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Re: "God destroys no man" explained [Re: Mountain Man] #132079
03/23/11 10:52 PM
03/23/11 10:52 PM
Tom  Offline
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Joined: Aug 2004
Posts: 14,795
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Quote:
Perhaps we understand Romans 1 differently? I believe it means that everyone at some point in time believes God is real. However, some people go on thereafter to reject what they once believed and conclude God does not exist. In judgment, however, they will be without excuse since at one point they truly believed.


PTI, but here's the passage in Romans 1:

Quote:
18For the wrath of God is revealed from heaven against all ungodliness and unrighteousness of men, who hold the truth in unrighteousness;

19Because that which may be known of God is manifest in them; for God hath shewed it unto them.

20For the invisible things of him from the creation of the world are clearly seen, being understood by the things that are made, even his eternal power and Godhead; so that they are without excuse:


How do you get from what Romans 1 says here to what you said?


Those who wait for the Bridegroom's coming are to say to the people, "Behold your God." The last rays of merciful light, the last message of mercy to be given to the world, is a revelation of His character of love.
Re: "God destroys no man" explained [Re: Tom] #132082
03/24/11 01:40 AM
03/24/11 01:40 AM
Mountain Man  Offline OP
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The "however" above addresses points not dealt with in Romans 1:18-20. By the way, does Romans 1:18-20 assume once a believer always a believer? By "believer" I mean believe God exists.

Re: "God destroys no man" explained [Re: Mountain Man] #132083
03/24/11 01:41 AM
03/24/11 01:41 AM
Mountain Man  Offline OP
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Tom, please address 132074.

Re: "God destroys no man" explained [Re: Mountain Man] #132087
03/24/11 12:07 PM
03/24/11 12:07 PM
Tom  Offline
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Joined: Aug 2004
Posts: 14,795
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Originally Posted By: MM
The "however" above addresses points not dealt with in Romans 1:18-20. By the way, does Romans 1:18-20 assume once a believer always a believer? By "believer" I mean believe God exists.


Romans one simply says that what is known of God is known to all because God has manifested Himself to them. I don't know how you're getting the idea that this doesn't universally apply. You have the idea that it only applies at some point in a person's life, but this isn't at all what Paul is saying.

Again, here's Paul:

Quote:
18For the wrath of God is revealed from heaven against all ungodliness and unrighteousness of men, who hold the truth in unrighteousness;

19Because that which may be known of God is manifest in them; for God hath shewed it unto them.

20For the invisible things of him from the creation of the world are clearly seen, being understood by the things that are made, even his eternal power and Godhead; so that they are without excuse:


Here's you:

Quote:
I believe it means that everyone at some point in time believes God is real. However, some people go on thereafter to reject what they once believed and conclude God does not exist. In judgment, however, they will be without excuse since at one point they truly believed.


These are very different thingst. What I'm asking is, how do you get from what Paul said to what you say? There must be some process of logic involved to get from point A (what Paul said) to point B (what you said). What's the logic?

Another text that comes to mind is in John where he says that Jesus Christ is the light the lightens everyone in the world. He *is* that light which *lightens*. Jesus Christ doesn't stop lighting, and God does not stop manifesting Himself to all. All are without excuse because of this (i.e. because the manifesting of Himself is constant, so that what can be known of God continues to be known).


Those who wait for the Bridegroom's coming are to say to the people, "Behold your God." The last rays of merciful light, the last message of mercy to be given to the world, is a revelation of His character of love.
Re: "God destroys no man" explained [Re: Mountain Man] #132088
03/24/11 12:29 PM
03/24/11 12:29 PM
Tom  Offline
Active Member 2012
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Joined: Aug 2004
Posts: 14,795
Lawrence, Kansas
Originally Posted By: MM
M: What exactly do you think Ellen meant when she implied there are people who declare the existence of God to be untrue, who refuse to accept the existence, truth, or validity of God?

T: We don't need Ellen White to know that there are people who deny the existence of God. What this means is to deny that God exists; to declare that untrue; to refuse to accept the truth of validity of that statement. It's not the truth or validity of God that's being denied, but the truth or validity of the statement that God exists that's being denied.

M:The statement we're discussing was made by Ellen. It was she who said there are people who deny the existence of God.


We don't need Ellen White to know that there are people who deny God's existence. That people deny God's existence does not contradict Romans 1. This is the point I've been making all along, before Ellen White entered into the conversation.

Quote:
We're not discussing atheists who deny statements made by others regarding the existence of God.


You wrote of those "who refuse to accept the existence, truth, or validity of God." This is a misstatement. They don't deny the truth or validity of God, but the truth or validity of the statement (i.e. assertion; statement of a fact) that God exists.

