you think it can, in and of itself, bar the gates of heaven? If not, why not?
T: If it doesn't bar the gates of heaven to us it's because of Christ's sacrifice.

But can it, in and of itself, bar the gates of heaven?

Quote:
M: Also, do you think the expression "their earthliness must be consumed" (GC 621) implies they are sinning? If not, what do you think it means?

R: No, I don't think it implies they are sinning, or choosing to sin. Maybe it's a reference to sinful tendencies, but we cannot say it with certainty. Since you don't believe sinful tendencies can be removed before Christ's coming, how do you interpret this expression?

M: If it’s a reference to “inbred sin” do you think it will be consumed before the time of trouble, before they put on incorruption? What do you think “consumed” entails? I don’t think “earthliness” refers to sinning or “inbred sin”. I suspect it refers to our survival instincts, our natural ability and responsibility to meet our basic needs (food, water, shelter, etc).

R: If the reference is to [inbred sin], it seems sinful tendencies will be eliminated from the character before Christians put on incorruption.

Do you believe hereditary “sinful tendencies to wrong” exist in the character we develop? Or, do you believe they exist in the sinful flesh nature we inherit at conception? Ellen wrote:

Quote:
The Christian will feel the promptings of sin, for the flesh lusteth against the Spirit; but the Spirit striveth against the flesh, keeping up a constant warfare. (SL 92, 93)

Old habits, hereditary tendencies to wrong, will strive for the mastery, and against these he is to be ever on guard, striving in Christ’s strength for victory. (AA 476)

He who determines to enter the spiritual kingdom will find that all the powers and passions of an unregenerate nature, backed by the forces of the kingdom of darkness, are arrayed against him. Selfishness and pride will make a stand against anything that would show them to be sinful. We cannot, of ourselves, conquer the evil desires and habits that strive for the mastery. We cannot overcome the mighty foe who holds us in his thrall. God alone can give us the victory. (MB 142)

So long as Satan reigns, we shall have self to subdue, besetting sins to overcome; so long as life shall last, there will be no stopping place, no point which we can reach and say, I have fully attained. {AA 560.3}

She consistently says we shall have to resist inbred sin, our hereditary sinful tendencies to wrong, until we are changed in the twinkling of an eye, at which time our nature is changed not our character. Ellen wrote:

"The characters formed in this life will determine the future destiny. When Christ shall come, He will not change the character of any individual. Precious, probationary time is given to be improved in washing our robes of character and making them white in the blood of the Lamb. To remove the stains of sin requires the work of a lifetime. Every day renewed efforts in restraining and denying self are needed. Every day there are new battles to fight and victories to be gained. Every day the soul should be called out in earnest pleading with God for the mighty victories of the cross. {4T 429.2}

"To remove the stains of sin requires the work of a lifetime." But if I'm hearing you right, you believe it is impossible to remove the taint or stain of sin in this lifetime, that "humanity and divinity combined" and its resulting "righteousness and true holiness" will always be stained with sin. Have I misunderstood your point?

Re: Does the Bible envision converted Christians committing sins of ignorance? [Re: Mountain Man] #121625
11/15/09 10:59 PM
11/15/09 10:59 PM
Mountain Man  Offline OP
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Originally Posted By: Tom
M: I agree with Tom, though, that "righteousness and true holiness" cease requiring the atoning blood of Jesus before they put on incorruption.

T: To clarify something here, I didn't say the righteous cease requiring the atoning blood of Jesus. I spoke only of Christ's work of intercession. The atoning blood of Jesus covers more than simply Christ's work of intercession.

M: Do you agree with me that the "righteousness and true holiness" experienced after probation closes does not require the atoning blood of Jesus?

T: No, I disagree. However, I believe that Christ will have removed His priestly robes, so He will not be continuing the intercessory work He was doing in the MHP.

Do you believe the "righteousness and true holiness" experienced after probation closes is stained with sin?

Quote:
T: God offered to pardon Lucifer's sin. Therefore, assuming Lucifer's sin was not one of ignorance . . . God can pardon willful sin without atonement.

M: Do you agree that offering to pardon sin is not the same thing as actually pardoning sin? And, do you agree God did not actually pardon Lucifer?

T: Since God's word is good, and we can trust He will do what He says, there is no meaningful difference.

You misunderstood my first question and overlooked the second one. If, as you say, there is “no meaningful difference” between offering pardon and actually pardoning, is it safe to conclude you believe God actually pardoned Lucifer?

Quote:
M: I mean to say Ellen's "inbred sin" is equivalent to her "hereditary tendencies to wrong" and that it isn't the same thing as sinners choosing to sin. Do you agree?

