I don't know all the answers to these questions, and really, I don't think we finite beings can ever fully understand all the details this side of heaven. Its a subject we will study through all eternity and still gain fresh insights into this redemption plan.

So my answer to Rosangla is that, yes, Christ tasted or experienced the agonies of the second death, but He arose again which is impossible for those who actually die the second death.

My understanding of the first and second death is:
--the first death is likened to a "sleep". A situation from which the voice of God awakens us.
--the second death is eternal, one from which there is no return.

So yes, I see Christ as "tasting" or experiencing the full agonies of a person entering the second death. That agony was extremely intense because Christ and the Father had a closeness unequaled by anything we know.





So in that sense He EXPERIENCED every agony those who are eternally lost could experience. The eternally lost however will experience nothing more, ever.

But His death was not eternal, Christ arose and lives!

I'm afraid that raises a few questions in my mind. It almost sounds like Christ was three independant beings?? Though that's probably not what you meant.

Christ's divinty in my understanding was an attribute, not a separate being that continued consious living after the body died. I can agree that that attribute, along with His sinlessness, made it impossible for death to hold Him. But I also believe Christ was totally in the unconcious sleep of death.

Christ was also resurrected in the glorified human body -- it was still a human body complete with the scars of the nails in His hands and feet and the wound in His side from the spear. A glorified body yes, but still a human body -- the same PERSON that was crucified.

Those resurrected in the first resurrection at Christ's coming, -- resurrected from the first death of "sleep", will also have glorified human bodies yet still be the same persons they were before death. But they did not, nor will not experience the second death.



But as I mentioned earlier, I don't think finite minds can fully understand all the details in the glorious redemption plan carried out by God.

Yes, Dedication, it's about the person! That's the key to understanding this.

This is a mystery, with about one single opening for our limited, finite minds that God has given us.

No, the divinity of Christ did not, could not die, but the divine person, the Son of God, could and did.

Sister White says that the Author of life suffered on Calvary. That's at least one clue to how God himself did die for us.

Christ did taste death for every man, as Dedication noted (Heb 2:9), rather than die without being resurrected: his righteousness earned him his resurrection, not just gifting his merits to this world - amen, hallelujah.

It was as the person of the Son of God that Jesus offered himself a worthy sacrifice for the sins of the world.

Isn't it significant that Jesus rose again as a divine-human being without a sinful flesh body and nature? He rose again a radically different being. His divinity could not have lapsed into an unconscious state while Jesus rested in the tomb. But I agree Jesus as a divine-human being was resting in an unconscious state.

Where is the underlined section written in Scripture?

I only found three instances where the word "scapegoat" in used in the KJV, which is:

Lev_16:8 And Aaron shall cast lots upon the two goats; one lot for the LORD, and the other lot for the scapegoat.

Lev_16:10 But the goat, on which the lot fell to be the scapegoat, shall be presented alive before the LORD, to make an atonement with him, and to let him go for a scapegoat into the wilderness.

Lev_16:26 And he that let go the goat for the scapegoat shall wash his clothes, and bathe his flesh in water, and afterward come into the camp.

Tx Daryl for the texts. Kland has brought to my attention where the sin were laid on the head of the 2nd goat("the live goat") which is found in Lev 16:21.

Then I decided to re-read the whole chapter again in case I missed something else. If you read Lev 16:5 please note that both goats were sin-offerings. For an animal to be a sin-offering, the animal needed to be without blemish to represent Jesus. Both animals were without blemish, so both animals represented Jesus. A perfect goat cannot represent Satan.

Our confusion and error in thinking the second goat is Azazel, is due to many English Tranlation that have translated it as so, when actually the original text says that the second goat was sent TO a third goat called Azazel. I have supplied the details with interlinear and the masoretic text to support this post #137916 in the discussion Is the Scapegoat Satan or Jesus?

In respect to this discussion, the point MM makes ....
.... is totally erronous and unfounded. This type of conclusion is based on the fact that we totally do not understand the difference between the first death and the second death. Let's look in how the Lord define the 1st adn 2nd death via His WORD before we can attempt making conclusion.