Quote:
Apparently the 1828 Webster's dictionary reflects the meaning of words used by Ellen White. The word "atheism", according to the 1828 Webster's dictionary, means "the disbelief of the existence of a God, or Supreme intelligent Being." The word "deny" means "to reject; to disown; not to receive or embrace." And, the word "infidelity" means "disbelief of the inspiration of the Scriptures, or the divine origin of Christianity; unbelief."

Using these definitions, it is clear to me Ellen believed there are people who do not believe God exists.


Romans 1 says that all are without excuse because what can be know of God is known to them because God Himself has shown them of Himself. I'm sure Ellen White believed this to be true.

Quote:
She also made it clear there are people who do not believe Satan exists.


Satan has not manifest himself to others in the way God has. He could if he wanted to, but it serves his purposes to have people think he does not exist. This isn't the case for God.

Quote:
In the quote above, she did not, as you seem to think, say there are people who reject statements claiming God exists.


??? Why do you think I think this?

Quote:
Which seems to imply you believe there is a significant difference between rejecting all such claims and actually believing God does not exist.


??? Same question.

Quote:
Have I misunderstood your point?


Apparently so. My point has been that all are without excuse because what can be known of God is known by them because God Himself has shown them.

Quote:
Also, why do you think atheists publicly reject claims that God exists, if, as you seem to think, they secretly in their heart know He does exist?


Ellen White addresses why in the quotes you cited. One reason is that they hate the God that has been presented to them. They prefer to believe He does not exist than to believe that the God (e.g. one who tortures others with fire for bad deeds committed) presented to them exists.

Quote:
M: In the case of (1) people who “deny the existence of the Creator, and challenge the God of heaven to strike them dead on the spot if their position is wrong” and the (2) people Ellen described in the passages above working side-by-side feeding, clothing, and sheltering the poor and needy, it sounds like you’re saying there is no difference between the two kinds of people so far as the origin and source of their good works.

T: I made no comment regarding this.

M:I keep hoping you will make a comment. That’s why I’ve been repeating this point over and over. Would you mind explaining your thoughts on this point?


The point I've been making is that one cannot do good works without the power of God. Therefore if they've been doing good works, it's because God was involved.

You have made statement to the contrary of this, asserting that they can do good works independently of God, despite the quotes from Ellen White which you yourself cited stating that we (human beings) cannot do good works without a power outside of ourselves, the context clearly referring to God.

I've made the following point:

1.If it is true that one cannot do good works apart from a power outside of oneself (which is the power of God).

2.And a person does good works.

3.It follows that such a person, doing good works, did so with the help of God.

You have disagreed with this, although this seems like very simple and straight-forward logic. I have repeatedly asked you to address this, but instead you've simply asked me more questions.

I'm asking you yet again to please address this point.

Quote:
T:1.Anyone can do good works, whether believing in God or not, and they can do so without God's assistance.

2.Anyone who responds to the Holy Spirit can do good works.

3.Born again + Holy Spirit = good works. This means to do good works one must be born again, and God's assistance must be involved.

I've understood you to be asserting 1. It sounds like you believe EGW was asserting 3. I've been asserting 2.

M:Let’s use my example to discuss this point – “feeding, clothing, and sheltering the poor and needy.” I believe group 1 and group 2 are both performing good works.


Group 1 doesn't exist. If one cannot do good works without a power outside of oneself, then the number of people doing good works independently, without God's help, is 0.

Quote:
The difference between the two groups is that group 2 are born-again, Spirit-filled believers who give God the honor and glory whereas group 1 are people who do not believe God exists and give no one and nothing credit for their good works.


The difference is there are no members of group 1.

Quote:
If I’m hearing what you’re saying, you believe the Holy Spirit empowered them to feed, clothe, and shelter the poor and needy because otherwise they are incapable of performing such good works. Whereas I believe they are perfectly capable of performing such good works without the assistance of the Holy Spirit.


The SOP quote which you yourself cited says that one cannot do good works without a power outside of oneself, the context speaking of such power being God.

Quote:
T: Also, I asked you some questions in my previous post, to which you responded with questions. I asked you to answer my question. You didn't do so. You've asked me a lot of questions here, and I've answered them. Please answer my questions as well. In particular, here's the question I asked you to answer: “Since to do good works, one needs a power outside of ones (from the SOP quote), if they are not depending upon a power outside of themselves, then it would follow they are not doing good works, right?”

M:I believe the difference between the good works performed by group 1 and group 2 has to do with the origin and source of their good works and whether or not they give God the honor and glory.


This isn't dealing with my question. Please re-read it.

Quote:
I believe the origin and source of the good works performed by group 2 is a born-again heart and the Holy Spirit. On the other hand, the origin and source of the same good works performed by group 1 is self.


This cannot be, because one cannot do good works without a power outside of oneself. Self is not a power outside of oneself.