T: I disagree. If you look at the definition I provided, it looks to me like it's referring to sins committed, and not referring to one's heredity. You'll see the definition speaks of a thing being "as if" it were hereditary. The point is not the the sin was inbred through genetic manipulation, but people have become so attached to their sins, they become such a part of them, it is as if they were. This seems to be in harmony with the context of the EGW quotes, it looks to me.

Ellen wrote, “There will be battles with the powers of darkness, severe struggles against selfishness and inbred sin. {BEcho, June 25, 1894 par. 5} “From the cross to the crown there is earnest work to be done. There is wrestling with inbred sin; there is warfare against outward wrong. {RH, November 29, 1887 par. 12}

She only uses the phrase “inbred sin” twice. She repeats it three times in other articles. There isn’t much to go on. Miles Grant, a Millerite convert and contemporary author, wrote, “All admit that the ‘inbred sin’, as it is called, is received from our parents, by the law of heredity, and in no other way.” He was very familiar with the ministry Ellen White; unfortunately, though, he wrote a book discounting her visions.

Link

Re: Does the Bible envision converted Christians committing sins of ignorance? [Re: Mountain Man] #121632
11/16/09 04:32 PM
11/16/09 04:32 PM
Tom  Offline
Active Member 2012
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Joined: Aug 2004
Posts: 14,795
Lawrence, Kansas
Quote:
M: I agree with Tom, though, that "righteousness and true holiness" cease requiring the atoning blood of Jesus before they put on incorruption.

T: To clarify something here, I didn't say the righteous cease requiring the atoning blood of Jesus. I spoke only of Christ's work of intercession. The atoning blood of Jesus covers more than simply Christ's work of intercession.

M: Do you agree with me that the "righteousness and true holiness" experienced after probation closes does not require the atoning blood of Jesus?

T: No, I disagree. However, I believe that Christ will have removed His priestly robes, so He will not be continuing the intercessory work He was doing in the MHP.

M:Do you believe the "righteousness and true holiness" experienced after probation closes is stained with sin?


No. I don't think "righteousness and true holiness" is ever stained with sin. I don't even think this question makes sense, as these are antonyms.

Quote:
T: God offered to pardon Lucifer's sin. Therefore, assuming Lucifer's sin was not one of ignorance . . . God can pardon willful sin without atonement.

M: Do you agree that offering to pardon sin is not the same thing as actually pardoning sin? And, do you agree God did not actually pardon Lucifer?

T: Since God's word is good, and we can trust He will do what He says, there is no meaningful difference.

M:You misunderstood my first question and overlooked the second one. If, as you say, there is “no meaningful difference” between offering pardon and actually pardoning, is it safe to conclude you believe God actually pardoned Lucifer?


Since God's word is good, we can trust He would do what He said He would. The conditions for pardon were repentance and submission. That Lucifer chose not to comply with the conditions doesn't change anything.

Quote:
M: I mean to say Ellen's "inbred sin" is equivalent to her "hereditary tendencies to wrong" and that it isn't the same thing as sinners choosing to sin. Do you agree?

T: I disagree. If you look at the definition I provided, it looks to me like it's referring to sins committed, and not referring to one's heredity. You'll see the definition speaks of a thing being "as if" it were hereditary. The point is not the the sin was inbred through genetic manipulation, but people have become so attached to their sins, they become such a part of them, it is as if they were. This seems to be in harmony with the context of the EGW quotes, it looks to me.

Ellen wrote, “There will be battles with the powers of darkness, severe struggles against selfishness and inbred sin. {BEcho, June 25, 1894 par. 5} “From the cross to the crown there is earnest work to be done. There is wrestling with inbred sin; there is warfare against outward wrong. {RH, November 29, 1887 par. 12}

She only uses the phrase “inbred sin” twice. She repeats it three times in other articles. There isn’t much to go on. Miles Grant, a Millerite convert and contemporary author, wrote, “All admit that the ‘inbred sin’, as it is called, is received from our parents, by the law of heredity, and in no other way.” He was very familiar with the ministry Ellen White; unfortunately, though, he wrote a book discounting her visions.


It seems to me, if you look at the context, she was using the expression along the lines of the definition I quoted. I don't think she was speaking to the law of heredity. I agree with you regarding there not being much to go on.


Those who wait for the Bridegroom's coming are to say to the people, "Behold your God." The last rays of merciful light, the last message of mercy to be given to the world, is a revelation of His character of love.
Re: Does the Bible envision converted Christians committing sins of ignorance? [Re: Mountain Man] #121633
11/16/09 04:34 PM
11/16/09 04:34 PM
Rosangela  Offline
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Posts: 6,154
Brazil
Quote:
Again, are you saying “the very righteousness of the law [that] is fulfilled in the believer in Christ” is “a form of sinning”, that it is “tainted with sin”, that it “imperfectly fulfills the law”?