Quote:
“A selfish heart may perform generous actions.” {SC 58}


It seems clear you're misapplying this statement. For one thing, you're not considering the context, which deals with how actions appear from the outside. For another, you're not considering the text which you yourself cited stating that one cannot do good works without power from outside of oneself.

Quote:
Technically speaking, from God’s point of view, all such “righteousnesses are as filthy rags.”


If they are as filthy rags, they aren't good works.

Quote:
But practically speaking, from the view point of the poor and needy, the food, clothing, and shelter provided at the hands of atheists satisfies their physical needs the same as when provided by the best of believers. I realize you disagree with me, but please accept this as my answer. It’s what I believe.


Our disagreement involves two points.

1.One cannot do good works without a power outside of oneself.
2.All know of God because God Himself has shown them of Himself.


Those who wait for the Bridegroom's coming are to say to the people, "Behold your God." The last rays of merciful light, the last message of mercy to be given to the world, is a revelation of His character of love.
Re: "God destroys no man" explained [Re: Tom] #132091
03/24/11 04:20 PM
03/24/11 04:20 PM
Mountain Man  Offline OP
SDA
Charter Member
Active Member 2019

20000+ Member
Joined: Oct 2000
Posts: 22,256
Southwest USA
Originally Posted By: Tom
Originally Posted By: MM
The "however" above addresses points not dealt with in Romans 1:18-20. By the way, does Romans 1:18-20 assume once a believer always a believer? By "believer" I mean believe God exists.


Romans one simply says that what is known of God is known to all because God has manifested Himself to them. I don't know how you're getting the idea that this doesn't universally apply. You have the idea that it only applies at some point in a person's life, but this isn't at all what Paul is saying.

Again, here's Paul:

Quote:
18For the wrath of God is revealed from heaven against all ungodliness and unrighteousness of men, who hold the truth in unrighteousness;

19Because that which may be known of God is manifest in them; for God hath shewed it unto them.

20For the invisible things of him from the creation of the world are clearly seen, being understood by the things that are made, even his eternal power and Godhead; so that they are without excuse:


Here's you:

Quote:
I believe it means that everyone at some point in time believes God is real. However, some people go on thereafter to reject what they once believed and conclude God does not exist. In judgment, however, they will be without excuse since at one point they truly believed.


These are very different thingst. What I'm asking is, how do you get from what Paul said to what you say? There must be some process of logic involved to get from point A (what Paul said) to point B (what you said). What's the logic?

Another text that comes to mind is in John where he says that Jesus Christ is the light the lightens everyone in the world. He *is* that light which *lightens*. Jesus Christ doesn't stop lighting, and God does not stop manifesting Himself to all. All are without excuse because of this (i.e. because the manifesting of Himself is constant, so that what can be known of God continues to be known).

Just because the existence of God is always evident, it does not mean we always interpret the evidence as proof He is real. People who reject and resist Jesus often enough eventually "harden their heart" and "sear their conscience" beyond hope. They "did not like to retain God in their knowledge" and "changed the truth of God into a lie." Such souls have committed the unpardonable sin. They are incapable of repenting and God is, therefore, unable to pardon them. Nevertheless, they are without excuse.

Re: "God destroys no man" explained [Re: Mountain Man] #132093
03/24/11 05:01 PM
03/24/11 05:01 PM
Mountain Man  Offline OP
SDA
Charter Member
Active Member 2019

20000+ Member
Joined: Oct 2000
Posts: 22,256
Southwest USA
Originally Posted By: Tom
M: Also, why do you think atheists publicly reject claims that God exists, if, as you seem to think, they secretly in their heart know He does exist?

T: Ellen White addresses why in the quotes you cited. One reason is that they hate the God that has been presented to them. They prefer to believe He does not exist than to believe that the God (e.g. one who tortures others with fire for bad deeds committed) presented to them exists.

When an atheists personally tells you, Tom, God does not exist, what do you, Tom, tell him?

Quote:
M: Technically speaking, from God’s point of view, all such “righteousnesses are as filthy rags.”

T: If they are as filthy rags, they aren't good works.

M: But practically speaking, from the view point of the poor and needy, the food, clothing, and shelter provided at the hands of atheists satisfies their physical needs the same as when provided by the best of believers. I realize you disagree with me, but please accept this as my answer. It’s what I believe.

T: Our disagreement involves two points. 1. One cannot do good works without a power outside of oneself. 2. All know of God because God Himself has shown them of Himself.

Yes, we disagree. I believe there are people, atheists, who do not believe God exists. And, I believe they are doing good works, without help from God, when they feed, clothe, and shelter the poor and needy.