Yes, it's in this way that I see my own works.

The words of John came forcibly to my mind, "If we say that we have no sin, we deceive ourselves, and the truth is not in us." 1 John 1:8. I was shown that those who triumphantly claim to be sinless, show by their very boasting that they are far from being without taint of sin. The more clearly fallen man comprehends the character of Christ, the more distrustful will he be of himself, and the more imperfect will his works appear to him, in contrast with those which marked the life of the spotless Redeemer. But those who are far from Jesus, those whose spiritual perceptions are so clouded by error that they cannot comprehend the character of the great Exemplar, conceive of Him as altogether such a one as themselves, and dare to talk of their own perfection of holiness. But they are far from God; they know little of themselves, and less of Christ. {LS 84.3}

This is also what I see Ellen White saying here:

Oh, that all may see that everything in obedience, in penitence, in praise and thanksgiving, must be placed upon the glowing fire of the righteousness of Christ. {1SM 344.2, 3}

"When it is in the heart to obey God, when efforts are put forth to this end, Jesus accepts this disposition and effort as man's best service, and He makes up for the deficiency with His own divine merit." {FW 50.1}

Quote:
M: If, as you say, it [inbred sin] is a sin, do you think it can, in and of itself, bar the gates of heaven? If not, why not?
T: If it doesn't bar the gates of heaven to us it's because of Christ's sacrifice.
M: But can it, in and of itself, bar the gates of heaven?

Of course! Could anybody, even a baby, enter heaven without Christ's sacrifice?

Quote:
"To remove the stains of sin requires the work of a lifetime." But if I'm hearing you right, you believe it is impossible to remove the taint or stain of sin in this lifetime, that "humanity and divinity combined" and its resulting "righteousness and true holiness" will always be stained with sin. Have I misunderstood your point?

Sorry, but you are in no better position! According to your view, it's impossible to remove the taint or stain of sin (inbred sin) in this lifetime. Theoretically, in my view, if selfishness (tendencies to wrong) is completely removed, this would allow for the possibility of the taint of sin being removed from the Christian's obedience.

Re: Does the Bible envision converted Christians committing sins of ignorance? [Re: Rosangela] #121638
11/16/09 07:38 PM
11/16/09 07:38 PM
Tom  Offline
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Joined: Aug 2004
Posts: 14,795
Lawrence, Kansas
Quote:
M: If, as you say, it [inbred sin] is a sin, do you think it can, in and of itself, bar the gates of heaven? If not, why not?
T: If it doesn't bar the gates of heaven to us it's because of Christ's sacrifice.
M: But can it, in and of itself, bar the gates of heaven?

R:Of course! Could anybody, even a baby, enter heaven without Christ's sacrifice?


The underlined "T" should be an "R," as Rosangela said this, not I.

Quote:
M:
"To remove the stains of sin requires the work of a lifetime." But if I'm hearing you right, you believe it is impossible to remove the taint or stain of sin in this lifetime, that "humanity and divinity combined" and its resulting "righteousness and true holiness" will always be stained with sin. Have I misunderstood your point?

R:Sorry, but you are in no better position! According to your view, it's impossible to remove the taint or stain of sin (inbred sin) in this lifetime. Theoretically, in my view, if selfishness (tendencies to wrong) is completely removed, this would allow for the possibility of the taint of sin being removed from the Christian's obedience.


I take it you agree that our sinful natures will not changed until Christ's second coming. So if the "taint of sin" can be removed from us, before Christ comes, then it cannot be the case that taint of sin = having a sinful nature.


Those who wait for the Bridegroom's coming are to say to the people, "Behold your God." The last rays of merciful light, the last message of mercy to be given to the world, is a revelation of His character of love.
Re: Does the Bible envision converted Christians committing sins of ignorance? [Re: Tom] #121639
11/16/09 08:20 PM
11/16/09 08:20 PM
Mountain Man  Offline OP
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Joined: Oct 2000
Posts: 22,256
Southwest USA
Tom, thank you for addressing my comments and questions. I think I agree with Miles Grant's definition of "inbred sin". See link above. Scroll up to page 28 to read the short section on "inbred sin". It was a popular term. It makes sense to assume Ellen's use of it was consistent with the times.

Rosangela, thank you, too. I am surprised to learn you believe "humanity and divinity combined" and its resulting "righteousness and true holiness" is "a form of sinning". Also, you might be interested to learn I do not believe "inbred sin" (sinful flesh) counts against us in judgment. It does not require atonement because it is not a commission of sin. Character, not nature, determines our eternal destiny in judgment.

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