Re: "God destroys no man" explained [Re: Mountain Man] #132095
03/25/11 01:44 AM
03/25/11 01:44 AM
Tom  Offline
Active Member 2012
14500+ Member
Joined: Aug 2004
Posts: 14,795
Lawrence, Kansas
Quote:
Again, here's Paul:

"18For the wrath of God is revealed from heaven against all ungodliness and unrighteousness of men, who hold the truth in unrighteousness;

19Because that which may be known of God is manifest in them; for God hath shewed it unto them.

20For the invisible things of him from the creation of the world are clearly seen, being understood by the things that are made, even his eternal power and Godhead; so that they are without excuse:"

Here's you:

"I believe it means that everyone at some point in time believes God is real. However, some people go on thereafter to reject what they once believed and conclude God does not exist. In judgment, however, they will be without excuse since at one point they truly believed."

These are very different things. What I'm asking is, how do you get from what Paul said to what you say? There must be some process of logic involved to get from point A (what Paul said) to point B (what you said). What's the logic?

Another text that comes to mind is in John where he says that Jesus Christ is the light the lightens everyone in the world. He *is* that light which *lightens*. Jesus Christ doesn't stop lighting, and God does not stop manifesting Himself to all. All are without excuse because of this (i.e. because the manifesting of Himself is constant, so that what can be known of God continues to be known).

[quote]M:Just because the existence of God is always evident, it does not mean we always interpret the evidence as proof He is real. People who reject and resist Jesus often enough eventually "harden their heart" and "sear their conscience" beyond hope. They "did not like to retain God in their knowledge" and "changed the truth of God into a lie." Such souls have committed the unpardonable sin. They are incapable of repenting and God is, therefore, unable to pardon them. Nevertheless, they are without excuse.


This isn't responsive to my question.

Paul said one thing. You said another. I'm asking by what logic you get from what Paul said to what you said.


Those who wait for the Bridegroom's coming are to say to the people, "Behold your God." The last rays of merciful light, the last message of mercy to be given to the world, is a revelation of His character of love.
Re: "God destroys no man" explained [Re: Tom] #132096
03/25/11 01:49 AM
03/25/11 01:49 AM
Tom  Offline
Active Member 2012
14500+ Member
Joined: Aug 2004
Posts: 14,795
Lawrence, Kansas
Quote:
M: Also, why do you think atheists publicly reject claims that God exists, if, as you seem to think, they secretly in their heart know He does exist?

T: Ellen White addresses why in the quotes you cited. One reason is that they hate the God that has been presented to them. They prefer to believe He does not exist than to believe that the God (e.g. one who tortures others with fire for bad deeds committed) presented to them exists.

M:When an atheists personally tells you, Tom, God does not exist, what do you, Tom, tell him?


If I believed the person didn't know that God existed, then I would be picking what they said over what Paul said. I believe what Paul said, that what can be know of God *is known by them* because God has manifested it to Him. I understand this is what God is saying. We have:

1."You (anyone) know of Me, because I have shown Myself to you." (this is God speaking)

2."I don't believe God exists" (some person speaking)

Who am I going to believe? I believe God.

Quote:
T: Our disagreement involves two points. 1. One cannot do good works without a power outside of oneself. 2. All know of God because God Himself has shown them of Himself.

M:Yes, we disagree. I believe there are people, atheists, who do not believe God exists. And, I believe they are doing good works, without help from God, when they feed, clothe, and shelter the poor and needy.


The first point contradicts Romans 1, and the second the quote from the SOP you cited saying that one is dependent upon a power outside of oneself in order to good works.

I've been asking you for quite some regarding both of these, and don't know why you believe what you do as opposed to these statements by Paul and the SOP respectively.


Those who wait for the Bridegroom's coming are to say to the people, "Behold your God." The last rays of merciful light, the last message of mercy to be given to the world, is a revelation of His character of love.
Re: "God destroys no man" explained [Re: Tom] #132100
03/25/11 04:47 PM
03/25/11 04:47 PM
Mountain Man  Offline OP
SDA
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Active Member 2019

20000+ Member
Joined: Oct 2000
Posts: 22,256
Southwest USA
Originally Posted By: Tom
M: Just because the existence of God is always evident, it does not mean we always interpret the evidence as proof He is real. People who reject and resist Jesus often enough eventually "harden their heart" and "sear their conscience" beyond hope. They "did not like to retain God in their knowledge" and "changed the truth of God into a lie." Such souls have committed the unpardonable sin. They are incapable of repenting and God is, therefore, unable to pardon them. Nevertheless, they are without excuse.


T: This isn't responsive to my question. Paul said one thing. You said another. I'm asking by what logic you get from what Paul said to what you said.

I do not agree with your interpretation. I do not believe Paul meant for us to understand him to say, "Everyone knows God exists because God makes it clear to them every day of their life."

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